CDR practice exam questions with complete solutions

CDR practice exam questions with complete solutions In addition to having demonstrated CDR's core competencies, all entry-level registered dietitian nutritionists must have _____. demonstrated additional competencies for at least one emphasis area. a letter of reference from the director of the supervised practice program. demonstrated cultural competency. passed an exam documenting their knowledge of the Standards of Professional Practice. The correct answer is A. The core competency statements build on appropriate knowledge and skills necessary for the entry-level practitioner to perform reliably at the level indicated. One or more of the emphasis areas are added to the core competencies so that a supervised practice program can prepare graduates for identified market needs. ACEND requires dietetics education programs to offer an emphasis area in order to _____. prepare each entry-level RDN for advanced practice prepare each entry-level RDN as a specialist ensure that each entry-level RDN has had the opportunity to experience cutting-edge practice prepare each entry-level RD to begin to develop the depth necessary for future proficiency in that area of dietetics practice The correct answer is D. All dietitian education supervised practice programs must offer at least one emphasis area. Supervised practice program prepares graduates for practice at the entry-level. The emphasis of the program reflects the unique environment of the program rather than a specialty or advanced-practice. Specialty or advanced practice take, on average, 3 years of intensive practice post-exam. Competencies for each emphasis are built on the core competencies and are designed to begin to develop the depth necessary for future proficiency in that area of dietetics practice. More experience in at least one area provides a model for learning throughout one's career. The minimum number of additional competencies that ACEND requires a program to have to support its emphasis area is _____. 3 5 7 9 The correct answer is C. For establishing an emphasis area, the program has the following options: (1) Use one or more of the four defined emphasis areas; (2) Develop a general emphasis by selecting a minimum of seven competency statements, relevant to program mission and goals, with at least one from each of the four defined emphasis areas; the selected competencies should build on the core competencies; or (3) Create a unique emphasis area with a minimum of seven competency statements, based on environmental resources and identified needs. Alcohol metabolism can cause decreased uptake of fatty acids from the blood. fatty acid syntheses. lipogenesis. beta-oxidation. The correct answer is D. The shift in the NADH/NAD+ ratio inhibits beta-oxidation of fatty acids and promotes triglyceride synthesis. The Academy has published Standards of Practice (SOP) in Nutrition Care and Standards of Professional Performance (SOPP) for registered dietitian nutritionists and nutrition and dietetic technicians, registered. What is the difference between these two sets of standards? The SOP in Nutrition Care apply only to credentialed registered dietitian nutritionists working in acute care and the SOPP apply only to practitioners working as consultants. The SOP in Nutrition Care vary based on state law; the SOPP do not. The SOP in Nutrition Care apply only to RDNs and the SOPP apply to both RDNs and NDTRs. The SOP in Nutrition Care are based on the four steps of the Nutrition Care Process and the SOPP are based on the six domains of professionalism. The correct answer is D. The SOP are based on the four steps of the Nutrition Care Process and apply to credentialed food and nutrition professionals involved in direct patient care. As such, the SOP do not apply to practitioners who neither provide nor oversee the delivery of direct patient care. The SOPP apply to all credentialed food and nutrition professionals regardless of practice area. For credentialed RDNs and NDTRs, what is the basic difference between a statutory scope of practice and an individual scope of practice? A statutory (legal) scope of practice is, primarily, defined at the state level and an individual scope of practice is flexible and defined by the individual's professional practice. A statutory (legal) scope of practice is defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and an individual's scope of practice in nutrition and dietetics is determined by the employer. A statutory (legal) scope of practice is defined by the US Department of Health and Human Services and an individual scope of practice is defined by the areas in which the practitioner provides services. There is no difference. All credentialed dietetics practitioners have the same statutory and individual scope of practice. The correct answer is A. "Legal scopes of practice for the health care professions establish which professionals may provide which health care services, in which settings, and under which guidelines or parameters. With few exceptions, determining scopes of practice is a state-based activity. State legislatures consider and pass the practice acts, which become state statute or code. State regulatory agencies, such as medical and other health professions' boards, implement the laws by writing and enforcing rules and regulations detailing the acts." An individual's scope of practice in nutrition and dietetics has flexible boundaries to capture the breadth of the individual's professional practice. Individuals and organizations must ethically take responsibility for determining the practitioner's competence to provide a specific service. Not all RDNs and NDTRs will practice to the full extent of the range of nutrition and dietetics practice. A study that looks back in time to reconstruct exposures and the resulting health outcomes for a group of people free of the disease or condition being studied is termed a: retrospective cohort study. correlational study. prospective cohort study. prevalence study. The correct answer is A. A retrospective cohort study looks back; the cohort is the group of people studied to see who develops the characteristics of interest and who do not A 56-year-old male client presents to the ambulatory clinic for a team visit. Physical exam reveals: Height: 5'9"; weight: 223 pounds; body mass index (BMI) 33; blood pressure: 168/96; heart rate 74. Pertinent laboratory results : hemoglobin A1c: 7.0%, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 2.0 mU/L, Medications: Metformin (Glucophage 1000 mg daily), Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg. Review of symptoms: positive for daytime sleepiness, wife complains of loud snoring. Mood: affect appears to be good. Despite excellent adherence to DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) meal plan, blood pressure continues to be elevated. What is the best explanation for his elevation in blood pressure and daytime somnolence? A drug/drug interaction of hydrochlorothiazide and Metformin Untreated thyroid disease Undiagnosed obstructive sleep apnea Untreated depression The correct answer is C. There is no drug/drug interaction with these two medications, TSH is normal, and mood has been assessed as positive so depression can be ruled out. All symptoms point to the likely possibility of obstructive sleep apnea When considering cow's milk versus human breastmilk, which of the following is true? Human milk contains less protein. Human milk provides more calcium. Cow's milk provides less potassium and sodium. Cow's milk contains a lower proportion of casein compared to whey protein. The correct answer is A. Breastmilk is lower in protein than cow's milk (6 to 7% of calories in human milk vs 20% in cow's milk). It also has less calcium, sodium, and potassium than cow's milk. Casein accounts for 80% of the protein in cow's milk, so it actually has a higher proportion of casein compared to whey protein. Which of the following individuals would be LEAST likely to be at risk for vitamin B-12 deficiency? A vegan A woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome taking metformin therapy An elderly individual on a proton pump inhibitor A man on aspirin therapy The correct answer is D. A patient on aspirin therapy may be at risk for iron deficiency but not vitamin B-12 deficiency. National Institutes of Health. Vitamin B12 Fact Sheet. Available at: Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the concept of weight bias? Weight bias is more prevalent among registered dietitian nutritionists than mental health workers. Weight bias is more common than sexual orientation bias. Weight bias is comparable to racial discrimination. Weight bias does not exist among registered dietitian nutritionists who often work with obese clients. The correct answer is D. Weight bias exists in clinical settings and research from the Yale University Rudd Center for Food Policy and Obesity demonstrates that it is more common among registered dietitian nutritionists than mental health professionals. It is noteworthy that even RDNs who work with obese clients have weight bias and may not know it. Which one of the following foods should be avoided in treatment of gout? Low-fat yogurt Rye bread Banana Regular soft drinks The correct answer is D. The American College of Rheumatology Guidelines for the Management of Gout state that these patients should avoid high-fructose corn syrup, which is found in regular soft drinks. Low-fat dairy products, fruits and vegetables, and whole grains are recommended. . If broccoli loses 21% to trim and cooking, and you need to have 48 lbs of cooked broccoli, how much fresh broccoli should you buy? 58 lbs 61 lbs 69 lbs 77 lbs The correct answer is B. AP (as purchased) = AS (as served) x 100 / 100 - W (waste weight) AP = 48 x 100 / 100 - 21; AP = 4800/79 = 60.759 lb or 61 lbs HACCP principles must be considered in order. Which of the following is the fourth principle? Establish critical limits Establish monitoring procedures Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation Verify that the system works The correct answer is B. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan is a system that identifies, evaluates, and controls hazards that are significant for food safety. The steps in order are: (1) Conduct a hazard analysis. (2) Determine critical control points. (3) Establish critical limits. (4) Establish monitoring procedures. (5) Identify corrective actions. (6) Verify that the system works. (7) Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation. Which of the following is the best option to serve unpasteurized eggs to older adult patients in a nursing home? Freshly cracked sunnyside up Tiramisu Mousse Cake The correct answer is D. Older adults in nursing homes are at high risk for foodborne illness because their immune systems are compromised. Unpasteurized shell eggs may be used if the dish will be cooked all the way through, such as in a cake. Use pasteurized eggs when dishes containing eggs will be served raw or undercooked, such as tiramisu, mousse, or over-easy eggs. After reviewing the results of menu engineering, what is the best way to manage a puzzle? Remove the item from the menu. Decrease the menu item's selling price. Serve smaller portions of the menu item. Give the item top priority on the menu. The correct answer is B. Menu engineering is the practice of developing menus with the goal to encourage customers to buy certain items. Puzzle items are those that are profitable but not popular. One way to address puzzles is to change the selling price in order to encourage sales.