NCCT Full Exam Questions With Verified Answers

A) Stainless steel - Answer Surgical instruments are made of what type of substance? A) Stainless steel B) Copper C) Silver D) Aluminum C) Sleeve - Answer Which is not part of a typical surgical instrument? A) Tip B) Jaws C) Sleeve D) Finger rings A) Context - Answer It is efficient to learn the names of instruments as they are in ________. A) Context B) The sterilizer C) Storage D) Pictures B) Type - Answer During surgery, many surgeons identify instruments by __________. A) Full name B) Type C) Size D) Code B) Jaws - Answer Which part of a clamp hold the tissue securely? A) Shank B) Jaws C) Hinge D) Blade C) Hemostats - Answer The most common types of clamps are called _______. A) Scalpel B) Forceps C) Hemostats D) Holders A) Holding tissue to the side away from the wound - Answer Retractors are used for _________. A) Holding tissue to the side away from the wound B) Closing vessels C) Incision D) Sutures A) Scalpel handle B) Scalpel blade C) Scissors D) Thumb forceps E) Retractor F) Hemostatic clamp - Answer (Figure 1) Name each of the above instruments with it's generic name, proceeding from left to right. A) B) C) D) E) F) A) Needle holder B) Suction tip C) Obstetric forceps D) Cardiovascular scissors E) Bone cutter - Answer (Figure 2) Examine the photograph above and identify the instruments from left to right. A) B) C) D) E) E) Heavy needle drivers - Answer Heavy suturing: A) Fine needle drivers B) Towel holders C) Hemostats D) Wire cutters E) Heavy needle drivers C) Hemostats - Answer Delicate vessels: A) Fine needle drivers B) Towel holders C) Hemostats D) Wire cutters E) Heavy needle drivers B) Towel holders - Answer Holding drapes: A) Fine needle drivers B) Towel holders C) Hemostats D) Wire cutters E) Heavy needle drivers D) Wire cutters - Answer Wire sutures: A) Fine needle drivers B) Towel holders C) Hemostats D) Wire cutters E) Heavy needle drivers A) Fine needle drivers - Answer Delicate needles: A) Fine needle drivers B) Towel holders C) Hemostats D) Wire cutters E) Heavy needle drivers C) A and B - Answer Which is not a proper way to handle tools during surgery? A) Throw instruments into basins B) Soak in saline solution C) A and B D) Keep sharp instruments away from other instruments B) Stone forceps - Answer Which type of forceps would be used for grasping kidney stones or gallstones? A) Tenaculum B) Stone forceps C) Toothed forceps D) Babcock C) Include defective instruments - Answer Which of the following is not a typical way to arrange surgical instruments? A) Arrange tips and finger loops in the same direction B) Avoid metal to metal contact C) Include defective instruments D) Arrange instruments by classification B) Designated processing area - Answer After surgery, the instruments used and unused are cleaned in the _________. A) O.R. B) Designated processing area C) Corridor D) Surgical suite D) A and B - Answer Microsurgical and ophthalmic instruments are __________. A) Cleaned by hand B) Dried by hand C) Sterilized in the washer-sterilizer D) A and B C) Boiling water - Answer All of the following are methods of sterilization except _________. A) Steam under pressure B) Cobalt 60 C) Boiling water D) Ethylene oxide B) Carbon dioxide and Frenon - Answer Ethylene oxide is highly flammable, but when mixed with _________ and ________, it is rendered non-flammable. A) Freon and carbon monoxide B) Carbon dioxide and Frenon C) Nitrous and Carbon dioxide D) Frenon and CFC's D) Oils and powders - Answer Which of the following is dry heat sterilization used for? A) Cotton B) Metal instruments, power drills C) Lense instruments D) Oils and powders C) Glutaraldehyde - Answer Which disinfectant agent is not recommended for O.R. housekeeping? A) Iodine B) Alcohol (70%-90% isopropyl) C) Glutaraldehyde D) Chlorine compound solution A) 12lbs - Answer Which of the following is the correct maximum weight for a linen pack to autoclave? A) 12lbs B) 74lbs C) 72lbs D) 24lbs C) Type of sterilant - Answer All of the following are factors that affect the steam sterilization process except __________. A) Exposure B) Temperature C) Type of sterilant D) Pressure C) Cost - Answer The Material Safety Date Sheet on each chemical would typically include all but which of the following? A) Protective measures B) Exposure limits C) Cost D) Chemical name and common names C) A and B - Answer OSHA regulates standards for the prevention of _______. A) HIV B) Hepatitis B virus C) A and B D) Sterilization B) Toxic substances - Answer OSHA enforces the level of _________ permissible in the work environment. A) Sexual harassment B) Toxic substances C) Work day length D) Smoking B) Exposure limits - Answer OSHA controls the ________ for Isopropyl alcohol, Phenol, and Sodium hypochlorite. A) Cost B) Exposure limits C) Disposal methods D) Shelf life A) Food may not be stored int he same refrigerator with blood or specimens - Answer Which of the following is standard for the control of biohazards? A) Food may not be stored in the same refrigerator with blood or specimens B) Hospital break rooms may not be to near a dumpster C) Smoking is not allowed in hospital facilities D) Biohazard labeling must be in a certain type of font C) A and B - Answer OSHA limits the percentage of ethlyne oxide gas because ___________. A) EO gas can cause burns to the skin B) Of irritation to the mucous membranes C) A and B D) It damages equipment C) Fuel, heat, oxygen - Answer The components of a fire include _________. A) Heat and oxygen B) Fuel, and oxygen C) Fuel, heat, and oxygen D) Oxygen, fuel, and CO2 C) Extinguished - Answer With the removal of any one component, a fire will be _______. A) Fueled B) Diminished C) Extinguished D) Started B) Disconnect the equipment - Answer When performing maintenance tasks on electrical equipment, first _________. A) Read the manual B) Disconnect the equipment C) Check for frayed cords and plugs D) Clean the floor C) Class B & C - Answer Dry chemicals are used on ________ fires. A) Class A B) Class B C) Class B & C D) Class A & C A) Fleshy area of skin - Answer A patient grounding pad is placed on a(n) ________. A) Fleshy area of skin B) Bony prominence C) Area of thin skin D) Farthest away from the operative site D) Orange - Answer Cylopropane is always stored in a(n) ________ cylinder. A) Green B) Black C) Brown D) Orange D) Black - Answer Nitrogen is always stored in a ________ cylinder. A) Green B) Blue C) Brown D) Black D) 5' - Answer If the O.R. does not have explosion-proof electrical outlets, the outlets must be ________ off the floor. A) 2' B) 3' C) 4' D) 5' B) Cotton - Answer Blankets in the operating room should be made of _________. A) Wool B) Cotton C) Nylon D) Polyester D) Immediately stop using it - Answer If a piece of equipment becomes damages, you should __________. A) Announce it to the nurse B) Announce it to the doctor C) Put an "out of order" sign on it D) Immediately stop using it B) 2" - Answer The most explosive area in the O.R. is that within a ________ radius around the patient's face mast. A) 12" B) 2" C) 2 1/2" D) 3" A) Unlabeled bottle or container may be used if you recognize the fluid - Answer All but one of the following precautions should be followed when working with disinfectants except __________. A) An unlabeled bottle or container may be used if you recognize the fluid B) Never mix two disinfectants together C) Wear personal protective equipment D) Store in well ventilated rooms B) Frequently - Answer Head covers, masks, and shoes, should be changed __________. A) Once a day B) Frequently C) Once a week D) Twice a day B) Throw your mask away and get a new one - Answer After a case is over, you should __________. A) Keep your mask around your neck B) Throw your mask away and get a new one C) Keep your mask on until all cases are finished D) Put the mask in your pocket until all cases are finished A) Grounding - Answer Making an electrical connection with the earth is called __________. A) Grounding B) Insulating C) Conducting D) Electrocution B) Class B - Answer To which category to gasoline fires belong? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class B & C D) Class C B) Electric shock - Answer Sudden stimulation of nerves and convulsive contraction of the muscles caused by the discharge or electricity through the body is ________. A) Insulator B) Electric shock C) Electrocution D) Conductor C) Conductor - Answer A medium that allows for the transmission of electricity is a(n) ___________. A) Electrocution B) Static electricity C) Conductor D) Grounding B) Anticoagulant - Answer A drug that prolongs blood clotting time is called ___________. A) Coagulant B) Anticoagulant C) Diuretic D) Contrast medium B) Corticosteroids - Answer A group of drugs that are used in surgery to reduce inflammation are __________. A) antibiotic B) Corticosteroids C) Diuretic D) Oxytocin B) Postoperative - Answer Analgesics are normally used in the __________ period. A) Preoperative B) Postoperative C) Convalescent D) Outpatient B) Dye solutions - Answer Which of the following would not be on a crash cart? A) Cardiac stimulant B) Dye solutions C) Respiratory stimulants D) Vasoconstrictors A) Anaphylaxis - Answer A life-threatening acute allergic reaction in which cells release histamine-like substances is called ___________. A) Anaphylaxis B) Bolus C) Intravenous D) Adrenergic C) Portable x-ray equipment - Answer Which of the following equipment would probably not be included on a crash cart? A) Oxygen cylinder B) Tracheotomy tray C) Portable x-ray equipment D) ECG monitor C) Never - Answer Thrombin is _________ injected. A) A dissolved powder B) Always C) Never D) Sometimes B) Contrast media - Answer Omnipaque, Renografin, and Cystografi are examples of __________. A) Animal protein B) Contrast media C) Stains D) Steroids B) Never - Answer O.R. Techs _________ administer drugs to patients. A) Often B) Never C) Sometimes D) Rarely B) The O.R. tech and the circulating nurse - Answer It is the responsibility of ________ to make certain that the correct drug, correct amount, and correct strength is administered. A) The O.R. tech B) The O.R. tech and the circulating nurse C) The anesthesiologist D) The perfusionist D) United States Pharmacopeia - Answer A common source of information about drugs would be ____________. A) Webster's New Collegiate Dictionary B) Britannica Pharmacy Guide C) The Physician's Desk Restorative D) United States Pharmacopeia B) Vasodilator - Answer A __________ dilates blood vessels. A) Vasospasmodic B) Vasodilator C) Vasoconstrictor D) Vasodeferens A) Nor epinephrine - Answer A medication used to restore blood pressure in acute hypotensive states is ____________. A) Nor epinephrine B) Epinephrine C) Lidocaine D) No choices are correct D) Systemic - Answer A drug that effects the whole body is referred to as _________. A) Strong B) Intravenous C) Parenteral D) Systemic B) Heparin - Answer ________ is used intravenously or as an irrigant and is the most common anticoagulant used. A) Protamine B) Heparin C) Thrombin D) Avetime B) Label each to prevent confusion - Answer If two or more syringes are of the same type, but contain different solutions, what is the appropriate action? A) Place the syringes on opposite ends of the back table B) Label each to prevent confusion C) Place a peanut (Kitner) inside of the syringes D) Place one syringe on the back table and place the other one on your mayo stand A) Hospital policy and procedure - Answer Disposal of used needles is regulated according to _______. A) Hospital policy and procedure B) The circulator in the room C) The surgeon D) The anesthesiologist B) 1000 - Answer One (1) gram = _________ milligrams. A) 100 B) 1000 C) 10 D) 0.10 C) 2.2 - Answer One (1) kilogram = ________ pounds. A) 3.0 B) 4.8 C) 2.2 D) 6.7 A) Calcium chloride - Answer The medication that increases myocardial tone and opposes the effect of potassium is _________. A) Calcium chloride B) Sodium bicarbonate C) Dopamine D) Nitroprusside C) Epinephrine - Answer A short-acting cardiac stimulant is ________. A) Protamine B) Lidocaine C) Epinephrine D) Dopamine A) Anesthetics - Answer Xylocaine, Novocaine, Ophthcaine and Pontocaine are examples of which of the following drugs? A) Anesthetics B) Antibiotics C) Mydriatics/cyclolegics D) Irrigants B) Vasoconstrictors - Answer Which of the following is used to prolong duration of local anesthetic and to decrease bleeding? A) Miotics B) Vasoconstrictors C) Antibiotics D) Anti-inflammatories A) Xylocaine - Answer Which anesthetic might be used for a digital nerve block? A) Xylocaine B) Cocaine C) Brevitol D) Atropine B) Topically - Answer A patient is scheduled to undergo a septoplasty and the operating surgeon has requested 4% cocaine. Which of the following statments best describes the administration route for this drug? A) Intramuscularly B) Topically C) Intravenously D) As an inhalation anesthetic A) Lidocaine 1% - Answer What drug is given to treat ventricular dysrhythmias? A) Lidocaine 1% B) Protamine C) Heparin D) Epinephrine A) Side effects - Answer Demerol is more commonly used than morphine because it produces less _________. A) Side effects B) Pain relief C) Addicted patients D) Drowsiness A) Contrast medium - Answer ________ is a dye that is introduced into the body cavity in order to become visible to x-ray observation. A) Contrast medium B) Bile C) Apothecaries D) Color administration B) Thyroid extract - Answer Which of the following is not a synthetic drug? A) Penicillin B) Thyroid extract C) Streptomycin D) Progestin A) Steroids - Answer Celestone,hexadrol, soul-cortef, and kenalog-40, are examples of ________ that are used in surgery. A) Steroids B) Antispasmodics C) Narcotics D) No answer is correct A) Antisepsis - Answer The prevention or inhibition of pathogenic microorganisms is called ___________. A) Antisepsis B) Cavitation C) Critical D) Cleaning C) Disinfection - Answer The process by which most but not all pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects are destroyed is called: A) Sterilization B) Sanitation C) Disinfection D) Cleaning B) Anesthesia equipment - Answer Critical items in surgery are those that must be sterile. Which of the following does not fit that category? A) Surgical instruments B) Anesthesia equipment C) Implants D) Needles D) All answers are correct - Answer Which of the following ways are approved for decontamination or surgical supplies and equipment? A) Processing through a washer-sterilizer B) Autoclave C) Trisodium phosphate and water in a metal basin D) All answers are correct A) Aseptic technique - Answer Methods and practices that prevent cross-contamination during surgery are called ____________. A) Aseptic technique B) Scrub work C) Common sense D) Surgery technique A) Strike-through contamination - Answer When water comes in contact with a sterile surface __________ occurs. A) Strike-through contamination B) Cleanliness C) Stains D) Moisture B) Use the prescribed drying method with a sterile towel - Answer After the sterile scrub, the next procedure is to ________________. A) Don sterile gloves B) Use the prescribed drying method with a sterile towel C) Air dry the hands D) Dry the hands on the scrub gown C) Supplement the body's natural defenses with specific drugs such as antibiotics - Answer For Treatment of acute inflammation, one would ____________. A) Rest the inflamed part B) Open drainage to allow bacteria to escape and relieve tension and swelling of inflamed part C) Supplement the body's natural defenses with specific drugs such as antibiotics D) All answers are correct C) Phagocytosis - Answer The process of protecting the body from infection through digesting bacteria is known as _____________. A) mononucleosis B) Leukocytosis C) Phagocytosis D) Thrombocytosis A) Only at table height - Answer Sterile tables are considered sterile ______________. A) Only at table height B) At the full length and height that is draped C) So that suture ends may freely trail D) After drapes are repositioned D) B and C - Answer Movement is kept to a minimum during surgery because ______________. A) It annoys the circulator B) Dust can carry pathogens C) Turbulence may move bacteria into the sterile area D) B and C A) Bacteria - Answer Spores, capsules, and falgella are part of __________. A) Bacteria B) Aseptic environment C) Cells D) Virus B) Disease-causing microorganism - Answer A pathogen is a(n) _____________. A) Parasite B) Disease-causing microorganism C) Obligate D) Mycology D) B and C - Answer Which of the following are characteristics of protozoa? A) Diarrhea with mucous-filled stools B) Unicellular C) Reproduce by fission D) B and C D) Sputum - Answer Which of the following is not a portal of entry for microorganism? A) Genitourinary tract B) Alimentary tract C) Respiratory tract D) Sputum A) Skin - Answer Which of the following is not a pathway for a microorganism to exit the body? A) Skin B) Blood C) Fecal matter D) Saliva B) Thromboplastin - Answer When cells are injured, platelets release _____________. A) Prothrombin B) Thromboplastin C) Fibrinogen D) RBC's C) Intestine - Answer Escherichia coli is normally found in the _____________. A) Ear B) Mouth C) Intestine D) Eye B) The same as - Answer Bacteria that flourish within the human body generally prefer a temperature that is ___________ the human body. A) Higher than B) The same as C) Lower than D) 10* different from A) Noscomial - Answer An infection acquired in the hospital is called _______________. A) Noscomial B) Virulent C) Viral D) Bacterial B) Staphylococcus aureus - Answer The pathogen that causes most post-operative infections is ____________. A) Streptococcus B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Bordetella pertussis D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Block - Answer Interferons ___________ the effect of the virus. A) Kill B) Block C) Increase D) Decrease A) Desiccation - Answer The process of drying or to cause tissue destruction by drying is _______________. A) Desiccation B) Dehydration C) Fiberoptic D) Cauterization D) Escherichia coli - Answer Gastroenteritis is caused by _________________. A) Shingella B) Enterobacterium C) Isospora bacterium D) Escherichia coli B) Bordetella pertussis - Answer Whooping cough is caused by ______________. A) Salmonella typhi B) Bordetella pertussis C) Shingella D) Pseudomonas D) Endotoxin - Answer A bacterial by-product that is released after the organism has died is called a(n) _______________. A) Capsule B) Spore C) Exotoxin D) Endotoxin D) Viscerotrophic - Answer Viral hepatitis is a common _____________ virus. A) Dermotropic B) Penumotropic C) Neurotropic D) Viscerotrophic B) Mixed - Answer An infection caused by more than one organism is referred to as ____________. A) Primary B) Mixed C) Secondary D) Latent C) Saliva - Answer Rabies is a disease transmitted primarily through ____________. A) Feces B) Urine C) Saliva D) Respiratory secretions C) Blood - Answer Serum hepatitis is transmitted through _____________. A) Urine B) Feces C) Blood D) Saliva C) Anterior - Answer Which directional word refers to the front of the body or body parts? A) Posterior B) Dorsal C) Anterior D) Prone B) Superior - Answer Which positional word conveys the idea of being above or over another region? A) Inferior B) Superior C) Bilateral D) Flexion A) Sagittal - Answer The ___________ plane divided the body into left and right halves. A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Coronal B) Arm - Answer The bracial, cubital, and carpal regions are located in the ___________. A) Knee B) Arm C) Neck D) Head A) Knee - Answer The popliteal region is located at the back of the ____________. A) Knee B) Shoulder C) Wrist D) Elbow D) Perineal - Answer The region between the anus and the pubic arch is termed ___________. A) Iliac B) Lumbar C) Hypochondriac D) Perineal B) Diaphragm - Answer The thorax and abdomen are divided by the _____________. A) Transverse plane B) Diaphragm C) Larynx D) Pelvic floor C) Neck - Answer The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located in the ____________. A) Back B) Cecum C) Neck D) Clavicle B) Mouth and rectum - Answer Which are the extreme starting and ending points of the digestive system? A) Mouth and intestine B) Mouth and rectum C) Sigmoid colon and esophagus D) Duodenum and throat B) Between - Answer The humerus is ___________ the clavicle and the wrist. A) Above B) Between C) Below D) Under B) Endocrine - Answer The pituitary, adrenal, thyroid and other ductless glands are all components of the ____________ system. A) Integumentary B) Endocrine C) Urinary D) Respiratory A) Cilia - Answer Tiny hair-like organelles within the respiratory region are called ______________. A) Cilia B) Sacs C) Bronchi D) Capillaries A) Four - Answer How many pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium? A) Four B) Two C) One D) Three D) Right atrium and the right ventricle - Answer The tricuspid valve is located between the ___________. A) Left atrium and the right atrium B) Left atrium and the left ventricle C) Left ventricle and the aorta D) Right atrium and the right ventricle B) 126 - Answer The appendicular skeleton is composed of how many bones? A) 123 B) 126 C) 136 D) 146 A) It is a soft sponge like material - Answer Which one of the following statements is true concerning the characteristics of bone marrow? A) It is a soft sponge like material B) It is a hard compact material C) It is found covering bones D) It manufactures glucose A) Marrow - Answer The deepest anatomical part of the bone is the ___________. A) Marrow B) Cartilage C) Periosteum D) Articular surface C) Above - Answer Thoracic vertebrae is ____________ the lumbar vertebrae. A) Below B) Beside C) Above D) Within B) Minute - Answer Normal respirations occur approximately 12-20 times per _____________. A) Second B) Minute C) Hour D) Day A) Head - Answer The sphenoid, ethmoid, and parietal bones are located in the ___________. A) Head B) Chest C) Mouth D) Neck C) Filters - Answer Lymph nodes serve as ____________. A) Aarbohydrate synthesizers B) Fuel producers C) Filters D) Protein synthesizers