MCAT entrance exam all subjects combined questions & answers latest update

m   1. Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases? A. UAA B. AGU C. AUG D. UGA 2. Which of the types of RNA is the smallest? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. 3. Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine? A. C B. T C. U D. G 4. Which of the following is paired correctly? A. A-G B. C-G C. A-U D. G-T 5. Which of the following characterizes a Western blot? A. Antibody/protein hybridization B. DNA/RNA combination C. RNA transcription D. Polymerase chain reaction 6. Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle? A. G2 B. G1 C. S D. G0 7. Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome? A. XXII B. XXI C. XIIX D. XV 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law? A. Mating between species occurs at a set rate. B. Migration is a considerable factor. C. Mutation occurs at the locus D. Genotype selection does not occur at the locus 9. Which of the following is not an activated carrier? A. ATP B. SAM C. TPP D. GMP 10. The end product of the TCA cycle produces NADH. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 11. How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 12. Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)? A. Melatonin B. Serotonin C. Creatine D. Niacin Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C Circulation Practice Questions 1. Prothrombin is a globulin and is produced by the . A. Alpha, Kidney B. Alpha, Liver C. Beta, Kidney D. Beta, Liver 2. The right coronary artery divides to form the posterior interventricular artery and the artery. A. Marginal B. LVC C. RVC D. LAD 3. Blood flowing into the cardiac veins enters the next. A. Coronary Sinus B. Left Ventricle C. Right Ventricle D. Left Atrium 4. If you are using a stethoscope and trying to detect the tricuspid valve which of the following would be the best location? A. Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process B. On the right side of the sternum C. On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint D. On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint of the sixth rib 5. Which of the following occurs during ventricular systole? A. Increased aortic pressure B. Increased ventricular volume C. Dup heart sound D. P wave 6. Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole? A. Increased aortic pressure B. Increased ventricular volume C. Lub heart sound D. T wave 7. The innermost layer of a blood vessel is lined with cells A. Simple squamous B. Stratified squamous C. Simple cuboidal epithelium D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium 8. Angiotension can directly cause the release of from the adrenal cortex. A. Renin B. Aldosterone C. Calcitonin D. Thyroxine 9. Cardiac output is the product of and . A. HR and Disastolic pressure B. HR and Stroke Volume C. HR and EF D. Diastolic and Systolic pressure 10. Pulmonary edema is most like associated with a failing . A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle 11. Which of the following is the first branch off the aortic arch? A. Common carotid B. Brachiocephalic C. Right Subclavian D. Thoracic 12. The brachiocephalic artery divides to form the right common carotid and the artery. A. Left subclavian B. Right subclavian C. Left common carotid D. Right thoracic artery 13. Which of the following arteries creates the left spenic, hepatic and gastric arteries? A. Left sacral artery B. Celiac artery C. Suprarenal artery D. Phrenic artery 14. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the descending thoracic aorta? A. Mediastinal artery B. Renal artery C. Bronchial artery D. Posterior intercostals artery 15. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the abdominal aorta? A. Phrenic artery B. Common iliac artery C. Gonadal artery D. Mediastinal artery 16. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the femoral artery? A. Superficial pudendal arteries B. Deep external pudendal arteries C. Superficial circumflex iliac artery D. Deep circumflex iliac artery 17. Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the portal vein? A. Inferior mesenteric vein B. Splenic vein C. Left gastric vein D. Subclavian vein 18. Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the artery. A. Basilar B. Common Carotid C. MCA D. PCA 19. Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the . A. Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure B. The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure C. The inverse of the blood pressure D. Half of the systolic pressure 20. nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the heart. A. Accelerator B. Phrenic C. Thoracic D. Gastric Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. A Electricity Practice Questions 15 1. Resistance in a circuit is generally measured in units of . A. W B. Õ C. K D. Z 2. Which of the following is the correct expression of Ohm's Law? A. I = R/V B. R= P/V C. I= P/V D. I = V/R 3. An operating lamp draws a current of .4 ampere. The amount of charge passing through the lamp in 10 seconds is? A. .045 C B. 4.0 C C. 5.0 C D. 6.24 C 4. To increase the brightness of a desk lamp a student replaces a 50 W light bulb with a 100 W light bulb. Compared to the 60 W light bulb the 100 W light bulb has? A. Less resistance and draws more current B. Less resistance and draws less current C. More resistance and draws more current D. More resistance and draws less current 5. An electric dryer consumes 6.0 x 106 joules of energy when operating at 220 volts for 30 minutes. During operation the dryer draws a current of approximately? A. 10 A B. 15 A C. 20 A D. 25 A 6. When 8.0 electronvolt photons strike a photo emissive surface, the maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons is 6.0 electronvolts. The work function of the photo emissive surface is A. .01 eV B. 1.0 eV C. 2.0 eV D. 3.0 eV 7. A high resistance is connected in series with the internal coil of a galvanometer to make? A. An ammeter B. A motor C. A generator D. A voltmeter 8. In a transformer, two coils are wound around a common iron core. To operate properly the transformer requires A. More turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil B. More turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil C. A direct current source connecting to the secondary coil D. An alternating current source connecting to the primary coil 9. Which device can be used to increase voltage from a source of direct current? A. Generator B. Electroscope C. Induction coil D. Mass spectrometer 10. The transformer on a power pole steps down the voltage from 10,800 volts to 120 volts. If the secondary coil contains 360 turns, how many turns are found on the primary coil? A. 603 B. 900 C. 15,000 D. 32,400 11. An electric motor draws 150 amperes of current while operating at 240 volts. What is the power rating of this motor? A. 2.1 x 10 B. 2.7 x 10 C. 3.6 x 10 D. 4.1 x 105 W 12. What is the potential difference across a 2.0 ohm resistor that draws 2.0 coulombs of charge per second? A. 1.0 V B. 2.0 V C. 3.0 V D. 4.0 V 13. If a 15-ohm resistor is connected in parallel with a 30 ohm-resistor, the equivalent resistance is? A. 5W B. 7W C. 10W D. 15W 14. A metal wire has length L and cross-sectional area A. The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to A. L/A B. A/L C. L + A D. L x A 15. A wire carries a current of 2.0 amperes. How many electrons pass a given point in this wire in 1.0 second? A. 1.3 x 1018 B. 2.0 x 1018 C. 1.3 x 1019 D. 2.0 x 1019 Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C 1. An atom with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2 has an incomplete A. 2p sublevel B. Second principal energy level C. Third principal energy level D. 4s sublevel 2. What is the total number of electrons in a completely filled fourth principal level? A. 8 B. 10 C. 16 D. 32 3. The characteristic bright line spectrum of an element is produced when its electrons A. Form a covalent bond B. Form an ionic bond C. Move to a higher energy state D. Move to a lower energy state 4. Which emanation has no mass and no charge? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Neutron 5. In which system do molecule-ion attractions exist? A. NaCl(aq) B. NaCl(s) C. C6H12O6(aq) D. C6H12O6(s) 6. A particle accelerator can increase the kinetic energy of A. An alpha particle and a beta particle B. An alpha particle and a neutron C. A gamma ray and a beta particle D. A neutron and a gamma ray 7. What is the total number of electrons needed to completely fill all of the orbitals in an atom's second principal energy level? A. 16 B. 2 C. 8 D. 4 8. An atom in an excited state can have an electron configuration of A. 1s22s2 B. 1s22p1 C. 1s22p2 D. 1s22s22p5 E. 1s22s22p6 9. Compared to the charge and mass of a proton an electron has A. The same charge and smaller mass B. The same charge and the same mass C. The opposite charge and smaller mass D. The opposite charge and the same mass 10. What is the total number of sublevels in the fourth principal energy level? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 11. Which atom in the ground state has only one unpaired electron in its valence shell? A. Aluminum B. Silicon C. Phosphorus D. Sulfur 12. The shape and bonding of a diatomic bromine molecule are best described as A. Symmetrical and polar B. Symmetrical and nonpolar C. Asymmetrical and polar D. Asymmetrical and nonpolar 13. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4? A. 0 B. -2 C. +6 D. +4 14. When alpha particles are used to bombard gold foil, most of the alpha particles pass through undeflected. This result indicates that most of the volume of gold atom consists of A. Neutrons B. Protons C. Deuterons D. Unoccupied space 15. When an alpha particle is emitted by an atom, the atomic number of the atom will A. Decrease by 2 B. Increase by 2 C. Decrease by 4 D. Increase by 4 16. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3p4? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Aluminum 13 B. Silicon 14 C. Sulfur 16 D. Chlorine 17 17. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3p6? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Sulfur 16 B. Chlorine 17 C. Argon 18 D. Potassium 19 18. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3s1? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Neon 10 B. Sodium 11 C. Magnesium 12 D. Aluminum 13 19. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 2p4? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Nitrogen 7 B. Oxygen 8 C. Neon 10 D. Magnesium 12 20. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be found in the orbital denoted by the letter f? A. 10 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18 Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. B 1. Which element is found in potassium chlorate and zinc nitrate? A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Potassium D. Zinc 2. Atoms of which element have the weakest attraction for electrons? A. Na B. P C. Si D. S 3. Which element is classified as a metalloid? A. Sulfur B. Silicon C. Barium D. Bromine 4. Which metal is most likely obtained by the electrolysis of its fused salt? A. Au B. Ag C. Li D. Zn 5. Because of its high reactivity, which element is never found free in nature? A. O B. F C. N D. Ne 6. Iron corrodes more easily than aluminum and zinc because aluminum and zinc both A. Are reduced B. Are oxidizing agents C. Form oxides that are self-protective D. Form oxides that are very reactive 7. Which substance is produced by the Haber process? A. Aluminum B. Ammonium C. Nitric acid D. Sulfuric acid 8. What is the total number of moles of hydrogen atoms contained in one mole of (NH4)2C2O2? A. 6 B. 2 C. 8 D. 8 E. 4 9. The observed regularities in the properties of elements are periodic functions of their A. Atomic numbers B. Mass numbers C. Oxidation states D. Nonvalence electrons 10. Which physical characteristic of a solution may indicate the presence of a transition element? A. Its density B. Its color C. Its effect on litmus D. Its effect on phenolphthalein 11. Which element has a crystalline lattice composed of positive ions through which electrons flow freely? A. Bromine B. Calcium C. Carbon D. Sulfur 12. Red litmus paper will turn blue when placed in an aqueous solution of A. KCl B. KOH C. CH D. CH3COOH 13. Equilibrium is attained in a chemical cell when cell voltage is equal to A. +1.00 V B. +2.00 V C. 0.00 V D. -1.00 V Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. C 1. Gibb's free energy equation is directly related to and . A. Work and Time B. Heat and Work C. Enthalpy and Entropy D. Power and Enthalpy 2. Which of the following is correct expression for Gibbs' free energy formula? A. DG = DH - TDS B. G = H - TS C. DG = DH – T/S D. G = H – T/S 3. Which of the following is the correct expression of Bernoulli's principle? A. As KE increases, another form of energy must decrease. B. As KE increases, other forms of energy also increase. C. KE remains relatively stable in a closed loop. D. KE has a limited effect upon wavelength. 4. Which of the following is the correct expression for work? A. W = DKE B. W = K - DE C. W = K x DE D. W = DK / DE 5. A spring has a spring constant of 120 newtons per meter. How much potential energy is stored in the spring as it is stretched .20 meter? A. 1.2 J B. 2.4 J C. 3.1 J D. 7.4 J 6. A distance of 1.0 x 103 separates the charge at the bottom of the cloud and the ground. The electric field intensity between the bottom of the cloud and the ground is 2..0 x 104 newtons per coulomb. What is the potential difference between the bottom of the cloud and the ground? A. 1.4 x 104 V B. 2.5 x 103 V C. 2.8 x 106 V D. 2.0 x 107 V 7. When Adam drinks cold water, his body warms the water until thermal equilibrium is reached. If he drinks six glasses (2.5 kilograms) of water at 0 degrees Celsius in a day, approximately how much energy must his body expend to raise the temperature of this water to his body's temperature of 37 degrees Celsius? A. 210 kJ B. 305 kJ C. 390 kJ D. 414 kJ 8. An electron is located between a pair of oppositely charged parallel plates. As the electron approaches the positively charged plate, the kinetic energy of the electron? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same 9. If the speed of a moving object is doubled, which quantity also associated with the object must double? A. Momentum B. KE C. Gravitational potential energy D. Acceleration 10. A 45 kilogram bicyclist climbs a hill at a constant speed of 2.5 meters per second by applying an average force of 85 Newtons. Approximately how much power does the bicyclist develop? A. 115 W B. 210 W C. 250 W D. 320 W 11. A person kicks in a 4.0 kilogram door with a 48 Newton force causing the door to accelerate at 12 meters per second2. What is the magnitude of the force exerted by the door on the person? A. 24 N B. 35 N C. 42 N D. 48 N 12. A 60 kilogram student running at 3.0 meters per second has a kinetic energy of . A. 111 J B. 151 J C. 260 J D. 270 J 13. How much work is done in moving 5.0 coulombs of charge against a potential difference of 12 volts? A. 30 J B. 60 J C. 400 J D. 400 J E. 500 J 14. Compared to insulators, metals are better conductors of electricity because metals contain more free . A. Protons B. Electrons C. Neutrons D. Neutrons E. Positive ions 15. How much time is required for an operating 100 W light bulb to dissipate 10 Joules of electrical energy? A. 1 sec. B. .1 sec C. .25 sec D. 200 sec Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. B 15. B Gases Practice Questions 1. Which of the following is the correct expression for the natural gas law? A. PT = nVR B. VR = nPT C. PV = nRT D. RT = nPV 2. What is the boiling point of water at standard pressure on the Kelvin Scale? A. 272 K B. 273 K C. 372 K D. 373 K 3. Which statement is consistent with the kinetic theory of ideal gases? A. Molecules transfer energy through collisions. B. Molecules are always stationary. C. The force of attraction between molecules is constant. D. The size of the molecules is large compared to the distance that separates them. 4. Gas molecules at the same temperature are always assumed to have the same A. Uniform velocity B. Uniform acceleration C. Straight line motion D. Straight line motion E. Random motion 5. As the volume of a fixed mass of an ideal gas increases at constant temperature, the product of the pressure and the volume of the gas A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains the same 6. Which property determines the direction of the exchange of internal energy between two objects? A. Temperature B. Specific Heat C. Mass D. Density 7. A glass rod becomes positively charged when it is rubbed with silk. This net positive charge accumulates because the glass rod A. Gains electrons B. Gains protons C. Loses electrons D. Loses protons Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C 1. Which of the following is not a specific element of duodenal ulcers? A. Primarily affects males B. Occasional malignancy C. Can lead to weight gain D. Affects people over 65 2. Which of the following is not a specific element of Hepatitis C? A. Vaccine available B. May be transmitted with sexual contact C. Inflammation of the liver D. Lifetime carrier 3. Which of the following Vitamins is not stored in the Liver? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 4. Which of the following microorganisms has been linked to Parotitis? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Schistosoma C. Wucheria bancrofti D. Trypanosoma cruzi 5. What type of cell releases somatostatin? A. b cells B. a cells C. plasma cells D. D cells 6. What type of cell releases glucagon? A. b cells B. a cells C. plasma cells D. D cells 7. What type of cell releases insulin? A. b cells B. a cells C. plasma cells D. D cells 8. Which of the following arteries supplies blood primarily to the Midgut? A. IMA B. Celiac C. SMA D. Axillary 9. Another name for the Myenteric plexus is the . A. Submucosal plexus B. Branchial plexus C. Auerbach's plexus D. Lumbar plexus 10. Which of the following enzyme breaks down starches to maltose. A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Trypsinogen D. Pepsin Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. A 1. When the chromosomes line up in mitosis this is known as which phase? A. Telophase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Prophase 2. Which cellular organelle contains enzymes that are considered digestive? A. Golgi Apparatus B. Lysosomes C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes 3. Organs repair themselves through a process of? A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Cellular differentiation D. Transformation 4. Which of the following is considered a model for enzyme action? A. Lock and Key model B. Enzyme interaction model C. Transformation model D. Transcription model 5. Which of the following statements about enzymes is not true? A. Enzymes are catalysts. B. Almost all enzymes are proteins. C. Enzymes operate most efficiently at optimum pH. D. Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions. 6. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is not true? A. Prostaglandins promote inflammation. B. Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels. C. Prostaglandins are made in the renal medulla. D. Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever. 7. Cholesterol that is known as (LDL) stands for: A. Low-density lipoproteins B. Low-density lysosomes C. Level-density lipoproteins D. Level-density lysosomes 8. Hardening of the arteries is known as: A. Atheriosclerosis B. Venous narrowing C. Micro-circulation D. Hypertension 9. Litmus paper that is blue will turn/stay in the presence of a strong base. A. Orange B. Red C. Blue D. Green 10. Breathing properly requires the presence of what compound that affects surface tension of alveoli in the lungs? A. Potassium B. Plasma C. Surfactant D. Sodium Chloride 11. Which of the following is not considered a function of the kidneys? A. Secretion B. Reabsorption C. Transport D. Filtration 12. The functional unit of the kidney is known as? A. Medulla B. Glomerulus C. Pyramid D. Nephron 13. Which of the following formulas indicate the ideal gas law? A. PV= knT or PV=RnT B. V=kT C. PV = k D. KTV =PR 14. Which of the following is not considered a characteristic or property of a gas? A. Volume B. Mass C. Pressure D. Particles 15. Which of the following is described in the definition: An object immersed in a fluid is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object? A. Archimedes' principle B. Charles' law C. Boyle's law D. Anderson's principle 16. Liquids that evaporate quickly are known as liquids. A. Viscous B. Volatile C. Evaporative D. Transient 17. High frequency sound waves are known as: A. Fundamental waves B. Overtones C. Consonance waves D. Dissonance waves 18. What anatomical structure connects the stomach and the mouth? A. Trachea B. Spinal column C. Hepatic duct D. Esophagus Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. D 1. When the chromosomes line up in mitosis this is known as which phase? A. Telophase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Prophase 2. Which cellular organelle contains enzymes that are considered digestive? A. Golgi Apparatus B. Lysosomes C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes 3. Organs repair themselves through a process of? A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Cellular differentiation D. Transformation 4. Which of the following is considered a model for enzyme action? A. Lock and Key model B. Enzyme interaction model C. Transformation model D. Transcription model 5. Which of the following statements about enzymes is not true? A. Enzymes are catalysts. B. Almost all enzymes are proteins. C. Enzymes operate most efficiently at optimum pH. D. Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions. 6. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is not true? A. Prostaglandins promote inflammation. B. Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels. C. Prostaglandins are made in the renal medulla. D. Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever. 7. Cholesterol that is known as (LDL) stands for: A. Low-density lipoproteins B. Low-density lysosomes C. Level-density lipoproteins D. Level-density lysosomes 8. Hardening of the arteries is known as: A. Atheriosclerosis B. Venous narrowing C. Micro-circulation D. Hypertension 9. Litmus paper that is blue will turn/stay in the presence of a strong base. A. Orange B. Red C. Blue D. Green 10. Breathing properly requires the presence of what compound that affects surface tension of alveoli in the lungs? A. Potassium B. Plasma C. Surfactant D. Sodium Chloride 11. Which of the following is not considered a function of the kidneys? A. Secretion B. Reabsorption C. Transport D. Filtration 12. The functional unit of the kidney is known as? A. Medulla B. Glomerulus C. Pyramid D. Nephron 13. Which of the following formulas indicate the ideal gas law? A. PV= knT or PV=RnT B. V=kT C. PV = k D. KTV =PR 14. Which of the following is not considered a characteristic or property of a gas? A. Volume B. Mass C. Pressure D. Particles 15. Which of the following is described in the definition: An object immersed in a fluid is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object? A. Archimedes' principle B. Charles' law C. Boyle's law D. Anderson's principle 16. Liquids that evaporate quickly are known as liquids. A. Viscous B. Volatile C. Evaporative D. Transient 17. High frequency sound waves are known as: A. Fundamental waves B. Overtones C. Consonance waves D. Dissonance waves 18. What anatomical structure connects the stomach and the mouth? A. Trachea B. Spinal column C. Hepatic duct D. Esophagus Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. D 1. The movement of food through the intestines is known as: A. Peristalsis B. Ileum translation C. Microvilli propulsion D. Flexure propulsion 2. The enzyme maltase does the following: A. Breaks down lactose to glucose B. Turns glucose into maltose C. Breaks down maltose to glucose D. Turns glucose into lactose 3. High levels of bilirubin in the blood stream can result in: A. Uric acid overexposure B. Jaundice C. Bile salt production D. Hepatic mutation 4. The symbol B on the periodic table stands for: A. Beryllium B. Boron C. Barium D. Berkelium 5. The symbol Mn on the periodic table stands for: A. Magnesium B. Molybdenum C. Manganese D. Margon 6. The symbol Ca on the periodic table stands for: A. Calcium B. Carbon C. Cobalt D. Chlorine 7. The symbol Br on the periodic table stands for: A. Beryllium B. Boron C. Barium D. Bromine 8. Vinegar is also known as: A. Acetic acid B. Acetone acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Ascorbic acid 9. A Lewis acid is a/an pair acceptor. A. Neutron B. Proton C. Electron D. Ion 10. reactions produce heat. A. Endothermic B. Exothermic C. Hydrogen D. Buffered 11. Which of the following match the definition: The pressure (P) is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of a gas. A. Archimedes' principle B. Charles' law C. Boyle's law D. Anderson's principle 12. The combination of sodium and chlorine to form NaCL is considered a/an bond. A. Ionic B. Covalent C. Hydrogen D. Metallic 13. Outer shell electrons are known as electrons. A. Hybrid B. Valence C. Vector D. Transitional 14. Forces can be indicated on graph paper by the use of . A. Empirical rules B. Interaction coefficients C. Variables D. Vectors 15. P1V1 = P2V2 represents: A. Archimedes' principle B. Charles' law C. Boyle's law D. Anderson's principle 16. Which of the following is not considered a primary color of light? A. Green B. Blue C. Red D. Yellow 17. The unit of charge is called the . A. Newton B. Coulomb C. Joule D. Watt 18. A/An is a device specifically designed to measure current. A. Ammeter B. Cyclotron C. Resistor D. Capacitor 19. The two bones found in the area between the knee and ankle in humans are known as: A. Femur and Tibia B. Fibula and Tibia C. Ulna and Tibia D. Radius and Tibia 20. is the current flow of one coulomb per second. A. Ampere B. Joule C. Watt D. Kilowatt Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A 1. Which of the following is considered a component of lipids? A. Plasma cells B. Fatty acids C. Nucleic acids D. Zinc 2. Down's syndrome affects chromosome . A. 13 B. 15 C. 21 D. 23 3. Blood enters the lungs from which chamber of the heart? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle 4. Excessive consumption of alcohol is most likely to damage which organ of the body over a long period of time? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Gallbladder 5. Which of the following is not considered a type of radiation ray? A. Gamma B. Beta C. Alpha D. Infrared 6. A molecule of hemoglobin can hold how many molecules of oxygen in the blood for transport? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 7. Which of the following best describes the biomechanics of breathing? A. Pump handle motion B. Lever action C. Inspiration D. Expiration 8. Animals that eat meat almost exclusively are known as: A. Herbivores B. Carnivores C. Arthropods D. Prolific organisms 9. The physical expressions of a gene are known as an organism's: A. Transcription B. Genotype C. Phenotype D. Translation 10. A ball is traveling at a constant velocity of 50 m/s and has been traveling for over 2 minutes. What is the ball's acceleration? A. 0 B. 25 m/s C. 25 m/s D. 50 m/s2 11. Neurons connect together at a . A. Synergy B. Terminal site C. Docking station D. Synapse 12. Which of the following is another word for the kneecap in the human body? A. Pisiform B. Meniscus C. Popliteal bursa D. Patella 13. Which of the following describes the shoulder joint A. Ball and socket joint B. Saddle joint C. Hinge joint D. Pivot joint 14. The organ of Corti is found in what area of the body? A. Mouth B. Ear C. Nose D. Lungs 15. The condition of rickets is associated with a deficiency in which vitamin? A. A B. C C. D D. Z 16. A steroid is considered a . A. Lipid B. Protein C. Enzyme D. Weak acid 17. The X cranial nerve is the nerve. A. Abducens B. Hypoglossal C. Facial D. Vagus 18. Which of the following pH ranges is a strong base? A. 1.3-2.0 B. 4.5-5.2 C. 7.1-9.0 D. 11.2-12.0 19. Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the systemic circulation? A. Left Atrium B. Right Atrium C. Left Ventricle D. Right Ventricle 20. Which of the following formulas indicates Newton's second law of motion? A. F = ma B. F = mva C. v = d/t D. p = mv Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. A 1. Which of the following is not a muscle identified in the rotator cuff? A. Teres Major B. Teres Minor C. Infraspinatus D. Supraspinatus 2. Which of the following is not a component of the unhappy triad? A. MCL B. PCL C. ACL D. Medial Meniscus 3. Which of the following is not included in the femoral triangle? A. Femoral Artery B. Femoral Nerve C. Femoral Vein D. Femoral Ligament 4. Which of the following is not a component of the carotid sheath? A. Cranial nerve X B. Common carotid artery C. Internal jugular vein D. Cranial nerve IX 5. Which of the following spinal dermatome level corresponds with the landmark of the inguinal ligament? A. T10 B. L1 C. L3 D. L5 6. Which of the following nerves innervates the deltoid? A. Radial B. Cranial nerve XI C. Subscapular D. Axillary 7. Wrist extensors are primarily controlled by what nerve? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Tibial 8. Adductor pollicis in the hand is controlled by which nerve? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Tibial 9. Which of the following arteries is the most frequent site of coronary artery stenosis? A. LCA B. RCA C. LAD D. PD 10. Which of the following nerves is not directly linked to the L2-L3 spinal level? A. Tibial B. Obturator C. Femoral 11. Which of the following passageways contain the maxillary nerve and blood vessels? A. Stylomastoid foramin B. Inferior orbital fissure C. Foramen ovale D. Carotid canal 12. Which of the following passageways contain the facial nerve and blood vessels? A. Stylomastoid foramin B. Inferior orbital fissure C. Foramen ovale D. Carotid canal 13. Which of the following passageways contain the internal carotid artery? A. Foramen rotundum B. Condylar canal C. Foramen ovale D. Carotid canal 14. Which of the following is the most common site of disc herniation? A. C6-7 B. T12-L1 C. L4-5 D. L5-S1 15. Which of the following ligaments is not found in the knee? A. Patellar ligament B. Oblique popliteal ligament C. Arcuate popliteal ligament D. Deltoid ligament 16. Which of the following nerves innervates the teres minor muscle? A. Subscapular nerve B. Suprascapular nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Pectoral nerve 17. Which of the following nerves innervates the pronator teres muscle? A. Radial B. Median C. Musculocutaneous D. Ulnar 18. Which of the following supplies the muscles of the perineum? A. Pudendal nerve B. Sciatic nerve C. Femoral nerve D. Tibial nerve 19. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye downward and away from midline? A. Inferior oblique B. Superior oblique C. Inferior rectus D. Superior rectus 20. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye upward and toward midline? A. Inferior oblique B. Superior oblique C. Inferior rectus D. Superior rectus Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. D 1. Which of the following terms matches: water and electrolytes (clear)? A. Exudate B. Transudate C. Serosanguineous D. Induration 2. Which of the following matches the definition: The loss of circulatory fluids into interstitial spaces? A. Hypovolemia B. Necrosis C. Eschar D. Maceration 3. An emollient has a/an effect. A. Pruritic B. Antipruritic C. Rupture D. Impetigo 4. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the epidermis? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum basale 5. Which of the following is the deepest layer of the epidermis? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum basale 6. Which of the following is beneath the stratum corneum? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum basale 7. Vitamin D is created from by skin cells. A. Dehydrocholesterol B. Cholesterol C. Hydrocholesterol D. Hydrodermis 8. Which of the following is another name for blackheads associated with acme? A. Pustules B. Sebaceous C. Eccrine D. Comedones 9. Which of the following identifies skin from a cadaver used in a burn graft? A. Homograft B. Autograft C. Allograft D. Xenograft 10. Sebaceous glands secrete . A. Sebum B. Impetigo C. Serous D. Sirius Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A 1. Which of the following is not directly associated with the lymphatic pathway? A. Lymphatic trunk B. Collecting duct C. Subclavian vein D. Carotid arteries 2. The thymus is responsible for secreting from epithelial cells. A. Thymosin B. Growth hormone C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells 3. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is the most responsible for promoting allergic reactions? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE 4. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is located on the surface of most B-lymphocytes? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE 5. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE 6. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? A. Graves disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus D. Alzheimer's disease 7. T-cell activation requires a/an cell. A. Activation B. Accessory C. Plasma D. Helper 8. The thymus is located with the . A. Mediastinum B. Peristinum C. Epistinum D. Endostinum 9. Which of the following statements is false regarding the spleen? A. Divided up into lobules B. Similar to a large lymph node C. Contains macrophages D. Limited blood within the lobules 10. Which of the following is not considered a central location of lymph nodes? A. Cervical B. Axillary C. Inguinal D. Tibial 11. Lymphocytes that reach the thymus become . A. T-cells B. B-cells C. Plasma cells D. Beta cells 12. Lymphocytes that do not reach the thymus become . A. T-cells B. B-cells C. Plasma cells D. Beta cells 13. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins binds complement? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG 14. Which of the following is a key component of cytotoxic T cells? A. CD2 B. CD4 C. CD8 D. CD10 15. Which of the following is not a primary target group of T cells? A. Viruses B. Toxins C. Fungi D. TB Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 1. Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance? A. Plasmid B. Pilus C. Capsule D. Plasma Membrane 2. Which of the following is the most important structure related to microbial attachment to cells? A. Flagellum B. Plasmid C. Peptidoglycan D. Glycocalix 3. Which of the following is not a gram-negative bug? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Vibrio cholerae C. Escherichia coli D. Bordetella pertussis 4. Which of the following is not true related to endotoxins? A. Endotoxins are secreted from cells. B. Can be linked to Meningococcemia C. Produced by gram negative microorganisms D. Can cause fever 5. Which of the following microorganisms stain well? A. Escherichia coli B. Legionella pneumophila C. Treponema D. Chlamydia 6. Which of the following microorganisms are not matched correctly with the appropriate isolation media? A. Fungi - Sabourand's agar B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae – Pink colonies media C. Haemophilus influenzae – Chocolate agar D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Lowenstein-Jensen agar 7. Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly? A. Cellulitis – Pasteurella multocida B. Tularemia – Francisella tularensis C. Gastritis – Heliobacter pylori D. Lyme disease – Yersinia pestis 8. Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly? A. Treponema pallidum – Syphilis B. Tinea nigra – Cladosporium werneckii C. Borrelia burgdorferi – Lyme disease D. Yersinia enterocolitica – Diptheria 9. Which of the following is not true concerning Staphylococcus aureus? A. S. aureus is related to inflammation. B. S. aureus can cause pneumonia C. S. aureus can lead to acute bacterial endocarditis D. S. aureus does not make coagulase 10. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not linked to Haemophilus influenzae? A. Otitis media B. Pneumonia C. Malaria D. Epiglottis 11. The Tsetse fly is a transmission factor for which of the following organisms? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Trypanosoma gambiense C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Toxoplasma 12. The Ixodes tick is a transmission factor for which of the following organisms? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Leishmania donovani C. Babesia D. Giardia lamblia 13. Chagas' disease is commonly treated with Nifurtimox and is linked to the microorganism. A. Naegleria B. Schistosoma C. Wucheria bancrofti D. Trypanosoma cruzi 14. Which of the following is not fungal related? A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Tinea nigra D. Chlamydiae 15. Which of the following is not a DNA virus? A. Adenovirus B. Calicivirus C. Papovirus D. Poxvirus 16. Which of the following is not a RNA virus? A. Reovirus B. Orthomyxovirus C. Deltavirus D. Herpesvirus 17. Which of the following viruses is not a double strand linear DNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. Papovavirus C. Adenovirus D. Herpesvirus 18. Which of the following viruses is not a single strand linear RNA virus? A. Togavirus B. Retrovirus C. Bunyavirus D. Picornavirus 19. The Tzanck test is not used on which of the following viruses? A. VZV B. HSV-2 C. HHV-8 D. HSV-1 20. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to UTI's? A. E. coli B. Pseudomonas C. Klebsiella D. Haemophilus Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D 1. A baseball pitcher throws at pitch at 42 m/s. If the batter is 18 meters from the pitcher, approximately how much time does it take the ball to reach the batter? A. 1.8 seconds B. 2.0 seconds C. .87 seconds D. .43 seconds 2. How much work is done on a downhill skier by an average breaking force of 9.9 x 102 newtons to stop her in a distance of 10 meters? A. 2.0 x 102 J B. 3.5 x 102 J C. 8.4 x 103 J D. 9.8 x 103 J 3. A bicyclist accelerates from rest to a speed of 5.0 meters per second in 10 seconds. During the same 10 seconds, a car accelerates from a speed of 22 meters per second to a speed of 27 meters per second. Compared to the acceleration of the bicycle the acceleration of the car is? A. The same B. Greater C. Less 4. A baseball player throws a baseball at a speed of 40 meters per second at an angle of 30 degrees. The horizontal component of the baseball's speed is? A. 20 m/s B. 25 m/s C. 30 m/s D. 35 m/s 5. What is the average velocity of a car that travels due West at 30 kilometers in .5 hr? A. 60 km/hr west B. 60 km/hr C. 15 km/hr west D. 15 km/hr 6. A man weighs 900 Newtons standing on a scale in a stationary elevator. If some time later the reading on the scale is 1200 Newtons the elevator must be moving with? A. Constant acceleration downward B. Constant speed downward C. Constant acceleration upward D. Constant speed upward 7. Net force F causes mass m1 to accelerate at rate a1. A net force of 3F causes m2 to accelerate at a rate of 2a. What is the ratio of m1 to m2? A. 2 : 3 B. 3 : 4 C. 1 : 2 D. 2 : 1 8. An artillery shell is fired at an angle to the horizontal. Its initial velocity has a vertical component of 150 meters per second and a horizontal component of 260 meters per second. What is the magnitude of the initial velocity of the shell? A. 2.5 x 102 m/s B. 3.0 x 102 m/s C. 3.5 x 103 m/s D. 3.5 x 104 m/s 9. Into how many possible components can a single force be resolved? A. An unlimited number B. Two components C. Three components D. Four components at right angles to each other 10. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between two 5.0 kilogram masses separated by a distance of 5.0 meters? A. 1.3 x 10-14 N B. 3.3 x 10-10 N C. 6.7 x 10-11 N D. 1.3 x 10-11 N 11. Two cars having different weights are traveling on a level surface at different constant velocities. Within the same time interval, greater force will always be required to stop the car that has greater . A. Weight B. KE C. Velocity D. Momentum 12. A .050 kilogram bullet is fired from a 4.0 kilogram rifle that is initially at rest. If the bullet leaves the rifle with momentum having a magnitude of 20 kilograms • meters per second, the rifle will recoil with a momentum having a magnitude of . A. 1,600 kg • m/s B. 80 kg • m/s C. 20 kg • m/s D. .25 kg • m/s 13. A wooden block is at rest on a horizontal steel surface. If a 10 N force applied parallel to the surface is required to put the block in motion, how much force is required to keep the block moving at a constant velocity? A. Less than 10 Newtons B. Greater than 10 Newtons C. 10 Newtons 14. A girl weighing 500 Newtons takes 50 seconds to climb a flight of stairs 18 meters high. Her power output vertically is . A. 120 W B. 150 W C. 180 W D. 220 W 15. The path of a projectile fired at a 30 degree angle to the horizontal is best described as A. Parabolic B. Linear C. Circular D. Hyperbolic 16. A projectile is launched with an initial velocity of 20 meters per second at an angle of 30 degrees above the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the vertical component of the projectile's initial velocity? A. 200 m/s x cos 30° B. 200 m/s x sin 30° C. (200 m/s) / (sin 30°) D. (200 m/s) / (cos 30°) Answer Key 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 1. Oligodendrocytes are located in the . A. PNS B. CNS 2. Schwann cells are located in the . A. PNS B. CNS 3. Which of the following types of cells is the most common in the CNS? A. Astrocytes B. Oligocytes C. Neurocytes D. Celiac cells 4. Which of the following is a regulatory protein in the cytoplasm that helps the processes at the synapse? A. Calmodulin B. Protein kinase C. Ligand D. Gap protein 5. The primary effect of cocaine on the nervous system is that cocaine blocks the re-uptake of . A. Monoamines B. Transamines C. Catecholamine D. Monoamine oxidase 6. Which of the following amino acids can function as a neurotransmitter in the CNS? A. Leucine B. Glutamic acid C. Lysine D. Valine 7. Clostridium botulinum releases this enzyme that destroys peptide bonds. A. Amylase B. Endopeptidases C. Exopeptidases D. Protein kinase 8. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that attacks the of neurons in the CNS. A. Myelin sheaths B. Axon terminals C. Sodium channels D. Nicotinic receptors 9. Which of the following is not considered a type of synapse? A. Dendrodendritic B. Axosomatic C. Axoaxonic D. Denoaxonic 10. The progression of a nerve impulse with the nodes of Ranvier is called . A. Saltatory conduction B. Transmission C. Unmyelinated conduction D. Relative conduction 11. Supporting cells located within the CNS are collectively called . A. Neuroglia B. Astrocytes C. Perikaryon D. Satellite cells 12. Which of the following types of cells line the ventricles and spinal cord? A. Astrocytes B. Schwann cells C. Ependymal cells D. Oligodendrocytes Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. C 1. What is the net static electric charge on a metal sphere having an excess of +3 elementary charges? A. 4.7 x 10 B. 8.4 x 10 C. 4.8 x 10 D. 8.7 x 1019 C 2. A hydrogen atom could have an electron energy level transition from n=2 to n=3 by absorbing a photon having an energy of? A. 1.89 eV B. 2.04 eV C. 2.25 eV D. 2.87 eV 3. Two solid metal blocks are placed in an insulated container. If there is a net flow of heat between the blocks, they must have different? A. Initial temperatures B. Specific Heat values C. Melting points D. Heats of fusion 4. A (P type) semiconductor is formed by adding impurities, which provide extra . A. Electrons B. Neutrons C. Photons D. Holes 5. A student measures a current of .05 ampere through a P type semiconductor. If the battery connections are reversed, the current through the semiconductor will be? A. Less than .05 ampere B. Greater than .05 ampere C. The same 6. What is the approximate bind energy of a helium nucleus that has a mass defect of 5.2 x 10-29 kilogram? A. 4.6 x 10 B. 4.6 x 10 C. 4.7 x 10 D. 4.7 x 10-18 7. Which particle cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron D. Alpha particle 8. A 96 gram sample of a radioactive nuclide is placed in a container. After 12 minutes only 6 grams of the sample has not yet decayed. What is the half life of the nuclide? A. 3 minutes B. 4 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 6 minutes 9. The principal reason for using neutrons to bombard a nucleus is that neutrons? A. Have a relatively low atomic mass B. Can be easily accelerated C. Have a very high kinetic energy D. Are not repelled by the nucleus 10. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between an electron and a proton separated by a distance of 1.0 x 10-10 meter? A. 1.0 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 2.0 x 10 D. 3.05 x 10-47 N 11. A sphere has a net excess charge of –4.8 x 10-19 coulomb. The sphere must have an excess of . A. 1 Electron B. 1 Proton C. 3 Electrons D. 3 Protons 12. An excited hydrogen atom returns to its ground state. A possible energy change for the atom is? A. Loss of 10.20 eV B. Gain of 10.20 eV C. Loss of 11.70 eV D. Gain of 11.70 eV 13. During a collision between a proton and an electron there is conservation of . A. Energy, only B. Momentum, only C. Energy and Momentum D. Neither Energy or Momentum 14. As the temperature of a surface increases, how does the rate of thermionic emission change? A. Electrons are emitted at a lower rate. B. Electrons are emitted at a higher rate. C. Protons are emitted at a lower rate. D. Protons are emitted at a higher rate. Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B 1. Which of the following is not considered a fat soluble vitamin? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin E 2. Which of the following is not considered a water soluble vitamin? A. Vitamin B B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin B12 3. Which of the following is caused by a B5 deficiency? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Nausea C. Dermatitis D. Fever 4. Which of the following is caused by a B6 deficiency? A. Excessive irritability B. Nonproductive cough C. Dry mouth D. Depression 5. Which of the following is caused by a B12 deficiency? A. Glossitis B. Fever C. Hypertension D. Edema 6. Which of the following is caused by a Vitamin C deficiency? A. Fever B. Anemia C. Headaches D. Nausea 7. Which of the following is caused by a Vitamin K deficiency? A. Bruising B. Optic Nerve degeneration C. Anemia D. Hemorrhage (infants) 8. Another name for Vitamin B1 is . A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin C. Pyridoxine D. Cobalamin 9. Which of the following foods is not high in potassium? A. Oranges B. Bananas C. Tomatoes D. Turnips 10. Which of the following vitamins will be the most common in: oils from cereal seeds, salad oils, margarine and shortenings? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K 11. Which of the following vitamins will be the most common in: leafy green vegetables, egg yolk and soy oil? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K 12. Which of the following vitamins will be the most common in: fish liver oils, milk, and egg yolk? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K 13. Another name for Vitamin B12 is . A. Pantothenic Acid B. Cyanocobalamin C. Niacin D. Riboflavin 14. Which of the following does not contain a high concentration of Niacin? A. Yeast B. Meat C. Liver D. Corn 15. Which of the following does not contain a high concentration of Vitamin A? A. Strawberries B. Oranges C. Green Vegetables D. Yellow Vegetables Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. C 1. A condensation polymerization produces a polymer and A. H2 B. O2 C. CO2 D. H20 2. Which organic compound is classified as a primary alcohol? A. Ethylene glycol B. Ethanol C. Glycerol D. 2-butanol 3. For ethyne: C2H2 What is the total number of electrons shared between the carbon atoms? A. 6 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4. Which nuclide is a radioisotope used in the study of organic reaction mechanisms? A. Carbon-12 B. Carbon-14 C. Uranium-235 D. Uranium-238 5. Which set contains one natural polymer and one synthetic polymer? A. Cellulose and Starch B. Polyethylene and Nylon C. Protein and Starch D. Protein and Nylon 6. Aldehydes can be synthesized by the oxidation of A. Primary alcohols B. Secondary alcohols C. Organic acids D. Inorganic acids 7. Given the reaction: C2H2 + 2H2 --> C2H6 This reaction represents: A. Substitution B. Addition C. Esterification D. Saponification 8. Which pair of names refers to the same compound? A. Ethyne and Acetylene B. Ethyne and Ethene C. Ethane and Acetylene D. Ethane and Ethene 9. A condensation polymerization reaction is best described as the A. Joining of monomers by the removal of oxygen B. Joining of monomers by the removal of water C. Oxidation of a hydrocarbon by oxygen D. Oxidation of a hydrocarbon by water 10. Which formula represents a ketone? A. CH3COOH B. C2H5OH C. CH3COCH3 D. CH3COOCH3 11. Which subatomic participle is found in all isotopes of hydrogen? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron D. Positron 12. The bond between hydrogen and oxygen in a water molecule is classified as A. Ionic and Nonpolar B. Ionic and Polar C. Covalent and Nonpolar D. Covalent and Polar 13. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms required to form 1 molecule of C3H5(OH)3? A. 1 B. 5 C. 3 D. 8 14. A compound that can act as an acid or a base is referred to as A. A neutral substance B. An amphoteric substance C. A monomer D. An isomer 15. Which compound is an electrolyte? A. CH3OH B. CH3COOH C. C3H5(OH)3 D. C12H22O11 16. Which organic compound is classified as an acid? A. HC3HC2COOH B. HC3HC2OH C. C12H22O11 D. C6H12O6 17. The products of the fermentation of a sugar are ethanol and A. Water B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. Sulfur dioxide 18. The reaction CH2CH2 + H2 --> CH3CH3 is an example of A. Substitution B. Addition C. Esterification D. Fermentation 19. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule? A. C2H2 and C2H6 B. C2H2 and C3H6 C. C4H8 and C2H4 D. C6H6 and C7H8 20. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their A. Boiling points B. Melting points C. Triple points D. Saturation points Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A 1. Which chemical formula is both an empirical formula and a molecular formula? A. CH4 B. C2H6 C. CH3COOH D. CH3CH2COOCH3 2. Which element is present in all organic compounds? A. Hydrogen B. Nitrogen C. Carbon D. Oxygen 3. What products are obtained with CH4(g) burns completely in an excess of oxygen? A. CO and H2O B. CO and C C. CO2 and H2O D. CO2 and CO 4. Which hydrocarbon is a member of the alkene series? A. C2H2 B. C3H6 C. C4H10 D. C4H12 5. Which formula represents butane? A. CH3CH3 B. CH3CH2CH3 C. CH3CH2CH2CH3 D. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 6. A hydrocarbon molecule is considered to be saturated if the molecule contains A. Single covalent bonds, only B. A double covalent bond, only C. A triple covalent bond D. Single and double covalent bonds 7. As a chemical bond forms between 2 hydrogen atoms in a system, energy is released and the stability of the system A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same 8. In a chemical reaction, as the species is oxidized, its oxidation number A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains the same 9. A hydrocarbon with no ring structure, no double or triple bonds is called an . A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 10. A hydrocarbon double bonds and no triple bond configuration is called an . A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 11. A hydrocarbon with triple bonds is called an A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 12. Which of the following is the molecular formula for ethylene? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 13. Which of the following is the molecular formula for ethane? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 14. Which of the following is the molecular formula for acetylene? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 15. Which of the following is the molecular formula for butane? A. C2H B. C2H6 C. C4H8 D. C4H10 16. Which of the following is the molecular formula for hexane? A. C5H11 B. C5H12 C. C6H12 D. C6H14 17. Which of the following is the molecular formula for pentane? A. C5H11 B. C5H12 C. C6H12 D. C6H14 Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. B 1. Which of the following hormones causes increased atrial pressure and decreases sodium reabsorption in the kidneys? A. Atrial natriuretic peptide B. PTH C. Aldosterone D. Vasopressin 2. Angiotensin I is changed by which of the following into Angiotensin II? A. ACE B. AVT C. Pepsin D. Adenosine 3. Which of the following during an electrocardiogram is associated with hypokalemia? A. QRS complex B. U wave C. PR segment D. ST segment 4. An S3 heart sound is often associated with? A. CHF B. COPD C. Atrial fib. D. Ventricular fib. 5. Mean arterial pressure is the product of: A. TPR x SV B. TPR x CO C. CO/SV D. SV/EDV 6. An ejection fraction can be calculated as: A. SV/TPR B. CO/TPR C. SV/EDV D. CO/EDV 7. PAH is secreted in which of the following locations? A. Distal tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting tubule D. Proximal tubule 8. Which of the following is not an anterior pituitary gland secretion? A. TSH B. GH C. Vasopressin D. Prolactin 9. Thyroid Hormone T3 does not have which of the following functions? A. Stimulate bone development and growth B. Create beta-adrenergic responses C. Cause brain development D. Decrease calcium re-absorption 10. Which of the following does not require the pre-cursor progesterone? A. Cortisol B. Testosterone C. ACTH D. Aldosterone 11. Which of the following is the source cell for the secretion Pepsinogen? A. Chief cell B. Plasma cell C. G cell D. Parietal cell 12. Which of the following is the primary activator of zymogen secretion? A. Somatostatin B. Secretin C. Acetylcholine D. Gastrin 13. Which of the following is not a function of Angiotensin II? A. Causes release of aldosterone B. Causes vasodilation C. Causes increased posterior pituitary activation D. Elevates blood pressure 14. Which of the following is not a function of Progesterone? A. Causes increased body temperature. B. Causes some smooth muscle relaxation. C. Causes increased spiral artery growth D. Causes activation of FSH 15. Which of the following is not a function of Estrogen? A. Causes breast growth. B. Causes inhibition of FSH C. Increased follicle development D. Decreased overall transport proteins Answer Key 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. D 1. What is the pressure of a mixture of CO2, SO2 and H20 gases, if each gas has a partial pressure of 250 torr? A. 250 torr B. 500 torr C. 750 torr D. 1,000 torr 2. A gas sample has a volume of 25.0 milliliters at a pressure of 1.0 atmosphere. If the volume increases to 50.0 milliliters and the temperature remains constant, the new pressure will be A. 1.0 atm B. 2.0 atm C. .250 atm D. .500 atm 3. An increase of the temperature of a system at equilibrium favors the A. Endothermic reaction and decreases its rate B. Endothermic reaction and increases its rate C. Exothermic reaction and decreases its rate D. Exothermic reaction and increases its rate 4. A sample of oxygen gas in a closed system has a volume of 200 milliliters at 600 K. If the pressure is held constant and the temperature is lowered to 300 K, the volume of the gas will be A. 100 ml B. 200 ml C. 300 ml D. 400 ml 5. Which sample of water will have the