Arthrex Module Test Questions and answers 100% verified.

Arthrex Module Test Questions and answers 100% verified. One major advantage of dual wave pump over traditional inflow only pump: a) Inflow only pumps allow for regulation of fluid pressure automatically by controlling outflow b) DualWave pumps require constant manual adjustment to of outflow to maintain pressure in the joint c) DualWave pumps automatically regulate inflow and outflow to maintain a constant fluid pressure in joint d) DualWave pumps only feature active outflow, making the technology much more efficient and simple to use - correct answers.c) DualWave pumps automatically regulate inflow and outflow to maintain a constant fluid pressure in joint True/False: DualWave arthroscopic pulp is designed to operate as either inflow/outflow or an inflow pump only - correct answers.True Which of the following is NOT one of the three ligaments that supports ankle syndesmosis: a) Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL) b) Posterior Inferior Talofibular Ligament (PiTFL) c) Anterior Inferior Talofibular Ligament (AiTFL) d) Tibiofibular Interossious Ligament - correct answers.a) Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL) The primary function of sub scapular is muscle: a) Abduction b) Adduction c) Internal Rotation d) External Rotation - correct answers.c) Internal rotation True/False: The labrum is a fibrocarlaginous ring that provide stability to glenohumeral joint - correct answers.True Which plane divides the body into right and left halves? a) Coronal plane b) Transverse plane c) Sagittal plane d) None of the above - correct answers.c) Sagittal plane Of the major knee ligaments; which is not intra-articular? a) ACL b) PCL c) Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL) d) None of the above - correct answers.c) Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL) True/False: Proximal refers to being closer to the main mass of body - correct answers.True True/False: In the ACL deficient knee, the tibia can abnormally translate anteriorly - correct answers.True Which of the following are common causes of ACL injury (Hint: 3 things) - correct answers.1. Changing direction rapidly 2. Stopping suddenly 3. Landing from a jump The femoral footprint of ACL is located on the: a) Medial Femoral Condyle b) Lateral Femoral Condyle c) Trochlea Groove d) Gerdy's Tubercle - correct answers.b) Lateral Femoral Condyle The quadriceps femoris refers to which of the following? (Hint: List all 4) - correct answers.1. Rectus Femoris 2. Vastus Lateralis 3. Vastus Medialis 4. Vastus Intermedius A SpeedBridge RCR consists of __ anchors medially and __ anchors laterally: a) 2,3 b) 1,2 c) 0,1 d) 2,2 - correct answers.d) 2,2 All following muscles/tendons are apart of RCR except: a) Infraspinatus b) Supraspinatus c) Teres Major d) Subscpularis - correct answers.c) Teres Major True/False: Synergy UHD 4K imaging console has 4x resolution as standard HD - correct answers.True True/False: Synergy UHD4 is a 4-1 console system which contains light source, 4K camera, image management and integration - correct answers.True True/False: Platelets (thrombocytes) are a component of whole blood that do not contain a nucleus. Therefore platelets are not truly cells. - correct answers.True The more "c" shaped meniscus that has connections w ACL and capsule/MCL? a) Medial b) Lateral - correct answers.a) Medial The zones of meniscus determined by? a) Size b) Tear pattern c) Blood supply d) None of the above - correct answers.c) Blood supply What is the goal of meniscal resection? (Hint: 3 things) - correct answers.1. Remove degenerative tissue 2. Spare as much meniscus as possible 3. Reproduce meniscal contour Using the Outer-Bridge classification, advanced bone on bone arthritis would be classified as? a) Grade 1 b) Grade 2 c) Grade 3 d) Grade 4 - correct answers.d) Grade 4 What condyle of knee 4x more likely to have an osteochondral defect? a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Medial d) Lateral - correct answers.c) Medial True/False: The biceps is the major flexor of the elbow - correct answers.False The inter-tubercular groove contains which head of biceps? a) Long head b) Short head c) Conjoined d) None of the above - correct answers.a) Long head The distal biceps has which type of attachment to which corresponding forearm bone? a) Round/Ulnar Tuberosity b) Oval/Radial Tuberosity c) Ribbon-Like/Radial Tuberosity d) Oval/Ulnar Tuberosity e) Ribbon-Like/Sublime Tubercle - correct answers.c) Ribbon-Like/Radial Tuberosity SLAP stands for? a) Single Labral Anchor Percutaneous b) Superior Labral Anterior to Posterior c) Shoulder Labrum anterior pouch d) None of the above - correct answers.b) Superior Labral Anterior to Posterior A simple stitch is also called? a) Cinch stitch b) Cerclage stitch c) Racking stitch d) Mattress stitch - correct answers.b) Cerclage stitch In identifying caused by instability of glenohumeral joint, ALPSA stands for? - correct answers.Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion Treatment for HillSachs Lesion is? a) Laterjet b) Remplissage c) SCR d) None of the above - correct answers.b) Remplissage The best choice of construct for a chronic AC joint reconstruction is? a) TightRope Implant b) GraftRope c) Dog Bone d) Dog Bone w graft reconstruction e) None of the above - correct answers.d) Dog Bone w graft reconstruction When using offset guide for AC internal brace, what is distance built into guide to ensure proper bone socket placement? a) 3mm b) 4mm c) 5mm d) 6mm - correct answers.c) 5mm True/False: the Coracoclavicular ligaments are the conoid and trapezius - correct answers.True In standard (STD) oscillation mode, how often will handpiece change direction at an RPM of 1,000 or more? a) every 0.2 seconds b) every 0.3 seconds c) every 0.5 seconds - correct answers.0.3 seconds The biopolar ablation breaks down tissue using what process? a) Pyrolysis-decomposition brought about by high temperatures b) Ultrasound-high density waves to destroy tissue c) Chemical Reaction-gently breaks down tissue at the molecular level d) Radioactive Iodine-radioactive iodine is injected into to destroy tissue - correct answers.c) Chemical Reaction-gently breaks down tissue at the molecular level True or False: The synergy resection console can control two handpieces independently as well as simultaneously - correct answers.True True or False: The jumpstart bandage generates electricity to kill pathogens including many drug resistant bacteria - correct answers.True What carrier is in Allosync DBM, putty, gel and paste which allows the body to become more viscous and harder at body temperature? a) Calcium sulfate b) Glycerol c) Reverse Phase Medium d) Sodium hyaluronate - correct answers.c) Reverse Phase Medium The MatrACELL decelluarized dermis process used by lifenet health for ArthroFlex dermal autografts removes how much of donor DNA? a) >85% b) >95% c) >97% d) 100% - correct answers.c) >97% A patient experiences pain with shoe wear and swelling for several months located at the posterior aspect of their heel is more likely to have what type of Achilles Tendon disorder? a) Midsubstance Achilles Tendon Rupture b) Plantar Fasciitis c) Insertional Achilles Tendonitis d) Gastroc Strain - correct answers.c) Insertional Achilles Tendonitis What two muscles make up your calf muscle to come together to form achilles tendon? a) Flexor hallucis longus and plantaris b) Flexor digitorum and brevis c) Gastrocnemius and soleus d) Gastrocnemius and flexor hallucis longus - correct answers.c) Gastrocnemius and soleus When performing Achilles Mid-Substance Speedbridge, how many times should the passing needles be passed through the PARS jig? a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 7 - correct answers.c) 5 times True/False: Plasma makes up 55% of whole blood? - correct answers.True True/False: Platelets (thrombocytes) are a component of whole blood that do not contain a nucleus therefore they are not cells - correct answers.True What word best describes red blood cells? a) Leukocytes b) Erythrocytes c) Thrombocytes d) Electrocytes - correct answers.b) Erythrocytes Most common motion responsible for lateral ankle sprains? a) Inversion; dorsi flexion b) Eversion; plantar flexion c) Inversion; plantar flexion d) Eversion; dorsi flexion - correct answers.c) Inversion; plantar flexion What two nerves are most at risk when surgeons perform lateral ligament operation? a) Anterior talofibular nerve and calcaneofibular nerve b) Anterior talofibular nerve and posterior tibial nerve c) Saphenous nerve and sural nerve d) Sural nerve and Superficial Peroneal nerve - correct answers.d) Sural nerve and Superficial Peroneal nerve What is the most common ligament disruption involved in lateral ankle sprains? a) ATFL b) CFL c) PTFL d) PiTFL - correct answers.ATFL What is the strongest ligament in ankle syndesmotic ligament complex? a) AiTFL b) ATFL c) CFL d) PiTFL - correct answers.d) Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PiTFL) True/False: The advantage of the Knotless ankle TightRope implant is earlier weight bearing compared to screw fixation. - correct answers.True True/False: ACD-A can be added to ACP syringe after the fact you realized you need more time before the application - correct answers.False Which component of whole blood is the lightest in weight? a) Red Blood Cells b) White Blood Cells c) Platelets - correct answers.c) Platelets For Dr. Gordon Mackay's internal brace ACL repair technique: a) The AM bundle Swivelock anchor is inserted with the knee at 90 degrees flexion b) InternalBrace implant is anchored to the tibia in 30 degrees of flexion c) A crossing/Bunell type stitch passed into both bundles for repair d) The ACL stump stitch is tied to the button passing suture after the InternalBrace implant is anchored - correct answers.d) The ACL stump stitch is tied to the button passing suture after the InternalBrace implant is anchored When performing ACLR using a BTB graft, the femoral bone block should be no greater than what length? a) 15mm b) 20mm c) 25 mm d) 30mm - correct answers.20mm True/False: Bundles of ACL are named for their insertion sites on the tibia - correct answers.True When performing pediatric ACL reconstruction the potential complication from drilling across physis is? a) Nerve injury b) Fractures c) Arterial injury d) Premature bone growth arrest e) Post-op stiffness of the knee - correct answers.d) Premature bone growth arrest In the ACL deficient knee a) The tibia will abnormally translate abnormally posteriorly b) The tibia will abnormally translate abnormally anteriorly c) The tibia will abnormally translate abnormally medially d) The tibia will abnormally translate abnormally laterally e) ALL OF THE ABOVE - correct answers.b) The tibia will abnormally translate abnormally anteriorly The ridge of the bone that separates the anteriomedial (AM) and posteriolateral (PL) bundles of the ACL on the femur is? a) Soleal Ridge b) Bifurcate Ridge c) Gerdy's Tubercle d) Medial Epicondyle e) Resident's Ridge - correct answers.b) Bifurcate Ridge The ACL is made up of how many bundles? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 - correct answers.b) 2 When performing the flipped BTB technique, which portion of the bone block should face away from the tendon? a) Doesn't matter b) Cortical c) Cancellous - correct answers.c) Cancellous True/False: Labral tape should NOT be used with a 2.4mm Pushlock anchor - correct answers.True What size Fiberwire suture found in 2mm SutureTak? a) 0 FiberWire suture b) #1 Fiberwire suture c) #2 Fiberwire suture d) #5 Fiberwire suture - correct answers.b) #1 Fiberwire suture The Knotless Suturetak includes what type of suture? a) 0 FiberLink b) #2 TigerWire c) #2 Coreless (CL) FiberWire suture d) #5 Coreless (CL) FiberWire suture - correct answers.c) #2 Coreless (CL) FiberWire suture What type of shoulder dislocation is often associated with seizures or electrical shock? a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Multidirectional - correct answers.b) Posterior The labral swivelock anchor is available in all following materials, EXCEPT: a) BioComposite b) Metal c) PEEK d) ALL OF THE ABOVE - correct answers.b) Metal True/False: regarding a PASTA repair, the surgeon must excise the sub acromial bursa. Then view from within the joint (intra-articular) while using the spinal needle to determine trans tendon anchor placement - correct answers.True True/False: the suture snare passer can penetrate tissue, pass and retrieve suture for soft tissue repairs. - correct answers.True During a case; all of the following can help improve exposure to subscap tear, EXCEPT: a) Use of 70 degree scope b) Flexion of arm c) Internal rotation of arm d) External rotation of arm - correct answers.d) External rotation What type of suture should you suggest to create a broader and more secure footprint? (Ie. for SpeedBridge or internal brace implant)? a) FiberLoop b) FiberSnare c) Fibertape suture d) Fiberstick suture - correct answers.c) Fibertape suture Which is NOT an advantage of SutureTape over standard round suture? (Hint: 4 things) - correct answers.1. Increased tissue pull-through resistance 2. Stronger knotted fixation 3. Tighter, smaller knot stacks 4. Less likely to hurt fingers when tying True/False: the shoulder joint has the most movement of all the joints in the body - correct answers.True In beach chair position when viewing from posterior portal looking anteriorly on a right shoulder, which structure will be on left side of the screen? a) Glenoid b) Humeral head c) Biceps tendon d) Subscap tendon - correct answers.a) Glenoid True/False: the glenoid labrum is continuous with the long head of the biceps, the glen oh unreal ligaments and the joint capsule - correct answers.True To deactivate the DualWave Pump ASP Mode should the shaver be activated or deactivated before the rinse mode button on the remote or the foot petal is pressed? a) Deactivated b) Activated - correct answers.b) Activated The "RINSE" feature of the DualWave Pump increases the auction rate at which suction structure? a) Waste b) Inflow c) Cannula d) Shaver - correct answers.c) Cannula True/False: Main difference between Bridging Patch Graft and SCR is that Bridging Patch Graft attaches the graft directly to the remnant of the Supraspinatus tendon, while SCR attaches the graft to superior Glenoid - correct answers.True True/False: During technique for SCR with Knotless SutureTaks, sutures are passed through the ArthroFlex dermal graft in a mattress fashion with the anchors interconnected - correct answers.False Proper positioning of arm during SCR graft tensioning is: a) 15-20 degrees adduction with neutral rotation of humeral head b) 20-40 degrees of abduction with humeral head centered c) 30-45 degrees of abduction with axial force on humeral head d) The position of arm does not matter when tensioning SCR graft - correct answers.b) 20-40 degrees of ABduction with humeral head centered Which of the following is NOT an indication for SCR? a) Symptomatic RC Tear b) Significant bone loss c) Large, irreparable supraspinatus or supra/infra tear d) Minimal to no glenohumeral arthritis - correct answers.b) Significant Bone Loss True/False: Due to the strength of ArthroFlex dermal graft, rehab of SCR is much faster and more aggressive that massive RC Tear - correct answers.False True/False: The Superior Capsule of the shoulder is a distinct structure from the Rotator Cuff - correct answers.True Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional treatments for irreparable rotator cuff tears? a) Debridement of Rotator Cuff b) Partial Repair c) Primary Total Arthroplasty d) Latissimus Dorsi Transfer - correct answers.c) Primary Total Arthroplasty What are dimensions of Knotless SutureTak? a) 3.0mm x 14mm b) 2.6mm x 12.4mm c) 3.0 x 17.2 mm d) 3.0mm x 12.7mm - correct answers.d) 3.0mm x 12.7mm True/False: When using forked tip SwiveLock anchor, surgeon should drill 0.5mm-1.0mm larger than screw intended for use. - correct answers.True True/False: The pullout strength of a 3mm Knotless SutureTak is better than a 3mm Normal SutureTak - correct answers.True Which of the following are benefits of Cartiform viable osteochondral allografts? (Hint: 4 things) - correct answers.1. Single step procedure 2. Flexible 3. Easy to cut 4. Simple fixation What is shelf life for Allosync Cancellous Chips, Cubes, Strips and Cortical Fibers? a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 5 years d) 10 years - correct answers.c) 5 years ArthroCell allograft has 3 components that include? - correct answers.1. Cell Component 2. Microparticulate 3. Bone Gel Component (Type 1 Collagen) The zones of meniscus are determined by? - correct answers.Blood supply Which of the following meniscal repairs would you use for an Anterior Tear? a) All-inside repair b) Inside/Out Repair c) Outside/In Repair - correct answers.b) Inside/Out Repair Which of zones of meniscus have less chance to heal? a) Red-Red b) Red-White c) White-White d) Mensical Root e) None of the above - correct answers.c) White/White Zone What is the angle of the up curve of the knee scorpion? a) 5 degrees b) 6 degrees c) 8 degrees d) 10 degrees - correct answers.a) 5 degrees True/False: Partially deploy the needle of Scorpion Fast Pass (Knee) to load the suture into jaw - correct answers.True What is the "low profile" height of the Knee Scorpion? a) 2.3 mm b) 3 mm c) 3.2 mm d) 5 mm - correct answers.c) 3.2 mm True/False the MCL InternalBrace implant does not significantly increase the strength of the primary ACL repair? - correct answers.False The surgeon who initially described a remarkably constant avulsion fracture pattern at the proximal lateral tibia as a result of forced internal rotation? a) Sonnery-Cottete b) Hughston c) Segond d) Claes - correct answers.c) Segond True/False: The MCL is repaired AFTER performing MCL InternalBrace procedure? - correct answers.False Which of the following patients could benefit from an ALL reconstruction? (Hint: 4 things) - correct answers.1. Revision ACLs 2. Hyperlax patients 3. Pivoting athletes 4. IKCD grade III pivot shifts True/False: The C-Mount Scope refers to the fact that the scope screws into the camera head marking a water tight seal reducing fog - correct answers.True How many years is synergy HD4 Camera head warrantied against autoclave failure for? a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) None of the above - correct answers.c) 7 years Capsular closure in all settings is still a controversial topic but most surgeons agree that closure should be performed in which of the following surgical scenarios? a) T capsulotomy b) Labral repair c) Oversized pincer lesions d) For all FAI cases e) Ischiofemoral impingement - correct answers.a) T capsulotomy The most commonly damaged nerve in hip arthroscopy is? a) Acetabular branch of Tibia nerve b) Sciatic nerve c) Femoral nerve d) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve - correct answers.d) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve True/False: All hip arthroscopy portals should be made lateral to the anterior superior iliac spine to avoid damage to Femoral Artery, Vein and Nerve - correct answers.True All of the following are hip flexor muscles EXCEPT: a) Rectus Femoris b) Gluteus Medius c) Sartorius d) All of the above - correct answers.*Got wrong (I put: all of the above) b) Gluteus Medius Which of the following is a benefit of TRIM IT Custom hip cannula? a) Flexible b) Hands free c) Allow for minimally inventory d) All of the above - correct answers.d) all of the above All of the following pathologies can be addressed in the Periochanteric space EXCEPT: a) Gluteus medius tears b) Ligamentum teres tear c) External snapping hip d) Trochanter bursitis - correct answers.b) Ligamentum teres tear The three bones that make up the acetabulum are: - correct answers.Pubis, Ilium, Ischium The two main portals of the hip are the: a) posterorlateral and midanterior b) anteriormedial and anterior c) Anterolateral and midanterior d) posterorlateral and anteromedial - correct answers.c) Anterolateral and midanterior Which muscle/tendon causes internal snapping of hip? a) Gluteus medius b) Illiotibial band c) Iliopsoas d) Tensor Fascia Latae - correct answers.c) Iliopsoas When referring to knee lower limb alignment, what is normal Q angle for female? a) 10 degrees b) 14 degrees c) 18 degrees d) 20 degrees - correct answers.c) 18 degrees Picture of # 8 - correct answers.Quadriceps Tendon