HESI A2 TEST BANK EXAM LATEST 2023

HESI A2 HESI A2 TEST BANK QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (100% APPROVED) BEST VERSION 2023 CONGRATULATIONS! By deciding to take the Health Education Systems (HESI A2) Exam, you have taken the first step toward a great future! Of course, there is no point in taking this important examination unless you intend to do your very best in order to earn the highest grade you possibly can. That means getting yourself organized and discovering the best approaches, methods and strategies to master the material. Yes, that will require real effort and dedication on your part but if you are willing to focus your energy and devote the study time necessary, before you know it you will be opening that letter of acceptance to the school of your dreams. We know that taking on a new endeavour can be a little scary, and it is easy to feel unsure of where to begin. That’s where we come in. This study guide is designed to help you improve your test-taking skills, show you a few tricks of the trade and increase both your competency and confidence. The Health Education Systems A2 Exam The HESI A2 exam is composed of modules and not all schools use all of the modules. It is therefore very important that you find out what modules your school will use! That way you won’t waste valuable study time learning something that isn’t on your exam! The HESI A2 Modules are: Math, Vocabulary, Reading Comprehension, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Basic Scientific principals and Anatomy and Physiology. You don`t have to worry because these sections are included in the Practice Test Questions. However, to maximize your study time, it is very important to check which modules your university offers before studying everything under the sun! While we seek to make our guide as comprehensive as possible, it is important to note that lik all entrance exams, the HESI A2 Exam might be adjusted at some future point. New material might be added, or content that is no longer relevant or applicable might be removed. It is always a good idea to give the materials you receive when you register to take the HESI a careful review. Practice Test Questions Set Section I – Reading Comprehension Questions: 45 Time: 45 Minutes Section II – Mathematics Questions: 50 Time: 60 Minutes Section III – Part 1 - English Grammar (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III - Part II – Vocabulary Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Part I – Science (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 minutes Section IV – Part II – Anatomy & Physiology (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 minutes The practice test portion presents questions that are representative of the type of question you should expect to find on the HESI. For the best results, take this Practice Test as if it were the real exam. Set aside time when you will not be disturbed, and a location that is quiet and free of distractions. Read the instructions carefully, read each question carefully, and answer to the best of your ability. Use the bubble answer sheets provided. When you have completed the Practice Test, check your answer against the Answer Key and read the explanation provided. NOTE: The Science, Anatomy and Physiology and English sections are optional. Check with your school for exam details. Answer Sheet – Section 1 - Reading Comprehension Answer Sheet – Section II - Math Answer Sheet – Section III Part I - English Grammar Answer Sheet – Section III Part II – Vocabulary Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Biology and Chemistry Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Anatomy and Physiology SECTION I - READING COMPREHENSION. Directions: The following questions are based on a number of reading passages. Each passage is followed by a series of questions. Read each passage carefully, and then answer the questions based on it. You may reread the passage as often as you wish. When you have finished answering the questions based on one passage, go right on to the next passage. Choose the best answer based on the information given and implied. Questions 1 – 4 refer to the following passage. Passage 1 - Infectious Disease An infectious disease is a clinically evident illness resulting from the presence of pathogenic agents, such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, multi-cellular parasites, and unusual proteins known as prions. Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissib diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin). Transmission of an infectious disease can occur in many different ways. Physical contact, liquids, food, body fluids, contaminated objects, and airborne inhalation can all transmit infectin agents. Transmissible diseases that occur through contact with an ill person, or objects touched by them, are especially infective, and are sometimes referred to as contagious diseases. Communicable diseases that require a more specialized route of infection, such as through blood or needle transmission, or sexual transmission, are usually not regarded as contagious. The term infectivity describes the ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host, while the infectiousness of a disease indicates the comparative ease with which the disease is transmitted. An infection however, is not synonymous with an infectious disease, as an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms. 1 1. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this passage? a. Sickness from a toxin can be easily transmitted from one person to another. b. Sickness from an infectious disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another. c. Few sicknesses are transmitted from one person to another. d. Infectious diseases are easily treated. 2. What are two other names for infections’ pathologies? a. Communicable diseases or transmissible diseases b. Communicable diseases or terminal diseases c. Transmissible diseases or preventable diseases d. Communicative diseases or unstable diseases 3 . What does infectivity describe? a. The inability of an organism to multiply in the host b. The inability of an organism to reproduce c. The ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host d. The ability of an organism to reproduce in the host 4. How do we know an infection is not synonymous with an infectious disease? a. Because an infectious disease destroys infections with enough time. b. Because an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms or impair host function. c. We do not. The two are synonymous. d. Because an infection is too fatal to be an infectious disease. Questions 5 – 8 refer to the following passage. Passage 2 - Viruses A virus (from the Latin virus meaning toxin or poison) is a small infectious agent that can replicate only inside the living cells of other organisms. Most viruses are too small to be seen directly with a microscope. Viruses infect all types of organisms, from animals and plants to bacteria and single-celled organisms. Unlike prions and viroids, viruses consist of two or three parts: all viruses have genes made from either DNA or RNA, all have a protein coat - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material protects these genes, and some have an envelope of fat that surrounds them when they are outside a cell. (Viroids do not have a protei coat and prions contain no RNA or DNA.) Viruses vary from simple to very complex structures. Most viruses are about one hundred times smaller than an average bacterium. The origins of viruses in the evolutionary history of life are unclear: some may have evolved from plasmids— pieces of DNA that can move between cells—while others may have evolved from bacteria. Viruses spread in many ways; plant viruses are often transmitted from plant to plant by insects that feed on sap, such as aphids, while animal viruses can be carried by bloodsucking insects These disease-bearing organisms are known as vectors. Influenza viruses are spread by coughing and sneezing. HIV is one of several viruses transmitted through sexual contact and by exposure to infected blood. Viruses can infect only a limited range of host cells called the “hos range”. This can be broad as when a virus is capable of infecting many species or narrow. 2 5. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this selection? a. A virus is the same as bacterium b. A person with excellent vision can see a virus with the naked eye c. A virus cannot be seen with the naked eye d. Not all viruses are dangerous 6 . What types of organisms do viruses infect? a. Only plants and humans b. Only animals and humans c. Only disease-prone humans d. All types of organisms 7 . How many parts do prions and viroids consist of? a. Two b. Three c. Either less than two or more than three d. Less than two 8. What is one common virus spread by coughing and sneezing? a. AIDS b. Influenza c. Herpes d. Tuberculosis Questions 9 – 11 refer to the following passage. Passage 3 – Clouds The first stage of a thunderstorm is the cumulus stage, or developing stage. In this stage, masses of moisture are lifted upwards into the atmosphere. The trigger for this lift can be insulation heating the ground producing thermals, areas where two winds converge, forcing air upwards, or where winds blow over terrain of - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material elevation. Moisture in the air rapidly cools into liquid drops of water, which appears as cumulus clouds. As the water vapor condenses into liquid, latent heat is released which warms the air, causing to become less dense than the surrounding dry air. The warm air rises in an updraft through th process of convection (hence the term convective precipitation). This creates a low-pressure zone beneath the forming thunderstorm. In a typical thunderstorm, approximately 5×108 kg of water vapor is lifted, and the amount of energy released when this condenses is about equal to the energy used by a city of 100,000 in a month. 3 9 . The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is the a. The last stage of the storm b. The middle stage of the storm formation c. The beginning of the thunderstorm d. The period after the thunderstorm has ended 10 . One of the ways the air is warmed is a. Air moving downwards, which will creates a high-pressure zone b. Air cooling and becoming less dense, causing it to rise c. Moisture moving downward toward the earth d. Heat created by water vapor condensing into liquid 11 . Identify the correct sequence of events a. Warm air rises, water droplets condense, creating more heat, and the air rises further. b. Warm air rises and cools, water droplets condense, causing low pressure. c. Warm air rises and collects water vapor, the water vapor condenses as the air rises, which creates heat, and causes the air to rise further. d. None of the above. Questions 12 – 14 refer to the following passage. Passage 4 – US Weather Service The United States National Weather Service classifies thunderstorms as severe when they reach a predetermined level. Usually, this means the storm is strong enough to inflict wind or hail damage. In most of the United States, a storm is considered severe if winds reach over 50 knots (58 mph or 93 km/h), hail is ¾ inch (2 cm) diameter or larger, or if meteorologists report funnel clouds or tornadoes. In the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service, the hail threshold for a severe thunderstorm is 1 inch (2.5 cm) in diameter. Though a funnel cloud or tornado indicates the presence of a severe thunderstorm, the various meteorological agencies would issue a tornado warning rather than a severe thunderstorm warning in this case. Meteorologists in Canada define a severe thunderstorm as either having tornadoes, wind gusts of 90 km/h or greater, hail 2 centimeters in diameter or greater, rainfall more than 50 millimeters in 1 hour, or 75 millimeters in 3 hours. Severe thunderstorms can develop from any type of - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialrstorm. 3 12 . What is the purpose of this passage? a. Explaining when a thunderstorm turns into a tornado b. Explaining who issues storm warnings, and when these warnings should be issued c. Explaining when meteorologists consider a thunderstorm severe d. None of the above 13 . It is possible to infer from this passage that a. Different areas and countries have different criteria for determining a severe storm b. Thunderstorms can include lightning and tornadoes, as well as violent winds and large hail c. If someone spots both a thunderstorm and a tornado, meteorological agencies will immediately issue a severe storm warning d. Canada has a much different alert system for severe storms, with criteria that are far less 14. What would the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service do if hail was 2.7 cm in diameter? a. Not issue a severe thunderstorm warning. b. Issue a tornado warning. c. Issue a severe thunderstorm warning. d. Sleet must also accompany the hail before the Weather Service will issue a storm warning. Questions 15 – 18 refer to the following passage. Passage 5 – Clouds A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary bodies. Another type of cloud is a mass of material in space, attracted by gravity, called interstellar clouds and nebulae. The branch of meteorology which studies clouds is called nephrology. When we are speaking of Earth clouds, water vapor is usually the condensing substance, which forms small droplets or ice crystal. These crystals are typically 0.01 mm in diameter. Dense, deep clouds reflect most light, so they appear white at least from the top. Cloud droplets scatter light very efficiently, so the further into a cloud ligh travels, the weaker it gets. This accounts for the gray or dark appearance at the base of large clouds. Thin clouds may appear to have acquired the color of their environment or background 4 15 . What are clouds made of? a. Water droplets. b. Ice crystals. c. Ice crystals and water droplets. d. Clouds on Earth are made of ice crystals and water droplets. 16 . The main idea of this passage is a. Condensation occurs in clouds, having an intense - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material on the weather on the surface of the earth. b. Atmospheric gases are responsible for the gray color of clouds just before a severe storm happens. c. A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary body. d. Clouds reflect light in varying amounts and degrees, depending on the size and concentratio of the water droplets. 17. The branch of meteorology that studies clouds is called a. Convection b. Thermal meteorology c. Nephology d. Nephelometry 18. Why are clouds white on top and grey on the bottom? a. Because water droplets inside the cloud do not reflect light, it appears white, and the furthe into the cloud the light travels, the less light is reflected making the bottom appear dark. b. Because water droplets outside the cloud reflect light, it appears dark, and the further into the cloud the light travels, the more light is reflected making the bottom appear white. c. Because water droplets inside the cloud reflects light, making it appear white, and the furthe into the cloud the light travels, the more light is reflected making the bottom appear dark. d. None of the above. Questions 19 - 22 refer to the following recipe. Chocolate Chip Cookies 3 /4 cup sugar 3 /4 cup packed brown sugar 1 cup butter, softened 2 large eggs, beaten 1 teaspoon vanilla extract 2 1/4 cups all-purpose flour 1 teaspoon baking soda 3 /4 teaspoon salt 2 cups semisweet chocolate chips If desired, 1 cup chopped pecans, or chopped walnuts. Preheat oven to 375 degrees. Mix sugar, brown sugar, butter, vanilla and eggs in a large bowl. Stir in flour, baking soda, and salt. The dough will be very stiff. Stir in chocolate chips by hand with a sturdy wooden spoon. Add the pecans, or other nuts, if desired. Stir until the chocolate chips and nuts are evenly dispersed. Drop dough by rounded tablespoonfuls 2 inches apart onto a cookie sheet. Bake 8 to 10 minutes or until light brown. Cookies may - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialook underdone, but they will finish cooking after you take them out of the oven. 19. What is the correct order for adding these ingredients? a. Brown sugar, baking soda, chocolate chips b. Baking soda, brown sugar, chocolate chips c. Chocolate chips, baking soda, brown sugar d. Baking soda, chocolate chips, brown sugar 20 . What does sturdy mean? a. Long b. Strong c. Short d. Wide 21 . What does disperse mean? a. Scatter b. To form a ball c. To stir d. To beat 22 . When can you stop stirring the nuts? a. When the cookies are cooked. b. When the nuts are evenly distributed. c. As soon as the nuts are added. d. After the chocolate chips are added. Questions 23 – 25 refer to the following passage. Passage 7 – Caterpillars Butterfly larvae, or caterpillars, eat enormous quantities of leaves and spend practically all thei time in search of food. Although most caterpillars are herbivorous, a few species eat other insects. Some larvae form mutual associations with ants. They communicate with ants using vibrations transmitted through the soil, as well as with chemical signals. The ants provide some degree of protection to the larvae and they in turn gather honeydew secretions. 5 23. What do most larvae spend their time looking for? a. Leaves b. Insects c. Leaves and insects d. Honeydew secretions 24. What benefit do larvae get from association with ants? a. They do not receive any benefit b. Ants give them protection c. Ants give them food d. Ants give them honeydew secretions 25. Do ants or larvae benefit most from association? a. Ants benefit most. b. Larvae benefit most. c. Both benefit the same. d. Neither benefits. Questions 26 – 30 refer to the following passage. Passage 8 – Navy Seals The United States Navy’s Sea, Air and Land Teams, commonly known as Navy SEALs, are the U.S. Navy’s principal special operations force, and a part of the Naval Special Warfare Command (NSWC) as well as the maritime component of the United States Special Operation Command (USSOCOM). The unit’s acronym (“SEAL”) comes from their capacity to operate at sea, in the air, and on land – but it is their ability to work underwater that separates SEALs from most other military units in the world. Navy SEALs are trained and have been deployed in a wide variety of missions, including direct action and special reconnaissance operations, unconventional warfare, foreign internal defence, hostage rescue, counter-terrorism and other missions. All SEALs are members of either the United States Navy or the United States Coast Guard. In the early morning of May 2, 2011 local time, a team of 40 CIA-led Navy SEALs completed an operation to kill Osama bin Laden in Abbottabad, Pakistan about 35 miles (56 km) from Islamabad, the country’s capital. The Navy SEALs were part of the Naval Special Warfare Development Group, previously called “Team 6”. President Barack Obama later confirmed the death of bin Laden. The unprecedented media coverage raised the public profile of the SEAL community, particularly the counter-terrorism specialists commonly known as SEAL Team 6. 6 26 . Are Navy SEALs part of USSOCOM? a. Yes b. No c. Only for special operations d. No, they are part of the US Navy 27. What separates Navy SEALs from other military units? a. Belonging to NSWC b. Direct action and special reconnaissance operations c. Working underwater d. Working for other military units in the world 28. What other military organizations do SEALslg to? a. The US Navy b. The Coast Guard c. The US Army d. The Navy and the Coast Guard 29. What other organization participated in the Bin Laden raid? a. The CIA b. The US Military c. Counter-terrorism specialists d. None of the above 30 . What is the new name for Team 6? a. They were always called Team 6 b. The counter-terrorism specialists c. The Naval Special Warfare Development Group d. None of the above Questions 31 – 34 refer to the following passage. Passage 9 - Gardening Gardening for food extends far into prehistory. Ornamental gardens were known in ancient times, a famous example being the Hanging Gardens of Babylon, while ancient Rome had dozens of gardens. The earliest forms of gardens emerged from the people’s need to grow herbs and vegetables. It was only later that rich individuals created gardens for purely decorative purposes. In ancient Egypt, rich people created ornamental gardens to relax in the shade of the trees. Egyptians believed that gods liked gardens. Commonly, walls surrounded ancient Egyptian gardens with trees planted in rows. The most popular tree species were date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. In addition to ornamental gardens, wealthy Egyptians kept vineyards to produce wine. The Assyrians are also known for their beautiful gardens in what we know today as Iraq. Assyrian gardens were very large, with some of them used for hunting and others as leisure gardens. Cypress and palm were the most popular trees in Assyrian gardens. 7 31. Why did wealthy people in Egypt have gardens? a. For food. b. To relax in the shade. c. For ornamentation. d. For hunting. 32. What did the Egyptians believe about gardens? a. They believed gods loved gardens. b. They believed gods hated gardens. c. The didn’t have any beliefs about gods and Gardens. d. They believed gods hated trees. 33. What kinds of trees did the Assyrians like? a. The Assyrians liked date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. b. The Assyrians liked Cypresses and palms. c. The Assyrians didn’t like trees. d. The Assyrians liked hedges and vines. 34. Which came first, gardening for vegetables or ornamental gardens? a. Ornamental gardens came before vegetable gardens. b. Vegetable gardens came before ornamental gardens. c. Vegetable and ornamental gardens appeared at the same time. d. The passage does not give enough information. Questions 35 – 38 refer to the following passage. Passage 10 - Gardens Ancient Roman gardens are known for their statues and sculptures, which were never missing from the lives of Romans. Romans designed their gardens with hedges and vines as well as a wide variety of flowers, including acanthus, cornflowers and crocus, cyclamen, hyacinth, iris an ivy, lavender, lilies, myrtle, narcissus, poppy, rosemary and violet. Flower beds were popular i the courtyards of the rich Romans. The Middle Ages was a period of decline in gardening. After the fall of Rome, gardening was only for the purpose of growing medicinal herbs and decorating church altars. Islamic gardens were built after the model of Persian gardens, with enclosed walls and watercourses dividing the garden into four. Commonly, the center of the garden would have a pool or pavilion. Mosaics and glazed tiles used to decorate elaborate fountains are specific to Islamic gardens. 7 35. What is a characteristic feature of Roman gardens? a. Statues and Sculptures. b. Flower beds. c. Medicinal Herbs. d. Courtyard gardens. 36. When did gardening decline? a. Before the Fall of Rome. b. Gardening did not decline. c. Before the Middle Ages. d. After the Fall of Rome. 37. What kind of gardening was done during the Middle Ages? a. Gardening with hedges and vines. b. Gardening with a wide variety of flowers. c. Gardening for herbs and church alters. d. Gardening divided by watercourses. 38. What is a characteristic feature of Islamic Gardens? a. Statues and Sculptures. b. Decorative tiles and fountains. c. Herbs. d. Flower beds. Questions 39 – 42 refer to the following passage. Passage 11 - Coral Reefs Coral reefs are underwater structures made from calcium carbonate secreted by corals. Cora are colonies of tiny animals found in marine waters that contain few nutrients. Most coral reefs are built from a type of coral called stony corals or Scleractinia, which in turn consist of polyps that cluster in groups. The polyps are like tiny sea anemones, which they are closely related. But unlike sea anemones, coral polyps secrete hard carbonate exoskeletons which support an protect their bodies. Reefs grow best in warm, shallow, clear, sunny and agitated waters. The are most commonly found in shallow tropical waters, but deep water and cold water corals als exist on smaller scales in other areas. Often called “rainforests of the sea”, coral reefs form some of the most diverse ecosystems o Earth. They occupy less than one tenth of one percent of the world’s ocean surface, about hal the area of France, yet they provide a home for twenty-five percent of all marine species. Paradoxically, coral reefs flourish even though they are surrounded by ocean waters that provide few nutrients. 8 39. Why are coral reefs called rainforests of the sea? a. Because they are so colorful. b. Because they are a diverse ecosystem. c. Because they look like rainforests. d. Because occupy less than one tenth of one percent of the world’s ocean surface. 40. What marine animal are corals closely related to? a. Sea Anemones. b. Polyps. c. Sea Polyps. d. Anemones and Polyps. 41. Where are coral reefs found? a. In freshwater with few nutrients. b. In marine water with a lot of nutrients. c. In marine waters with few nutrients. d. In marine water with no nutrients. 42. Where do corals reefs grow? a. Hot deep water. b. Clear, warm still water. c. Warm agitated water. d. Warm, clear, shallow and agitated water. Questions 43 – 45 refer to the following passage. Coral Reefs II Most coral reefs were formed after the last glacial period 10,000 years ago when melting ice caused the sea level to rise and flood the continental shelves. As communities established themselves on the shelves, the reefs grew upwards, pacing the rising sea levels. Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water there was insufficient light. Different types of coral reefs grow in the deep sea away from the continental shelves, around oceanic islands and as atolls. The vast majority of these islands are volcanic in origin. The few exceptions have tectonic origins where plate movements have lifted the deep ocean floor on th surface. 8 43. When did most coral reefs form? a. Before the last glacial period. b. After the last glacial period. c. Before the sea level rose. d. When the sea level rose. 44. What can you say about how fast coral reefs grew? a. They grew at the same rate as the rising sea levels. b. They grew faster than the rising sea levels. c. They grew slower than the rising sea levels. d. They grew before the sea levels rose. 45. What happened to the coral reefs that did grow at the proper rate? a. They died due to lack of light. b. They died due to lack of water. c. They didn’t die. d. They adapted to grow faster. Section II – Math 1 . What is 1/3 of 3/4? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 3/4 2. What fraction of $75 is $1500? a. 1/14 b. 3/5 c. 7/10 d. 1/20 3 . 3.14 + 2.73 + 23.7 = a. 28.57 b. 30.57 c. 29.56 d. 29.57 4. A woman spent 15% of her income on an item and ends up with $120. What percentage of her income is left? a. 12% b. 85% c. 75% d. 95% 5 . Express 0.27 + 0.33 as a fraction. a. 3/6 b. 4/7 c. 3/5 d. 2/7 6 . What is (3.13 + 7.87) X 5? a. 65 b. 50 c. 45 d. 55 7 . Reduce 2/4 X 3/4 to lowest terms. a. 6/12 b. 3/8 c. 6/16 d. 3/4 8 . 2/3 – 2/5 = a. 4/10 b. 1/15 c. 3/7 d. 4/15 9 . 2/7 + 2/3 = a. 12/23 b. 5/10 c. 20/21 d. 6/21 10. 2 /3 of 60 + 1/5 of 75 = a. 45 b. 55 c. 15 d. 50 11. 8 is what percent of 40? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 12. 9 is what percent of 36? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 13 . Three tenths of 90 equals : a. 18 b. 45 c. 27 d. 36 14. .4 % of 36 is a. 1.44 b. .144 c. 14.4 d. 144 15. The physician ordered 5 mg Coumadin; 10 mg/tablet is on hand. How many tablets will you give? a. .5 tablets b. 1 tablet c. .75 tablets d. 1.5 tablets 16. The physician ordered 20 mg Tylenol/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 12 kg. How many tablets will you give? a. 1 tablet b. 3 tablets c. 2 tablets d. 4 tablets 17. The physician ordered 20 mg Tylenol/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 44 lb. How many tablets will you give? a. 5 tablets b. 5.5 tablets c. 4.5 tablets d. 3 tablets 18. The physician ordered 3,000 units of heparin; 5,000 U/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. 0.5 ml b. 0.6 ml c. 0.75 ml d. 0.8 ml 19. The physician orders 60 mg Augmentin; 80 mg/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. 1 ml b. 0.5 ml c. 0.75 ml d. 0.95 ml 20. The physician ordered 16 mg Ibuprofen/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 15 kg. How many tablets will you give? a. 3 tablets b. 2 tablets c. 1 tablet d. 2.5 tablets 21. The physician orders 1000 mg Benbadryl liquid; 1 g/tsp is on hand. How many teaspoons will you give? a. .75 tsp b. 1.5 tsp c. 1 tsp d. 1.25 tsp 22. The physician ordered 10 units of regular insulin and 200 U/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. .45 ml b. .75 ml c. .25 ml d. .05 ml 23. If y = 4 and x = 3, solve yx3 a. -108 b. 108 c. 27 d. 4 24 . Convert 0.007 kilograms to grams a. 7 grams b. 70 grams c. 0.07 grams d. 0.70 grams 25 . Convert 16 quarts to gallons a. 1 gallons b. 8 gallons c. 4 gallons d. 4.5 gallons 26 . Convert 2 teaspoons to milliliters. a. 4.3 milliliters b. 9 milliliters c. 9.86 milliliters d. 4 milliliters 27 . Convert 200 meters to kilometers a. 50 kilometers b. 20 kilometers c. 12 kilometers d. 0.2 kilometers 28 . Convert 72 inches to feet a. 12 feet b. 6 feet c. 4 feet d. 17 feet 29 . Convert 3 yards to feet a. 18 feet b. 12 feet c. 9 feet d. 27 feet 30 . Convert 45 kg. to pounds. a. 10 pounds b. 100 pounds c. 1,000 pounds d. 110 pounds 31 . Convert 0.63 grams to mg. a. 630 g. b. 63 mg. c. 630 mg. d. 603 mg. 32. 5 x + 3 = 7x -1. Find x a. 1/3 b. ½ c. 1 d. 2 33. 5 x+2(x+7) = 14x – 7. Find x a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 34. 12 t -10 = 14t + 2. Find t a. -6 b. -4 c. 4 d. 6 35. 5( z+1) = 3(z+2) + 11. Z=? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 12 36. The price of a book went up from $20 to $25. What percent did the price increase? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 37. The price of a book decreased from $25 to $20. What percent did the price decrease? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 38. After taking several practice tests, Brian improved the results of his GRE test by 30%. Given that the first time he took the test Brian answered 150 questions correctly, how many questions did he answer correctly on the second test? a. 105 b. 120 c. 180 d. 195 39. In local baseball team, 4 players (or 12.5% of the team) have long hair and the rest have short hair. How many short-haired players are there on the team? a. 24 b. 28 c. 32 d. 50 40. In the time required to serve 43 customers, a server breaks 2 glasses and slips 5 times. The next day, the same server breaks 10 glasses. How many customers did she serve? a. 25 b. 43 c. 86 d. 215 41. A square lawn has an area of 62,500 square meters. What will is the cost of building fence around it at a rate of $5.5 per meter? a. $4000 b. $4500 c. $5000 d. $5500 42. Mr. Brown bought 5 cheese burgers, 3 drinks, and 4 fries for his family, and a cook pack for his dog. If the price of all single items is the same at $1.30 and a 3.5% tax is added, what is the total cost of dinner for Mr. Brown? a. $16 b. $16.9 c. $17 d. $17.5 43. The length of a rectangle is twice of its width and its area is equal to the area of a square with 12 cm. sides. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle to the nearest whole number? a. 36 cm b. 46 cm c. 51 cm d. 56 cm 44. There are 15 yellow and 35 orange balls in a basket. How many more yellow balls must be added to make the yellow balls 65%? a. 35 b. 50 c. 65 d. 70 45. A farmer wants to plant 65,536 trees in such a way that number of rows must be equal to the number of plants in a row. How many trees should he plant in a row? a. 1684 b. 1268 c. 668 d. 256 46. A distributor purchased 550 kilograms of potatoes for $165. He distributed these at rate of $6.4 per 20 kilograms to 15 shops, $3.4 per 10 kilograms to 12 shops and the remainder at $1.8. If his distribution cost is $10, what will be his profit? a. $10.4 b. $24.60 c. $14.9 d. $23.4 47. A farmer wants to plant trees around the outside boundaries of his rectangular fie of dimensions 650 meters × 780 meters. Each tree requires 5 meters of free space all around it from the stem. How many trees can he plant? a. 572 b. 568 c. 286 d. 282 48. A farmer wants to plant trees at the outside boundaries of his rectangular field of dimensions 650 meters × 780 meters. Each tree requires 5 meter of free space all around it from the stem. How much free area will be left? a. 478,800 m2 b. 492,800 m2 c. 507,625 m2 d. 518,256 m2 49. How much pay does Mr. Johnson receive if he gives half of his pay to his family, $250 to his landlord, and has exactly 3/7 of his pay left over? a. $3600 b. $3500 c. $2800 d. $1750 50. A boy has 4 red, 5 green and 2 yellow balls. He chooses two balls randomly. What is the probability that one is red and other is green? a. 2/11 b. 19/22 c. 20/121 d. 9/11 Section III – Part 1 - English 1 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Don would never have thought of that book, but you could have reminded him. b. Don would never of thought of that book, but you could have reminded him. c. Don would never have thought of that book, but you could of have reminded him. d. Don would never of thought of that book, but you could of reminded him. 2 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. The mother would not of punished her daughter if she could have avoided it. b. The mother would not have punished her daughter if she could of avoided it. c. The mother would not of punished her daughter if she could of avoided it. d. The mother would not have punished her daughter if she could have avoided it. 3 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. There was scarcely no food in the pantry, because nobody ate at home. b. There was scarcely any food in the pantry, because nobody ate at home. c. There was scarcely any food in the pantry, because not nobody ate at home. d. There was scarcely no food in the pantry, because not nobody ate at home. 4 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Although you may not see nobody in the dark, it does not mean that nobody is there. b. Although you may not see anyone in the dark, it does not mean that not nobody is there. c. Although you may not see anyone in the dark, it does not mean that no one is there. d. Although you may not see nobody in the dark, it does not mean that not nobody is there. 5 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Michael has lived in that house for forty years, while I has owned this one for only six weeks b. Michael have lived in that house for forty years, while I have owned this one for only six weeks. c. Michael have lived in that house for forty years, while I has owned this one for only six weeks. d. Michael has lived in that house for forty years, while I have owned this one for only six weeks. 6 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. The older children have already eat their dinner, but the baby has not yet eaten anything. b. The older children have already eaten their dinner, but the baby has not yet ate anything. c. The older children have already eaten their dinner, but the baby has not yet eaten anything. d. The older children have already eat their dinner, but the baby has not yet ate anything. 7 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. If they had gone to the party, he would have gone, too. b. If they had went to the party, he would have gone, too. c. If they had gone to the party, he would have went, too. d. If they had went to the party, he would have went, too. 8 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. He should have went to the appointment; instead, he went to the beach. b. He should have gone to the appointment; instead, he went to the beach. c. He should have went to the appointment; instead, he gone to the beach. d. He should have gone to the appointment; instead, he gone to the beach. 9. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Lee pronounced it’s name incorrectly; it’s an impatiens, not an impatience. b. Lee pronounced its name incorrectly; its an impatiens, not an impatience. c. Lee pronounced it’s name incorrectly; its an impatiens, not an impatience. d. Lee pronounced its name incorrectly; it’s an impatiens, not an impatience. 10 . Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Its important for you to know its official name; its called the Confederate Museum. b. It’s important for you to know it’s official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. c. It’s important for you to know its official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. d. Its important for you to know it’s official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. 11. The Ford Motor Company was named for Henry Ford, __________. a. which had founded the company. b. who founded the company. c. whose had founded the company. d. whom had founded the company. 12. Thomas Edison __________ since he invented the light bulb, television, motion pictures, and phonograph. a. has always been known as the greatest inventor b. was always been known as the greatest inventor c. must have had been always known as the greatest inventor d. will had been known as the greatest inventor 13. The weatherman on Channel 6 said that this has been the __________. a. most hottest summer on record b. most hottest summer on record c. hottest summer on record d. hotter summer on record 14. Although Joe is tall for his age, his brother Elliot is __________ of the two. a. the tallest b. more tallest c. the tall d. the taller 15. When Kiss came to town, all of the tickets __________ before I could buy one. a. will be sold out b. had been sold out c. were being sold out d. was sold out - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 16. The rules of most sports __________ more complicated than we often realize. a. are b. is c. was d. has been 17. Neither of the Wright Brothers __________ that they would be successful with their flying machine. a. have any doubts b. has any doubts c. had any doubts d. will have any doubts 18. The Titanic __________ mere days into its maiden voyage. a. has already sunk b. will already sunk c. already sank d. sank 19. __________ won first place in the Western Division? a. Who b. Whom c. Which d. What 20. There are now several ways to listen to music, including radio, CDs, and Mp3 files __________ you can download onto an MP3 player. a. on which b. who c. whom d. which 21. As the tallest monument in the United States, the St. Louis Arch __________. a. has rose to an impressive 630 feet. b. is risen to an impressive 630 feet. c. rises to an impressive 630 feet. d. was rose to an impressive 630 feet. 22. The tired, old woman should __________ on the sofa. a. lie b. lays c. laid d. lain 23. Did the students understand that Thanksgiving always __________ on the fourth Thursday in November? a. fallen b. falling c. has fell d. falls 24. Collecting stamps, __________ and listening to shortwave radio were Rick’s main hobbies. a. building models, b. to build models, c. having built models, d. build models, 25 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. The ceremony had an emotional effect on the groom, but the bride was not affected. b. The ceremony had an emotional affect on the groom, but the bride was not affected. c. The ceremony had an emotional effect on the groom, but the bride was not effected. d. The ceremony had an emotional affect on the groom, but the bride was not affected. 26 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Anna was taller then Luis, but then he grew four inches in three months. b. Anna was taller then Luis, but than he grew four inches in three months. c. Anna was taller than Luis, but than he grew four inches in three months. d. Anna was taller than Luis, but then he grew four inches in three months. 27 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Their second home is in Boca Raton, but there not their for most of the year. b. They’re second home is in Boca Raton, but they’re not there for most of the year. c. Their second home is in Boca Raton, but they’re not there for most of the year. d. There second home is in Boca Raton, but they’re not there for most of the year. 28 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. They’re going to graduate in June; after that, their best option will be to go there. b. There going to graduate in June; after that, their best option will be to go there. c. They’re going to graduate in June; after that, there best option will be to go their. d. Their going to graduate in June; after that, their best option will be to go there 29 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. You’re mistaken; that is not you’re book. b. Your mistaken; that is not your book. c. You’re mistaken; that is not your book. d. Your mistaken; that is not you’re book. 30. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. You’re classes are on the west side of campus, but you’re living on the east side. b. Your classes are on the west side of campus, but your living on the east side. c. Your classes are on the west side of campus, but you’re living on the east side. d. You’re classes are on the west side of campus, but you’re living on the east side. 31 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Disease is highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease is malaria. b. Disease are highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease is malaria. c. Disease is highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease are malaria. d. Disease are highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease are malaria. 32 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Although I would prefer to have dog, I actually own a cat. b. Although I would prefer to have a dog, I actually own cat. c. Although I would prefer to have a dog, I actually own a cat. d. Although I would prefer to have dog, I actually own cat. 33 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. The principal of the school lived by one principle: always do your best. b. The principle of the school lived by one principle: always do your best. c. The principal of the school lived by one principal: always do your best. d. The principle of the school lived by one principal: always do your best. 34 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Even with an speed limit sign clearly posted, an inattentive driver may drive too fast. b. Even with a speed limit sign clearly posted, a inattentive driver may drive too fast. c. Even with an speed limit sign clearly posted, a inattentive driver may drive too fast. d. Even with a speed limit sign clearly posted, an inattentive driver may drive too fast. 35 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Except for the roses, she did not accept John’s frequent gifts. b. Accept for the roses, she did not except John’s frequent gifts. c. Accept for the roses, she did not accept John’s frequent gifts. d. Except for the roses, she did not except John’s frequent gifts. 36 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Although he continued to advise me, I no longer - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialok his advice. b. Although he continued to advice me, I no longer took his advise. c. Although he continued to advise me, I no longer took his advise. d. Although he continued to advice me, I no longer took his advise. 37 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. In order to adopt to the climate, we had to adopt a different style of clothing. b. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adapt a different style of clothing. c. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adopt a different style of clothing. d. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adapt a different style of clothing. 38 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. When he’s between friends, Robert seems confident, but between you and me, he is really very shy. b. When he’s among friends, Robert seems confident, but among you and me, he is really very shy. c. When he’s between friends, Robert seems confident, but among you and me, he is really very shy. d. When he’s among friends, Robert seems confident, but between you and me, he is really very shy. 39 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. I will be finished at ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at about 6:30. b. I will be finished at about ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at 6:30. c. I will be finished at about ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at about 6:30. d. I will be finished at ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at 6:30. 40 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Beside the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug beside the couch. b. Besides the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug beside the couch. c. Besides the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug besides the couch. d. Beside the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug besides the couch. 41 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Although John can swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. b. Although John may swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. c. Although John can swim very well, the lifeguard cannot allow him to swim in the pool. d. Although John may swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. 42 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Her continuous absences caused a continual disruption at the office. b. Her continual absences caused a continuous disruption at the office. c. Her continual absences caused a continual disruption at the office. d. Her continuous absences caused a continuous disruption at the office. 43 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. During the famine, the Irish people had to emigrate to other countries; many of them immigrated to the United States. b. During the famine, the Irish people had to immigrate to other countries; many of them immigrated to the United States. c. During the famine, the Irish people had to emigrate to other countries; many of them emigrated to the United States. d. During the famine, the Irish people had to immigrate to other countries; many of them emigrated to the United States. 44 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. His home was farther than we expected; farther, the roads were very bad. b. His home was farther than we expected; further, the roads were very bad. c. His home was further than we expected; further, the roads were very bad. d. His home was further than we expected; farther, the roads were very bad. 45 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the latter were given to the staff, while the former were given directly to the children. b. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the former was given to the staff, while the latter was given directly to the children. c. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the groceries were given to the staff, while the former was given directly to the children. d. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the latter was given to the staff, while the groceries were given directly to the children. 46 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Vegetables are a healthy food; eating them can make you more healthful. b. Vegetables are a healthful food; eating them can make you more healthful. c. Vegetables are a healthy food; eating them can make you more healthy. d. Vegetables are a healthful food; eating them can make you more healthy. 47 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. b. After you lie the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. c. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lie down for a nap. d. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. 48 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. b. After you lie the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. c. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lie down for a nap. d. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. 49 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Once the chickens had layed their eggs, they lay on their nests to hatch them. b. Once the chickens had lay their eggs, they lay on their nests to hatch them. c. Once the chickens had laid their eggs, they lay on their nests to hatch them. d. Once the chickens had laid their eggs, they laid on their nests to hatch them. 50 . Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Mrs. Foster taught me many things, but I learned the most from Mr. Wallace. b. Mrs. Foster learned me many things, but I was taught the most by Mr. Wallace. c. Mrs. Foster learned me many things, but I learned the most from Mr. Wallace. d. Mrs. Foster taught me many things, but I was learned the most from Mr. Wallace. Section III – Part II – Vocabulary Choose the word that matches the given definition. 1. VERB To build up or strengthen in relation to morals or religion. a. Sanctify b. Amplify c. Edify d. Wry 2. NOUN Exit or way out. 1. Door-jamb 2. Egress 3. Regress 4. Furtherance 3. ADJECTIVE Private, personal. 1. Confidential 2. Hysteric 3. Simplistic 4. Promissory 4. NOUN Serious criminal offence that is punishable by death or imprisonment above a year. 1. Trespass 2. Hampers 3. Felony 4. Obligatory 5. VERB To encourage or incite troublesome acts. 1. Comment 2. Foment 3. Integument 4. Atonement 6. ADJECTIVE Dignified, solemn that is appropriate for a funeral. 1. Funereal 2. Prediction 3. Wailing 4. Vociferous 7. NOUN Warmth and kindness of disposition. 1. Seethe 2. Geniality 3. Desists 4. Predicate 8. ADJECTIVE Polite and well mannered. 1. Chivalrous 2. Hilarious 3. Genteel 4. Governance 9. VERB To encourage, stimulate or incite and provoke. 1. Push 2. Force 3. Threaten 4. Goad 10. ADJECTIVE Shocking, terrible or wicked. 1. Pleasantries 2. Heinous 3. Shrewd 4. Provencal 11. NOUN A person of thing that tells or announces the coming of someone or something. 1. Harbinger 2. Evasion 3. Apostate 4. Coquette 12. ADJECTIVE Similar or identical. 1. Soluble 2. Assembly 3. Conclave 4. Homologous 13. ADJECTIVE Common, not honorable or noble. 1. Princely 2. Ignoble 3. Shameful 4. Sham 14. ADJECTIVE Irrelevant not having substance or matter. 1. Immaterial 2. Prohibition 3. Prediction 4. Brokerage 15. ADJECTIVE Perfect, no faults or errors. a. Impeccable b. Formidable c. Genteel d. Disputation 16. VERB Place side by side for contrast or comparison. Peccadillo 2. Fallible 3. Congeal 4. Juxtapose 17. NOUN Ruling council of a military government. 1. Sophist 2. Counsel 3. Virago 4. Junta 18. NOUN Someone who takes more time than necessary. 1. Demagogue 2. Haggard 3. Laggard 4. Investiture 19. ADJECTIVE Lacking enthusiasm, strength or energy. 1. Hapless 2. Languid 3. Ubiquitous 4. Promiscuous 20. NOUN A person of influence, rank or distinction. 1. Consummate 2. Sinister 3. Accolade 4. Magnate 21. NOUN A lingering disease or ailment of the human body. 1. Treatment 2. Frontal 3. Malady 4. Assiduous 22. ADJECTIVE Quick and light in movement. 1. Quickest Nimble 3. Rapacious 4. Perspicuities 23. ADJECTIVE A loud unpleasant noise. 1. Nosy 2. Racket 3. Ravage 4. Noisome 24. ADJECTIVE Relating to a wedding or marriage. 1. Nefarious 2. Fluctuate 3. Nuptial 4. Flatulence 25. ADJECTIVE Open display or apparent. 1. Ostensible 2. Complacent 3. Revealing 4. Harrowing 26. NOUN A sheet of paper that can be folded into 8 leaves. 1. Octagon 2. Harangue 3. Octavo 4. Wreckage 27. ADJECTIVE Appearing weak or pale. 1. Pallid 2. Palliative 3. Deviant 4. Expatiate 28. NOUN A picture or series of pictures representing a continuous scene. 1. Accolade 2. Obdurate Panorama 4. Personification 29. NOUN A self contradictory statement that can only be true if its false and vice versa. 1. Inbred 2. Paradox 3. Attribute 4. Fealty 30. ADJECTIVE Often complaining. 1. Querulous 2. Complaint 3. Compound 4. Vestige 31. Choose the best definition of mollify. 1. To anger 2. To modify 3. To irritate 4. To soothe 32. Choose the best definition of redundant. 1. Backup 2. Necessary repetition 3. Unnecessary repetition 4. No repetition 33. Choose the best definition of bicker. 1. Chat 2. Discuss 3. Argue 4. Debate 34. Choose the best definition of sombre. 1. Gothic 2. Black 3. Serious Evil 35. Choose the best definition of maverick. 1. Rebel 2. Conformist 3. Unconventional 4. Conventional 36. Choose the best definition of tenuous. 1. Strong 2. Tense 3. Firm 4. Weak 37. Choose the best definition of pandemonium. 1. Chaos 2. Orderly 3. Quiet 4. Noisy 38. Choose the best definition of perpetual. 1. Continuous 2. Slowly 3. Over a very long time 4. Motion 39. Choose the best definition of denigrate. 1. Compliment 2. Belittle 3. Praise 4. Admire 40. Choose the best definition of mundane. 1. Exciting 2. Continuous 3. Unforgiving 4. Ordinary 41. Choose the best definition of importune. 1. To find an opportunity 2. To ask all the time. 3. Cannot find an opportunity 4. None of the above 42. Choose the best definition of volatile. 1. Not explosive 2. Catches fire easily 3. Does not catch fire 4. Explosive 43. Choose the best definition of plaintive. 1. Happy 2. Mournful 3. Faint 4. Plain 44. Choose the best definition of nexus. 1. A connection 2. A telephone switch 3. Part of a computer 4. None of the above 45. Choose the best definition of conjoin. 1. A connection 2. To marry 3. Weld together 4. To join together 46. Choose the best definition of petrify. 1. Turn into a fossil 2. Turn to stone 3. Turn into wood 4. Turn into glass 47. Choose the best definition of inherent. 1. To receive money in a will 2. An essential part of 3. To receive money from a will 4. None of the above 48. Choose the best definition of torpid. 1. Fast 2. Rapid 3. Sluggish 4. Violent 49. Choose the best definition of gregarious. 1. Sociable 2. Introverted 3. Large 4. Solitary 50. Choose the best definition of alloy. 1. To mix with something superior 2. To mix 3. To mix with something inferior 4. To purify Section III – Science 1. Electricity is a general term encompassing a variety of phenomena resulting from the presence and flow of electric charge. Which of the following statements about electricit is/are true? a. Electrically charged matter is influenced by, and produces, electromagnetic fields. b. Electric current is a movement or flow of electrically charged particles. c. Electric potential is a fundamental interaction between the magnetic field and the presence and motion of an electric charge. d. An influence produced by an electric charge on other charges in its vicinity is an electric field 2. Which of the following is/are not included in Ohm’s Law? a. Ohm’s Law defines the relationships between (P) power, (E) voltage, (I) current, and (R) resistance. b. One ohm is the resistance value through which one volt will maintain a current of one ampere. c. Using Ohm’s Law, voltage is determined using V = IR, with I equaling current and R equaling resistance. d. An ohm (Ω) is a unit of electrical voltage. 3. The property of a conductor that restricts its internal flow of electrons is: a. Friction b. Power c. Current d. Resistance 4. In physics, ____________ is the force that opposes the relative motion of two bodies in contact. a. Resistance b. Abrasiveness c. Friction d. Antagonism 5. What is the difference, of any, between kinetic energy and potential energy? a. Kinetic energy is the energy of a body that results from heat while potential energy is the energy possessed by an object that is chilled b. Kinetic energy is the energy of a body that results from motion while potential energy is the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position or state, e.g., as in a compressed spring. c. There is no difference between kinetic and potential energy; all energy is the same. d. Potential energy is the energy of a body that results from motion while kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position or state, e.g., as in a compressed spring. 6. What are considered the four fundamental forces of nature? a. Gravity, electromagnetic force, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force b. Gravity, electromagnetic force, negative nuclear force, and positive nuclear force c. Polarity, electromagnetic force, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force d. Gravity, chemical magnetic force, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force 7. Starting with the weakest, arrange the fundamental forces of nature in order of strength. a. Gravity, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force, Strong Nuclear Force b. Weak Nuclear Force, Gravity, Electromagnetic Force, Strong Nuclear Force c. Strong Nuclear Force, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force, Gravity d. Gravity, Strong Nuclear Force, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force 8. What is the difference between Strong Nuclear Force and Weak Nuclear Force? a. The Strong Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus, and the Weak Nuclear Force is responsible for the radioactive beta decay and other subatomic reactions. b. The Strong Nuclear Force is responsible for the radioactive beta decay and other subatomic reactions, and the Weak Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus. c. The Weak Nuclear Force is feeble and the Strong Nuclear Force is robust. d. The Strong Nuclear Force is a negative force that releases protons and neutrons and threatens the structure of the nucleus, and the Weak Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus. 9 . The Law of Conservation of Mass states that : a. No detectable gain but, depending on the substances used, some loss can occur in chemica reactions. b. No detectable gain or loss occurs in chemical reactions. c. No detectable loss but some gain occurs in chemical reactions. d. Depending on the substances used, substantial gain or loss can occur in chemical reactions 10. What is the difference, if any, between convection and heat radiation? a. Thermal radiation is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; convection is electromagnetic radiation emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. b. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; thermal radiation is nuclear energy emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. c. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; thermal radiation is electromagnetic radiation emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. d. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; thermal radiation is the barely detectable light emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. 11. In ________ cells, the cell cycle is the cycle of events involving cell division, including ______, ________, and _________. a. Prokaryotic, meiosis, cytokinesis, and interphase b. Eukaryotic, meiosis, cytokinesis, and interphase c. Eukaryotic, mitosis, kinematisis, and interphase d. Eukaryotic, mitosis, cytokinesis, and interphase 12. Which, if any, of the following statements about prokaryotic cells is false? a. Prokaryotic cells include such organisms as E. coli and Streptococcus. b. Prokaryotic cells lack internal membranes and organelles. c. Prokaryotic cells break down food using cellular respiration and fermentation. d. All of these statements are true. 13. __________ is a nucleic acid that carries the - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialenetic information in the cell and is capable of self-replication. a. RNA b. Triglyceride c. DNA d. DAR 14. The complementary bases found in DNA are ______ and _______ or _______ and ________. a. Adenine and thymine or cytosine and guanine b. Cytosine and thymine or adenine and guanine c. Adenine and cytosine or thymine and guanine d. None of the above 15. A/an ________ is the basic structural unit of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA); their sequence determines individual hereditary characteristics. a. Gene b. Nucleotide c. Phosphate d. Nitrogen base 16. _________________ is a ______________ that plays an important role in the creation of new _________. a. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation of new proteins. b. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation o new proteins. c. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a cluster of enzymes that plays an important role in the creation o new proteins. d. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation o new genes. 17. Which, if any, of the following statements are false? a. A mutation is a permanent change in the DNA sequence of a gene. b. Mutations in a gene’s DNA sequence can alter the amino acid sequence of the protein encoded by the gene. c. Mutations in DNA sequences usually occur spontaneously. d. Mutations in DNA sequences are caused by exposure to environmental agents such as sunshine. 18. _______ reactions occur in every cell and use _______ to convert glucose to energy; _______organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without th use of ________. a. Aerobic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialnvert glucose to energy; anaerob organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. b. Anaerobic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to convert glucose to energy; aerob organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. c. Aerobic reactions occur in every cell and use exercise to convert glucose to energy; anaerobic organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of exercise. d. Analogic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to convert glucose to energy; anaerobic organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. 19. _________ are a collection of similar cells that group together to perform a specialized function. a. Ephithelia b. Organs c. Systems d. Tissues 20. ________ tissue serves as membranes lining organs and helping to keep the body’s organs separate, in place and protected; an example is the outer layer of the skin. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Nerve d. Protein 21. Tissue that adds support and structure to the body and frequently contains fibrous strands of collagen is _________ tissue. a. Epithelial b. Muscle c. Nerve d. Connective 22. _________ tissue is a specialized tissue that can contract and contains the specialized proteins actin and myosin that slide past one another and allow movement. a. Epithelial b. Muscle c. Nerve d. Connective 23. ___________ tissue contains two types of cells: neurons and glial cells and has the ability to generate and conduct electrical signals in the body. a. Nerve b. Connective c. Epithelial d. Muscle