Test Bank For Women’s Gynecologic Health 3rd Edition | Complete | 2023/2024

What does a service grade of D represent in the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommendations? a. Service carries insufficient evidence to recommend it b. Service is found to be beneficial c. Service is found to be either of no benefit or potentially harmful d. Service should not be routinely provided 2. Which statement best defines “risk factor”? a. Any factor which increases the need for medical attention b. Any behavior which places an individual at risk for illness c. The probability that an individual will develop a medical condition d. An attribute or exposure associated causally with an increased probability of a disease or injury 3. The USPSTF assigns a certainty level to assess the net benefit of a preventive service based on __________________________________ a. the nature of the overall evidence available. b. the cost-effectiveness of a service. c. known health outcomes. d. select studies in a limited primary care population. 4. What screening recommendation is similar across all groups for colorectal cancer? a. Screening women age 76 to 85 based on risk factors b. Screening only for those women at increased risk c. Screening for all women starting at age 50 d. Against routine screening in adults age 76 and over 5. What is the screening recommendation by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists for intimate partner violence (IPV)? a. Routinely ask all women direct, specific questions about abuse. Refer to community-based services when identified. b. Insufficient evidence to recommend for or against routine screening. c. No screening recommendation. d. Remain alert for signs of family violence at every patient encounter. 6. Alcohol consumption is considered hazardous for a woman who has ______________ a. either 5 or more drinks in one week or 3 per occasion. b. either 7 or more drinks in one week or 3 per occasion. c. either 9 or more drinks in one week or 4 per occasion. d. either 10 or more drinks in one week or 5 per occasion. 7. What is the Task Force recommendation grade assigned to screening all adults for depression? a. B b. A c. C d. D 8. How is being overweight defined on the BMI table? a. 18 to 29.9 b. 20 to 29.9 c. 25 to 29.9 d. 30 or greater 9. How is screening for the rubella immunity accomplished? a. By asking the patient b. By obtaining a history of vaccination or by ordering serologic studies c. By ordering serologic studies d. By obtaining vaccination records 10. What recommendation grade does the Task Force assign to screening all adults for tobacco use? a. A b. B c. C d. D 11. What is the Task Force recommendation regarding the efficacy of digital mammography or MRI versus the standard film mammography? a. Evidence exists that all screens are equally beneficial b. Film mammography is recommended as the best screen c. Digital mammography or MRI is recommended as the best screen d. Not enough evidence exists to assess benefits and risks as to which provides the best screen 12. What recommendation grade does the Task Force assign to cholesterol screening women between 20 and 44 years with preexisting risk factors for coronary artery disease? a. A b. B c. C d. D 13. Which of the following factor associated with increased risk for developing osteoporosis appears to be the best predictor of risk? a. Smoking b. Low body weight c. Sedentary lifestyle d. Family history 14. Which of the following are screening tests for type 2 diabetes mellitus? a. Fasting plasma glucose b. Two-hour post load plasma glucose c. Hemoglobin A1C d. All of the above 15. What population of women should be screened for signs and symptoms of thyroid dysfunction? a. All women b. Older women c. Older women, smokers, women with diabetes d. Older women, postpartum women, and women with Down syndrome ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. d CHAPTER 8 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. Approximately how many weight-loss surgeries occur each year? a. 100,000 b. 150,000 c. 250,000 d. 375,000 2. How is body mass index (BMI) calculated? a. Weight in pounds divided by height in feet squared b. Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared c. Height in meters divided by weight in kilograms squared d. Weight in kilograms squared divided by height in meters 3. Bariatric surgery considered a valid treatment when _________________ a. a person’s BMI is between 35 and 40 and is accompanied by a high-risk comorbid disease. b. a person’s BMI is more than 25 and is accompanied by hypertension. c. a person’s BMI is more than 40 and is accompanied by cardiovascular disease. d. a person’s BMI is between 25 and 29.9 and is accompanied by a high-risk comorbid disease. 4. Which statement about women who have had bariatric surgery is false? a. Her record of weight lost should not be included in her health history. b. Obesity has been shown to evoke negative responses from clinicians. c. Subtle, unintentional bias often manifests against these women. d. Clinicians need to strive to be nonjudgmental regardless of the patient’s body habitus. 5. Which is NOT a complication following bariatric surgery? a. Hernia formation b. Anemia c. Hearing loss d. Cholelithiasis 6. Where does iron and calcium absorption primarily occur? a. Stomach b. Duodenum c. Upper intestine d. Lower intestine 7. What is the recommended waiting period between bariatric surgery and pregnancy? a. 6 to 12 months b. 12 to 24 months c. 24 months to three years d. Three to four years 8. Estrogen-containing contraceptive pills are known to increase the incidence of _____________________ a. kidney disease. b. kidney stones. c. gallstones. d. Addison’s disease. 9. Best practice clinical guidelines for directing the care of women who become pregnant after bariatric surgery _____________________________ a. have yet to be developed. b. include nutritional counseling. c. have been developed using research-based evidence. d. are incomplete. 10. What is the recommended prenatal weight gain if a woman’s BMI is 25 to 29.9 (overweight)? a. 8 to 11 pounds b. 11 to 15 pounds c. 15 to 25 pounds d. 25 to 30 pounds 11. Which statement regarding a relationship between obesity and psychological disorders is true? a. Psychopathology is both a cause and a consequence of obesity. b. Psychopathology is a consequence of obesity. c. Psychopathology is a cause of obesity. d. It is uncertain whether psychopathology is a cause or a consequence of obesity. 12. Mental health assessments after bariatric surgery may take the form of ________________________________ a. directing the woman to answer a questionnaire focused on mental health status. b. asking the woman questions during the history and physical examination. c. observing the woman’s affect, mood and appearance during the visit. d. All of the above ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. d CHAPTER 9 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. Which one of the following is the definition of the term gender identity? a. People who respond erotically to both sexes. b. A self-label, regardless of biologic or natal sex. c. People who are similar in age, class, and sexual status. d. A label for behavior not usually associated with one’s natal sex. 2. The belief that heterosexuality is the best sexual orientation and that all people should be heterosexual is called a. lesbianism. b. homophobia. c. heterosexism. d. psychosocialism. 3. A healthcare facility can make sure it meets nationwide standards for equal and quality care of LGBT patients by a. utilizing the Healthcare Equality Index (HEI). b. participating in National LGBT Health Awareness Week. c. adopting the policies and practices of integrative medicine. d. creating research and educational opportunities for its staff. 4. In 1997 the Institute of Medicine (IOM) published a landmark report that: a. described the discriminatory practices of healthcare institutions. b. identified the health needs of lesbian and bisexual women. c. provided guidelines for the critical transition period of transgendered persons. d. recommended research and mechanisms for disseminating information on lesbian health. 5. External barriers to quality health care for SGM patients include all of the following except: a. clinicians who assume all their patients are heterosexual. b. intake forms that request the name of spouse, partner, or significant other. c. the limited education of clinicians on LBT health issues. d. a paucity of domestic partner health insurance coverage for LBT couples. 6. The most current research on eating disorders suggests that a. feminist identity and activities do not serve as buffers against negative selfimage. b. lesbians have less body dissatisfaction than heterosexual women. c. eating disorders are more prevalent in bisexual women than in heterosexual women. d. the prevalence of eating disorders in African Americans versus Latinos differs significantly. 7. Which one of the following statements about sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is false? a. Lesbians are at very low risk for development of STIs and vaginal infections. b. HIV has been identified in case studies of women who report sex only with women. c. Transgender women (MTF) have extremely high rates of HIV infection. d. Risky behaviors for STIs include sex during menses. 8. To date _____ prospective empiric studies have definitively determined whether lesbians are at higher risk for breast cancer than other women. a. more than half of all b. only two c. all d. no 9. Which one of the following is not among the ways clinicians can provide a welcoming, safe environment for LBT patients? a. Avoid the heterosexual assumption by using gender-neutral language. b. Explain whether and how information will be documented in the patient’s medical record. c. Ignore the sexual status or gender identity of all patients. d. Offer mainstream referrals that are culturally sensitive to SGMs. 10. Compared to heterosexual adolescent girls, LBT girls a. report having a lower current frequency of intercourse. b. choose less effective methods of contraception. c. are more likely to use contraception. d. are more likely to become pregnant. ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. d CHAPTER 10 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. A woman’s sexuality is a. expressed fully only during her middle years. b. a way to express her need for emotional closeness. c. experienced the same way every time. d. precisely the same as every other woman’s. 2. A woman’s sexuality is not a. coordinated by multiple anatomical systems. b. influenced by ethical, moral, or spiritual factors. c. an important aspect of a woman’s health throughout her life. d. limited by age, attractiveness, partner participation, or sexual orientation. 3. The erotic or romantic attraction or preference for sharing sexual expression with persons of a specific gender is called a. sexual orientation. b. gender role behavior. c. a social or cultural construct. d. an anatomic characteristic. 4. The most frequently acknowledged sexual lifestyle and relationship pattern for women is a. serial heterosexual monogamy. b. marital heterosexual monogamy. c. nonmonogamous heterosexual marriage. d. heterosexual coupling without marriage. 5. Women are considered _______ when their sexual and affectional preferences are directed toward individuals of either sex. a. celibate b. lesbians c. bisexual d. heterosexual 6. The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships, make up a woman’s a. sexual health. b. gender identity. c. gender role behaviors. d. psychosocial orientation. 7. Which one of the following general statements about a woman’s healthy sexual functioning is true? a. Compared to men, women have a stronger biologic urge to be sexual for the release of sexual tension. b. Unlike men, women experience “drive,” or a sexual desire independent of context. c. Unlike men, a woman’s sexual arousal is a subjective mental excitement that may or may not be associated with genital awareness. d. Just like men, orgasmic release of sexual tension in women always occurs in the same way. 8. According to Eaton et al., 2008, what percent of twelfth graders in the United States has had sexual intercourse? a. 2% b. 33% c. 45.1% d. 64.6% 9. The current cultural emphasis on youth, beauty, and thinness contributes to the prevailing societal misperception of women age ______ as asexual. a. 12 to 16 b. 20 to 40 c. 40 to 60 d. 65 and over 10. Which one of the following statements about clinicians who provide satisfactory sexual health care is false? a. They are comfortable with their own sexuality, aware of their own biases, and have a sincere desire to assist their patients. b. They perform a sexual health assessment that includes physiologic, psychologic, and sociocultural evaluations. c. They know how various health problems, diseases, and their treatment affect sexual functioning and sexuality. d. They make assumptions about a woman’s sexual attitudes, values, feelings, and behavior. ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. d CHAPTER 11 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. Most research studies on methods of contraception use the term efficacy to refer to a. the rate of success in those who are spacing their pregnancies. b. likelihood of pregnancy when a method is used exactly as prescribed. c. number of pregnancies when a method is used improperly or inconsistently. d. likelihood of user failure or typical-use failure rates in different populations. 2. Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates? a. None b. Some c. All d. All except sterilization 3. All of the following are physiologic methods of nonhormonal contraception except a. abstinence. b. lactational amenorrhea. c. coitus interruptus. d. spermicide. 4. Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventing pregnancy than more modern methods, interest in them is on the rise because they a. can help protect against STIs, including HIV. b. are coitus dependent and require planning. c. are nonallergenic and male controlled. d. involve the use of hormones. 5. Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as a. the women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services. b. a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. c. a high likelihood of complications and side effects. d. the surgery is not covered by insurance. 6. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are among the most extensively studied medications available. Which one of the following statements about their use has been found to be true? a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics may enhance their efficacy. b. They do not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. c. They decrease the relative risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers. d. Among possible side effects are acne, hirsuitism, and benign breast conditions. 7. Compared to COCs, the combined contraceptive patch and vaginal ring a. have the same theoretical efficacy. b. offer more opportunity for user error. c. have lower failure rates in obese women. d. are available in a larger variety of formulations. 8. Progestin-only pills (POPs) a. have no possible side effects. b. suppress ovulation as reliably as COCs. c. may be taken earlier or later than prescribed. d. in combination with lactation are nearly 100% effective. 9. The depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injection (Depo-Provera) is given at _______ week intervals. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 10. Which one of the following statements about the subdermal progestin implant is false? a. It is associated with the development of benign follicular cysts. b. After removal, its contraceptive effects last 10 more months on average. c. Based on worldwide data, it appears to be as safe as other progestin-only methods. d. The shortage of research due to its only recent availability is a possible disadvantage. 11. Of the two intrauterine contraceptive devices currently available in the United States only one provides a local delivery of protestin. It is the a. combined contraceptive patch (Ortho Evra). b. copper IUD (T380A, ParaGard). c. LNG-IUS (Mirena). d. Dalkon Shield. 12. Emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) can a. cause an abortion. b. prevent fertilization. c. harm an established pregnancy. d. offer protection from STIs, including HIV. ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. b 11. c 12. b CHAPTER 12 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. The North American Menopause Society (NAMS) current position on the use of HT in menopausal women includes a. HT is indicated for the sole purpose of preventing cardiovascular disease. b. ET for less than 5 years has significant effect on the risk for breast cancer. c. HT is recommended for prevention of cognitive aging or dementia. d. EPT is recommended to decrease risk of endometrial carcinoma. 2. What type(s) of estrogen are usually present in a woman’s body in the postmenopausal years? a. Estrone (E1) and estradiol (E2) b. Estrone (E1) and estriol (E3) c. Estradiol (E2) only d. None; women do not produce estrogen after menopause. 3. In general, natural menopause occurs for most women between the ages of _____ years. a. 40 and 50 b. 44 and 46 c. 48 and 55 d. 39 and 47 4. Which one of the following statements about menopause is false? a. A diagnosis is based on the absence of menses for 6 consecutive months. b. Controlling diabetes and hypertension can reduce the severity of symptoms. c. Similar symptoms may be caused by arrhythmia, thyroid disorders, or tumors. d. Diagnosis requires a thorough history, a physical exam, and laboratory testing. 5. Which one of the following statements about menopause is true? a. Symptoms usually begin in the postmenopausal period. b. Women most frequently report central nervous system symptoms. c. Hot flashes can last well beyond the first 5 to 7 years following menopause. d. Women typically experience the most severe symptoms during perimenopause. 6. Among the midlife health issues of women, the number one cause of mortality in the United States is a. primary osteoporosis. b. cardiovascular disease. c. overweight and obesity. d. cancer (of the lung and bronchus, breast, and colon). 7. Lifestyle approaches to postmenopausal symptom management include a. sleeping more than 8 hours per night. b. avoiding sugar, coffee, chocolate, and alcohol. c. decreasing levels of physical activity. d. more than 1,000 international units/day of vitamin E. 8. The standard for managing moderate to severe menopausal symptoms is a. lifestyle changes, such as dieting and exercising. b. nonhormone products, such as anticonvulsive medications. c. alternative care, such as acupuncture, combined with organic herbs. d. prescription systemic hormone products, such as estrogen and progestogen. 9. When HT is prescribed for relief of the vasomotor symptoms of menopause, patients should a. find that their symptoms begin to resolve within 2 to 6 weeks. b. be told that they ought not to experience side effects if they follow directions. c. return for follow-up with the clinician within one year after the initial dose. d. initially be given ET or EPT at higher than standard doses. 10. The use of complementary and alternative medicines (CAM) a. by women is on the downturn in the United States. b. is usually reported to the patient’s primary care clinician. c. must be taken into account by clinicians for proper patient assessment and care. d. is scientifically proven to be effective in the management of menopausal symptoms. ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. d 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. c CHAPTER 13 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. Which one of the following statements about intimate partner violence (IPV) is false? a. It refers to an escalating pattern of abuse. b. It includes emotional abuse, such as disregarding what a woman wants. c. It includes using physical force to make a woman engage in a sexual act against her will. d. It refers to a current or former spouse or dating partner of the opposite sex, not someone of the same sex. 2. Studies have identified the prevalence of IPV during pregnancy as ranging from _______ in a sample of adolescents and adult women to as high as _______ in a sample of pregnant adolescents. a. 18.1%; 37.6% b. 4.7%; 10.6% c. 40%; 50% d. 14%; 23% 3. A U.S. population-based