Microbiology Exam 100 Questions & Answers 2023/2024 Update

Microbiology Exam 100 Questions & Answers 2023/2024 UpdateMicrobiology,Oral Physiology,Oral Diagnosis, Pathophysiology,Phamacology, Class Anesthesiology & General Physiology Exam Questions & Answers 2023/2024 Update 1. Any deviation from health where tissues and organs are damaged and disrupted is termed as: A. Pathology B. Disease C. Infection D. Transient microbiota E. Commensalism 2. The human body provides a favorable habitat for microorganisms. Which of the following does not contribute to this favorable habitat? A. Stable temperature B. Extensive surfaces upon which to colonize C. Constant source of nourishment D. Low levels of moisture E. Relatively stable pH 3. The ultimate goal of metabolism in the microorganisms is to: A. Allow the organism to grow B. Allow the organism to reproduce C. Allow the organism to respond to the environment D. Allow the organism to move about its environment 4. The chemical reactions that sustain life depend on which of the following to keep the microorganisms active? A. High concentration of reactants B. High temperatures C. Random collisions between reactants D. Organic catalaysts called enzymes 5. A commensal bacterium: A. Does not receive any benefit from its host B. Is beneficial to its host C. May be an opportunistic pathogen D. Does not infect its host E. B and D only 6. Phenomenon in which flora inhibits growth of potential pathogens by competing for nutrients or oxygen, preventing attachment, production of antimicrobial substances. A. Microbial antagonism B. Microbial commensalism C. Microbial symbiosis D. Microbial commensalism 7. Pathogenicity is the ability of the microbe: A. To cause infection in the susceptible host B. To modify the composition of the normal flora C. To cause disease in the human host D. To spread actively from host to another host 8. Etiology refers to the study of: A. Viral infection B. The cause of disease C. The portal of exit D. The results seen after a disease occurs E. None of the above 9. Among the bacterial virulence factors, which among the following can participate in the formation and development of periodontal disease: A. Flagella B. Sialic acid C. Endotoxin, adhesins and collagenase D. Bacterial hemolysin 10. A nosocomial infection is: A. Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization B. Acquired during the course of hospitalization C. Always caused by medical personnel D. Only a result of surgery E. Always caused by pathogenic bacteria 11. Which does NOT contribute to the development of nosocomial infections? A. The presence of compromised patients in hospitals B. The presence of pathogens in hospitals C. The use of in-dwelling medical devices D. Treatments utilizing reusable instruments E. The use of effective infection control measures 12. The time between the initial infection and the onset of symptoms is called: A. Disease period B. Illness period C. Prodromal period D. Decline period E. Incubation period 13. During which stage of a clinical infection does the patient experience vague feelings of discomfort, such as head and muscle aches, fatigue, upset stomach and general malaise? A. Terminal phase B. Incubation period C. Convalescent period D. Prodromal stage E. Period of invasion 14. The period during which major disease occurs is called: A. Period of illness B. Period of decline C. Prodromal period D. Period of convalescence E. Major period 15. Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? A. A sick person B. A healthy person C. A sick animal D. A hospital E. All of the above can be reservoirs of infection 16. Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in the symptoms A. Are changes felt by the patient B. Are changes observed by the physician C. Are specific for a particular disease D. Always occur as part of a syndrome E. None of the above 17. The ID50 is a A. Measure of pathogenicity B. Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population C. Dose that will kill some of the test population D. Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population E. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population 18. Which of the following does NOT contribute to a pathogen’s invasiveness? A. Toxins B. Capsule C. Cell wall D. Hyaluronidase E. Ligands 19. Which of the following statements is false? A. Leukocidins destroy neutrophils B. Hemolysins lyse red blood cells C. Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells D. Kinase destroy fibrin clots E. Coagulase destroys blood clots 20. Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally false? A. They are more potent than endotoxins B. They are composed of proteins C. They are not destroyed by heat D. They have specific methods of action E. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria 21. Endotoxins are A. Associated with gram-positive bacteria B. Specific in their method of action C. Part of the gram-negative cell wall D. Excreted from the cell E. A-B toxins 22. Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin? A. A-B toxin B. Hemolysin C. Leukocidin D. Streptolycin O E. Streptolysin S 23. Which of the following is NOT used by bacteria for attachment to a host? A. M protein B. Ligands C. Fimbriae D. Capsules E. A-B toxin 24. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the virulence of a pathogen? A. Number of microorganisms that gain access to a host B. Cell wall C. Toxins D. Enzymes E. All of the above contribute to a pathogen’s virulence 25. Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages: A. Give new gene sequences to the host bacteria B. Produce toxins C. Carry plasmids D. Kill the bacteria causing release of endotoxins E. Kill human cells 26. Which is a method of avoiding phagocytosis? A. Producing fimbriae B. Inducing endocytosis C. Producing toxins D. Inducing Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) E. Producing iron-binding proteins 27. Viruses: A. Are in general 300-500nm in size B. Contain either RNA or DNA as the genetic material C. Are termed naked if the envelope does not contain spikes D. Exhibit mainly icosahedral or a helical symmetry E. Are able to replicate on serum-containing media 28. Viruses may cause human diseases by: A. Direct invasion B. Immune mechanisms C. Production of toxins D. Immunosuppression E. Inducing malignant transformation 29. Viruses replicate by which of the following means? A. Binary fission B. Extracellularly C. Within a host cell D. Cell division 30. Which of the following reasons do viruses need to reproduce in a host cell? A. They have no DNA or RNA B. They have no cytoplasm C. They lack a nuclear membrane D. They possess multiple chromosomes surrounded by a nuclear membrane 31. The viral nucleic acid core is best protected by which of the following? A. Capsid B. Genome C. Peplomer D. Envelope 32. A virus is called a virion when, EXCEPT: A. It is infectious B. It is being replicated C. It is in extracellular phase 33. The intracellular stage of a viral infection is characterized by: 1. The absence of a demonstrable virion 2. An increase in number of viral particles 3. Attainment of eclipse phase 4. Nucleocapsid A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,1,4 34. Susceptibility of prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells to virus infection involves: A. Reception for its envelope B. Random encounters on the virus 35. Early protein synthesis occurring during viral replication makes: A. Protomers & glycoprotein spikes B. Enymes for viral replication C. Enzymes for capsid and envelope synthesis 36. In lysogeny: A. A bacteriophage transfers bacterial DNA B. Bacteria take up double stranded DNA from the environment C. DNA degrading enzymes in the extracellular medium would stop the process D. A bacteriophage genome is integrated into the bacterial genome 37. In transduction, bacteria acquire new genetic information in the form of: A. Bacterial genes B. Mutation C. “naked” DNA D. R-factors E. Viral genes 38. Which of the following is responsible for the pleomorphism of some viruses? A. Capsid B. Envelope C. Spikes 39. Which is not true of virus capsids? A. They surround and protect viral nucleic acid B. Always icosahedral in shape C. Remain outside of host bacterial cells while the nucleic acid is injected into the bacterial cell D. Enters host animal cell together with the nucleic acid E. Made up of protein subunits called capsomeres 40. Which of the following viruses is the prevalent cause of most oral infections? A. Adenoviruses B. Papillomaviruses C. Herpesviruses D. Poxviruses 41. Which of the following modes of transmission makes the hepadnaviruses significant in dentistry? A. Airborne/inhalation B. Stool specimen C. Transfer from inanimate objects D. Saliva and blood 42. Which of the following infectious elements does not contain either DNA or RNA, has a long incubation period, and can be transmitted by contaminated food? A. Prions B. Viroids C. Orthomyxoviruses D. Spores 43. Infection control in dentistry is very essential because: A. Dental team gets exposed to blood, aerosol and work with needles and sharp instruments B. Improperly sterilized instruments still harbor microorganisms which can cause cross infection C. Both of the above D. None of the above 44. Aseptic technique: A. Eliminates all the microorganisms in the surgical site B. Is an important measure to protect the patient from developing a surgical wound infection C. Includes dental practices that prevent contamination D. Is the responsibility of the entire surgical and or clinical team 45. Utility gloves are utilized in a dental office for which of the following tasks? A. Setting up the operatory B. Disposing of sharps C. Handling instruments while preparing for sterilization D. Disinfecting the operatory following the patient treatment E. Both C and D 46. High level disinfectant includes: A. Glutaraldehyde and ethylene oxide B. Formaldehyde, chlorine compounds, complex phenols, alcohols, iodophors C. Quarternary ammonium compounds, simple phenols D. Glutaraldehyde, formaldehyde, iodophors, chlorine 47. Sterilization involves the use of a physical or chemical procedure to: A. Remove visible soil from surgical instruments B. Destroy nonpathogenic organisms C. Destroy all forms of microbial life including bacterial spores D. Destroy all forms of microbial life except bacterial spores 48. Ethylene oxide is a highly toxic agent which destroys microorganisms by a process called: A. Cavitation B. Oxidation C. Osmosis D. Alkylation 49. Which of the following chemical agents does not approach the ideal germicidal agent? A. Alcohol B. Stabilized hydrogen peroxide C. Glutaraldehyde D. Ethylene oxide gad E. Chlorhexidine 50. The essential parameters of steam sterilization are: A. Securely wrapped sterile pouches B. Time, temperature, saturated steam and pressure C. Chemical and biological indicators D. Both A and C 51. Mouth mirrors, ultrasonic handpieces, cheek retractors, impression trays are all: A. Critical instruments B. Semi-critical instruments C. None-critical instruments D. None of the above 52. If an antimicrobial agent is bacteriostatic: A. It can completely kill the bacterial occurence with its use B. The bacteria will resume growth upon removal of agent C. There will be no viable organisms remaining after its use D. It will kill only spores E. It will kill bacteria and inhibit fungi 53. What term is defined as a chemical agent that is applied directly to body surfaces, wounds and surgical incisions to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens? A. Bacteriostatic agent B. Fungicide C. Disinfectant D. Sanitizer E. Antiseptic 54. Which of the following does NOT affect the action of antimicrobial agents? A. Time B. Temperature and pH of the environment C. Pressure of water D. Number of microorganisms present E. Mode of action of the agent 55. Microbes spreading from a patient’s mouth to your hand and then to another patient’s mouth represents what type of spread from patient to patient? A. Indirect contact B. Direct contact C. Droplet infection D. Airborne infection 56. Physical and chemical antimicrobial agents can target all BUT which of the following? A. Protein function B. Cell membrane integrity C. DNA replication D. Capsule formation E. Cell wall synthesis 57. Microbial death is defined as which of the following? A. The permanent termination of an organism’s vital processes B. The permanent loss of reproductive capability, even under optimum growth conditions C. The loss of movement in a motile microbe D. Exposure to a chemical or physical agent for a period of time until a cell structure becomes dysfunctional E. Irreversible damage to a cell 58. Which of the following terms is defines as the destruction of vegetative pathogens but not bacterial endospores? A. Disinfection B. Antisepsis C. Sterilization D. Degerming E. Microbicidal 59. What is the purpose of surface barriers? A. To prevent cross contamination B. To protect surfaces from dental materials C. To cover the instruments D. To keep water from touching the unit 60. Antibodies are best defines as: A. The active ingredients in antimicrobial handwashing products B. Microbes that can enter the body and stimulate an immune response C. Different types of chemicals such as penicillin that can kill microbes D. Proteins made in the body that bind to and destroy microbes and other antigens 61. Which of the following best describes the difference in the way B cells and cytotoxic T cells respond to invaders? A. B cells confers active immunity, cytotoxic confer passive immunity B. B cell kill viruses directly, cytotoxic T cells kills virus infected cells C. B cells remember pathogens and produce antibodies, cytotoxic T cells directly kill cells that are infected with pathogens D. T cell remember pathogens and produce antibodies; cytotoxic B cells directly kill cells that are infected with pathogens 62. The first immunoglobulin class produced in a primary response is: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE 63. The most abundant immunoglobulin class present in serum is: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE 64. The immunoglobulin which serves as an important effector function at mucous membrane surface is: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE 65. Allergy is an exaggerated immune response that is manifested by what reaction? A. Immunopathology B. Hypersensitivity C. Inflammation D. Fever E. Autoimmunity 66. Which of the following mediates Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? A. IgE B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD 67. Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies? A. Agglutination B. Opsonization C. Complement activation D. DTH E. Neutralization MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer that will complete the given statements. SHADE the letter of your choice at the provided SCANTRON SHEET. Erasures and superimpositions can VOID the final answer. For questions 1-4, please refer to the given illustration: 68. In figure 1, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall? A. a B. b C. both a and b D. neither a nor b E. can't tell 69. In figure 1, which diagram of a cell wall is considered as a toxic cell wall? A. a B. b C. both a and b D. neither a nor b E. can't tell 70. In figure 1, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids? A. a B. b C. both a and b D. neither a nor b E. can't tell 71. In figure 1, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins? A. a B. b C. c D. neither a nor b E. can't tell 72. The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens? A. Capsule B. Cell wall C. Flagella D. Ribosomes 73. Bacteria cells ____________________. A. are usually larger than typical eukaryotic cells B. do not possess a cell wall C. do not have a membrane around their genetic material D. usually produce by large cell fragmenting into many small cells E. All of the above 74. Proton motive force on the membrane is apparently utilized during the process of: A. flagellar rotation B. lactose transport C. ATP synthesis D. All of the above E. None of the above 75. L-forms of bacteria ___________________. A. are susceptible to osmotic pressure changes even if they develop cell walls B. are responsible for infectious diseases in which no microorganism can be cultivated C. can survive but do not replicate 76. Lysozymes __________. A. are considered bacteriostatic B. are considered bactericidal C. works on small ribosomal subunit of the 50s ribosome D. works on the ribosomal 30s subunit E. Effective in mycoplasma bacteria 77. Penicillin works as an antibiotic by _____________________. A. blocking cytoplasmic membrane synthesis B. preventing cross-bridges from forming in peptidoglycan C. breaking the bonds that link N-acetylmuramic acid to N-acetylglucosamine D. destroying the cell membrane E. destroys the flagellar anchorage 78. Which of the following microorganisms characterized to produce pseudohyphae? A. Clostridium botulinum B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Candida albicans D. Vibrio cholerae E. Staphylococcus epidermidis 79. Because cell membranes of naturally-occurring cell-wall deficient bacteria have sterols, they ______________. A. are resistant to hydrolysis B. are difficult to cultivate and identify in the laboratory C. can cause chronic infection 80. Most bacteria increase in number through the process of: A. Binary fission B. Budding C. Sporulation D. Mitosis 81. Which structure helps protect bacteria from a hypotonic environment? A. Cell wall B. Plasma Membrane C. Plasmid D. Fimbriae E. Peptidoglycan layer 82. In what aspect is bacterial cell membrane is comparative to mitochondria of eukaryotes? A. The presence of RNA B. It intracellularly stores ATP C. It is the main site for ATP production 83. Which of the following characteristics is TRUE for Gram-negative bacteria? A. Mostly motile, with wide periplasmic space and pili, endospore forming B. Mostly nonmotile, endospore-forming, with glycocalyx and pili C. Mostly motile, with fimbriae, pili and periplasmic space 84. Gram-negative cell walls, when acted upon by lysozymes results only to dissolution of peptidoglycan layer because: A. The periplasmic space is impermeable to enzymes B. The phospholipid layer protects it from hydrolytic enzymes C. The peptidoglycan is closely adherent to lipoprotein 85. Microorganisms with fimbriae are more invasive because they can: A. Pass through body's protective barrier because of their inherent motility B. Prevent themselves from being washed away by flow of body fluids C. Easily multiply within the host since they have the fertility factor 86. Which of the following chemical substances contribute to the unique characteristic of acid-fast bacteria? A. N-acetylglucosamine B. Peptidoglycan C. Lipoteichoic acid D. Endotoxin E. Mycolic acid 87. Which of the following are considered as "colonization factors?" A. Integrins B. Receptors C. Adhesins D. Fimbriae E. Ligands 88. Both fimbriae and capsules of bacterial cells may be involved in: A. Trapping and sorting nutrients on the cell surface B. Gliding motility C. Adherence to surface or tissue D. Genetic exchange process E. All of the above 89. Characteristics of bacterial capsule include: A. All bacteria have one B. It is composed of peptidoglycan C. It is an important mechanism for protecting a bacteria against ingestion of PMNs D. It is what causes the gram stain reaction 90. Biofilm development involves: A. Selection and adaptation by bacteria already present in the intraoral environment B. Maturation of Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacilli in a low-pH environment C. Decrease in acid production D. Both A and B 91. In medical situations, biofilms and slime layers may protect the organisms within it from: A. Attack by phagocytes B. Interaction with antibodies and other immune components of the host C. Diffusion of antibiotics to the site of bacterial infection and growth D. All of the above E. None of the above 92. Lipid A is also known as: A. Endotoxin B. Teichoic acid C. Pilin D. Mycolic acid E. Lipopolysaccharide 93. Which of the following statement regarding endospores is TRUE? A. Endospores are from reproduction B. Endospores allow a cell to survive adverse environmental changes C. Endospores are extremely heat sensitive D. A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing E. A cell can produce many endospores 94. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of endospores? A. Bacillus and Clostridium are genera that produce them B. Sporulation results in the degradation of the vegetative cell DNA C. Endospores are resistant to boiling and chemicals D. Endospores are reproductive structures E. Endospores are dorman 95. The spore differs from an actively replicating bacterium in that the spore: A. Is produced during a process involving asymmetric division B. Is able to withstand more extreme conditions than the replicating cell C. Is metabolically active D. All of the above 96. Endospores are a problem in sterilizing instruments and equipment because: A. They are resistant to antibiotics B. They are resistant to physical and chemical agents C. Most pathogenic bacteria are endospore-formers 97. LPS-endotoxin: A. Its lipidic part is responsible for its toxic effect B. Its protein part is responsible for antigenic properties C. Is a compound of the microcapsule D. Is liberated from Gram-positive bacteria after their destruction 98. Plasmids are ___________________________. A. Extrachromosomal self-replicating DNA molecules B. Non-extrachromosomal DNA molecules C. Chromosomal DNA molecules D. Extrachromosomal RNA molecules 99. Which of the following is NOT involved in the process of bacterial conjugation? A. Bacteriophage B. F+ cells C. F- cells D. Plasmids E. Sex pili 100. What role do adhesins play in disease formation? A. They allow chemotaxis B. They allow cell to cell transfer of DNA C. They form the glycocalyx D. They allow adhesion to specific tissue E. They make up the flagellar filament 101. Chemotaxis is ___________________________. A. the use of inorganic chemical as an energy source B. bacterial growth in response to the addition of a specific growth factor from a culture medium C. an increase in the internal osmolarity of a cell D. the form of energy that powers the bacterial flagellum E. movement by a bacterium in response to a chemical stimulus 102. The term microbiota refers to which of the following? A. All microorganisms of the same species B. All of the microorganisms involved in a symbiotic relationship C. All microorganisms in a certain region of the human body D. All microorganisms in a certain geographic region 103. Commensalistic microorganisms on the mucous membrane _________________________. A. support the resistance to the pathogens by competing for adhesion to the epithelial cells and by production of bacterial toxins and certain metabolic products B. inhibit the plasmid transfer among pathogens C. consume oxygen and nutrition necessary for pathogens D. decrease the resistance of pathogens to antibiotics and factors of immunity 104. A quorum sensing system ______________________. A. detects a signal from the external environment B. senses a compound produced by the bacterium itself C. consists of a sensor component that phosphorylates a regulatory protein D. controls the activity of ribosomes directly 105. Which of the following statements about autoinducers is INCORRECT? A. They bind directly to DNA to activate transcription B. They can activate the cell that secreted them C. N-acylated homoserine lactones are autoinducers in gram-negative cells D. Autoinducers may stimulate the production of virulence factors 106. Which of the following surfaces acts as a habitat for the largest number of microorganisms that otherwise might be removed by the flow of saliva or masticatory forces? A. Lips B. Cheeks C. Tongue D. Palate 107. Which of the following oral surfaces is non-shedding and facilitates microbial colonization? A. Oral mucosa B. Vestibular surface C. Enamel surface D. Palate 108. Bacteria belonging to the genus Mycoplasma are primarily characterized by which of the following traits? A. The fusiform shape of the cell B. Their very large size C. Their relative fast growth D. The absence of a cell wall 109. The incidence of C. albicans is not proportional to an increase in which of the following? A. Age B. Medication C. Wearing a dental prosthesis D. Salivary flow 110. S. mutans uses sucrose to produce which of the following glucose-containing polymers? A. Water-insoluble and soluble glucans B. Peptidoglycan C. Levan D. Inulin 111. Which of the following characteristics DO NOT contribute to the cariogenicity of Streptococcus mutans? A. Rapid sugar transport B. Low tolerance of external acidic pH C. Extracellular polysaccharide production from sucrose D. Intracellular polysaccharide production 112. The extracellular polysaccharide are mainly composed of __________ which is insoluble to hypotonic saliva. A. Glucans B. Mannans C. Fructans D. Cellulose E. Lipids 113. Autoinducers that are used by the Streptococcus mutans to rapidly synthesize extracellular polysaccharides are: A. Sucrose and Fructose B. Glucosyltransferase C. Fructosyltranseferase D. Starch E. Both B and 114. A particular interest in oral microbiology is the role of microorganisms in the two major dental diseases: __________ and periodontal disease. A. Human teeth B. Dental caries C. Dental fluorosis D. Acid erosion 115. During a dental examination, the clinician discovers an area of early enamel demineralization on the lower left first molar tooth. Which one of the following is the most likely presentation of this area? A. Cavity B. Periapical abscess C. Reversible pulpitis D. Root caries E. White spot lesion 116. Plaque biofilm microbiota produces enzymes. Some of the enzymes produced by biofilm organisms enhance tissue destruction by activating the host immune response. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false D. The first statement is false, and the second statement is true. 117. There are many different types of bacteria normally present in the oral cavity. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be associated with the onset of dental caries? A. Actinomyces B. Bacteroides C. Lactobacillus D. Staphylococcus E. Streptococcus 118. An elderly edentulous patient has recently had a set of full acrylic dentures provided. He returns to the surgery 6 weeks later complaining of a white patch on his palate, which is sore when touched. Which one of the following microorganisms is most likely to have caused this condition? A. Actinomyces B. Bacillus fusiformis C. Candida albicans D. Herpes simplex E. Staphylococcus aureus 119. Various viral infections are of relevance to the dental team, including those that cause diseases affecting the head and neck region. Which one of the following viruses cause ‘cold sores’? A. Epstein-Barr B. Herpes Simplex C. Herpes varicella D. Herpes zoster E. Paramyxovirus 120. Which of the following characteristics is common to the cell walls of both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria? A. Both contain mycolic acid lipids B. Both contain toxic lipopolysaccharide layers C. Both have periplasmic spaces D. Both have peptidoglycan 121. The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacteria components is most likely to contain useful antigens? A. Ribosomes B. Cell wall C. Capsule D. Flagella 122. Gram negative cell walls, when acted upon a lysozyme results only to dissolution of peptidoglycan layer because: A. The periplasmic space is impermeable to enzymes B. The phospholipid layer protects it from hydrophobic enzymes C. The peptidoglycan layer is closely adherent to lipoprotein 123. Which of the following are likely causes for resistance to antibiotics in Mycobacteria that cause tuberculosis? A. Deletion of the gene encoding an enzyme that activates the antibiotics into a lethal form B. Antibiotic resistance of enzymes that link together the mycolic acid waxy outer wall of these bacteria C. Increased degradation of enzymes that break down antibiotics D. Decreased permeability of the cellular inner membrane to the antibiotics E. All of the above 124. The bacterial cytoplasmic membrane functions in: A. Transport B. Gas storage C. Osmotic protection D. Both A and C E. Phagocytosis 125. Which of the following is NOT true of the gram negative cell and of a eubacterium? A. Contains a periplasmic space B. Contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan C. Contains lipopolysaccharide D. Contains lipid E. Gives the cell its shape 126. Which structure of bacteria is used for its cell-to-cell conjugation? A. Slime layer B. Glycocalyx C. Pilus D. Flagellum E. Capsule 127. Peptidoglycan does NOT contain the structure: A. Phospholipid B. N-acetylmuramic acid C. N-acetyl glucosamine D. Amino acids E. Contains all of the above 128. All of the following can be components of the bacterial cytoplasm EXCEPT: A. Gas vesicles B. Phosphate storage granules C. Ribosomes D. Teichoic acid E. Chromosome 129. Penicillin works as an antibiotic by: A. Blocking cytoplasmic membrane synthesis B. Preventing cross-bridges from forming in peptidoglycan C. Breaking the bonds that link N-acetylmuramic acid to N-acetylglucosamine D. Poisoning the flagellum E. None of the above 130. Microorganisms with fimbriae are more invasive because they can: A. Pass through body’s protective barrier because of their inherent motility B. Prevent themselves from being washed away by flow of body fluids C. Easily multiply within the host since they have the fertility factor 131. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasite because: A. They depend on other living things for their own growth B. They do not have their own metabolic machinery necessary for the biosynthesis of viral materials C. They lack enzymes necessary for biochemical reactions even if they have both RNA and DNA 132. Both fimbriae and capsules of bacterial cells may be involved in: A. Trapping and storing nutrients on the cell surface B. Gliding motility C. Adherence to a surface or tissue D. Genetic exchange processes E. All of the above 133. In medical situations, biofilms and slime layers may protect the organisms within the slime layer from: A. Attack by phagocytes B. Interaction with antibodies and other immune components of the host C. Diffusion of antibiotics to the site of bacterial infection and growth D. All of the above E. None of the above 134. What structure is responsible for transport of metabolites in and out of Gram-negative organisms? A. Porins B. Sex pili C. Periplasmatic space D. Peptide bridge 135. Which of the following is not an external structure of bacterial cell wall? A. Flagellum B. Nuclear membrane C. Glycocalyx D. Fimbriae 136. The bacterial glycocalyx contributes to which of the following functions? A. Motility B. Reproduction C. Adherence D. Easy identification in the laboratory 137. Bacterial spores develop as a result of which of the following environmental conditions? A. Exposure to very high heat B. High levels of carbon and nitrogen C. Cell wall defects D. Scarcity of nutrients 138. Of the following, which is NOT a function of the cytoplasmic membrane? A. Active transport in and out the cell B. Synthesis of cell wall precursors C. Mediates the adhesion of bacteria to human tissue D. Secretion of enzymes and toxins 139. Of the following, which type of genetic transfer involves a mating process between a donor and a recipient cell? A. Transposition B. Transformation C. Transduction D. Conjugation 140. Plasmid-coded bacterial attributes do NOT include which of the following? A. Occur in Gram-positive organisms only B. Conferring antibiotic resistance C. Exotoxin production D. Resistance to disinfectants 141. Fungal hyphae that lack cross-walls, so have many nuclei, in the same cytoplasm are called: A. Septate B. Coenocytic C. Multinucleate D. Plasmodia E. Myxotic 142. Which of the following statements about yeast are true? 1. Yeasts are fungi* 2. Yeasts can form pseudohyphae* 3. Some yeasts reproduce asexually by budding* 4. Yeasts are facultatively anaerobic* 5. All yeasts are pathogenic* 6. All yeasts are dimorphic* A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,5,6 C. 2,3,4,5 D. 1,3,5,6 E. 2,3,4 ORAL PHYSIOLOGY ( POST-TEST ) MULTIPLE CHOICE: 1. Frequency of swallowing while eating A. 50 CYCLES B. 560 CYCLES C. 146 CYCLES D. NONE OF THE ABOVE 2. Absence Of Swallowing Due To Paralysis Of Muscles A. Odynophagia B. Aphagia C. Dysphagia D. None Of The Above 3. Normal Range For Overjet A. 5-6 Mm B. 1-3 Mm C. 3-5mm D. None Of The Above 4. Geometric Figure Of The Mesial And Distal Surfaces Of Anterior Teeth A. Rhomboid B. Triangular C. Square D. None Of The Above 5. Bolus Is Placed On The Dorsum Of The Tongue And Pressed On The Hard Palate While The Tip Of The Tongue Rests On The Incisors A. Esophageal Stage B. Pharyngeal Stage C. Oral Stage D. Anal Stage 6. When No Space Exist, The Erupting First Permanent Molar Is Not Able To Close Spaces. In These Cases When The Primary Molars Exfoliate, The Permanent Molars Migrate Mesially To Use The Incisal Liability A. True B. False 7. Premolars Tooth Germs Are Finally Positioned Between The Divergent Roots Of Deciduous Molars. A. True B. False 8. Formed By Lips A. M B. TH C. C. F D. None Of The Above 9. The Maxillary Canines Should Also Be Occluding In The Embrasure Between The Mandibular Canine And The First Premolar A. Class III B. Class I C. Class II 10. The Enamel Organ Forms The _________Which Moulds The Shape Of The Roots And Initiates Radicular Dentin Formation. A. ‘Hertwig’s Epithelial Root Sheath’ B. Dental Papilla C. Sharpey’s Fibers D. None Of The Above 11. As You Continue To Open Your Mouth Wider, You Will Begin To Feel The Head Of The Condyle Move Forward. This Forward Movement Is Called _________ And It Is A Normal Part Of Opening The Jaw Wide. A. Translation B. Rotation C. Retrusion D. None Of The Above 12. When Food Is Initially Introduced In The Mouth, The Amount Of Lateral Movement Is Lesser Than And Becomes Greater As Food Broken Down. A. True B. False 13. Protects The Gingival Margins By Deflecting Food Particles Away From The Margins During Mastication A. Embrasure B. Interdental Space C. Cervical Ridges D. None Of The Above 14. The Condyle Is Approximately Centered In The Glenoid Fossa, More Specifically, The Condyle Is Slightly Closer To The Top And The Back Of The Glenoid Fossa. A. Centric Occlusion B. Open Bite C. Centric Relation D. Eccentric Bite 15. Exchange Of Air Between The Blood And The Environment A. Internal Respiration B. External Respiration C. Expiration D. None Of The Above 16. Part Of The Mandible , And Is Covered In A Layer Of Cartilage Which Allows For Smooth Motion Within The Joint Assembly. A. Coronoid Process B. Condylar Process C. Glenoid Fossa D. None Of The Above 17. There Is Normally A Distance Of 1-1.5 Mm Between Enamel And Alveolar Bone A. True B. False 18. Process By Which Sound Is Intensified And Amplified A. Resonance B. Respiration C. Phonation D. None Of The Above 19. The Articular Disc Remains Between The Coronoid And The Fossa And Acts As A Shock Absorber. A. True B. False 20. The Maxillary Process Gives Rise To The Lateral Portions Of The Upper Lip And Cheeks, Chin, The Maxilla, And The Secondary Palate With Its Associated Gingiva. A. True B. False 21. It Occurs When A Volume Of Air Is Forced From The Lungs By The Diaphragm Through The Larynx And The Oral Cavity A. Respiration B. Speech C. Deglutition D. None Of The Above 22. Triangularly Shaped Spaces Between Teeth And Are Normally Filled Up By Gingiva A. Proximal Contact Area B. Interdental Spaces C. Embrasures D. None Of The Above 23. Chronic Allergies May Lead To Mouth Breathing A. True B. False 24. A Papilla On Each Side Of The Frenulum Of The Tongue Marking The Opening Of The Submandibular Duct. A. Sublingual Caruncle B. Labial Frenum C. Lingual Frenum D. Submandibular Duct 25. The Normal Curvature Of The CEJ To The Crest Of Contour A. 1mm B. 1.5 Mm C. .5 Mm D. None Of The Above 26. In The Opening Phase Of Mastication, The Mandible Drops Down To A Point Where The Incisal Edges Of The Teeth Are About 9-12 Mm Apart. A. True B. False 27. The Development Of Enamel Involves Two Processes: Organic Matrix Formation And ________. A. Resorption B. Cementogenesis C. Mineralization D. None Of The Above 28. It Helps To Stabilize Dental Arches By The Combined Anchorage Of All The Teeth In The Dental Arch A. Proximal Contact Area B. Interdental Spaces C. Embrasures D. None Of The Above 29. Maximum Biting Force For Women A. 60-70 Lbs B. 79-99 Lbs C. 150-200 Lbs D. None Of The Above 30. It Is A Rhythmic And Well Controlled Separation Of The Maxillary And Mandibular Teeth. It Has A Tear Shaped Movement Pattern. A. Deglutition B. Chewing Strokes C. Respiration D. None Of The Above 31. "The Mesiobuccal Cusp Of The Maxillary First Molar Occludes With The Mesiobuccal Groove Of The Mandibular First Molar A. Class I B. Class III C. C. Class II D. None Of The Above 32. The Surface Of Ameloblasts Facing The Enamel Is Not Smooth But Possesses Projections Which Incorporates Into The Enamel Matrix Termed As .________. A. Enamel Tufts B. Tome’s Processes C. Enamel Lamella D. . None Of The Above 33. Tongue And Hard Palate A. V B. F C. D D. G 34. Gingival Tissue May Be Driven Apically Resulting To Gum Recession When There Is Inadequate Cervical Ridges A. True B. False 35. The Curvature Of The Cervical Line Of Most Teeth Will Be Approximately 1mm Less Distally Than Mesially. A. True B. False 36. It Is A Rhythmic And Well Controlled Separation Of The Maxillary And Mandibular Teeth. It Has A Tear Shaped Movement Pattern. E. Deglutition F. Chewing Strokes G. Respiration H. None Of The Above 37. The Lower Canine Teeth Are Sometimes Called Eyeteeth. A. True B. False 38. It Gives Greatest Strength To Resist Attrition And Abrasion A. Cementum B. Dentin C. Enamel D. Bone 39. It Is The Breaking Up Of Sounds And Modification Of Sound From The Lungs A. Speech B. Respiration C. Articulation D. Phonation 40. The Difference In The Space Needed For The Accommodation Of The Incisors And The Space Available For This Is Called A. Leeway Space B. Incisal Liability C. Primate Space D. None Of The Above 41. Tome’s Process Has Disintegrated And Causes Affected Tubules To Appear Black. A. Sharpey’s Fibers B. Dentinal Tubules C. Dead Tracts D. None Of The Above 42. The Soft Palate Touches The Posterior Pharyngeal Wall Sealing Off The Nasal Passages During Swallowing A. Oral Stage B. Esophageal Stage C. Pharyngeal Stage D. None Of The Above 43. The Muscle That Is Enclosed By The Palatoglossal Arch A. Tonsils B. Palatoglossus C. Palatopharyngeus D. None Of The Above 44. Posterior Portion Of The Tongue To The Soft Palate A. K B. TH C. C. V D. None Of The Above 45. Positive Contact Relation Mesially And Distally Of One Tooth With Another While They Are In Their Respective Position In The Dental Arch A. Embrasures B. Interdental Space C. Proximal Contact Area D. None Of Te Above 46. It Supports The Tooth Enamel And Absorbs The Pressure Of Eating . A. Pulp B. Cementum C. Dentin D. None Of The Above 47. It Is Characterized By The Appearance Of A Tooth Bud Without A Clear Arrangement Of Cells At 6 Weeks Of Life A. Growth Spurt B. Bud Stage C. Cap Stage D. Bad Stage 48. Chronic Allergies May Lead To Mouth Breathing C. True D. False 49. Periodontal Fiber Extends Obliquely From The Cementum Beneath The Junctional Epithelium To The Alveolar Crest A. Alveolar Crest Fibers B. Oblique Fibers C. Horizontal Fibers D. Transeptal Fibers 50. Part Of The Gingival Epithelium That Is Composed Of Thin, Non-Keratinized, Stratified Squamous Epithelium A. Gingival Epithelium B. Junctional Epithelium C. Oral Epithelium D. Sulcular Epithelium 51. The Terminal Apical Area Of Cementum Where It Joins The Internal Root Canal Dentin Is Known As A. Dentinoenamel Junction B. Cementodentinal Junction C. Dentinal Tubules D. Cementicles 52. These Are Thin Plates Of Bone That Separate The Roots Of Multi-Rooted Teeth A. Interdental Septa B. Intradental Septa C. Interradicular Septa D. Transeptal Septa 53. It Refers To A Prominent Thickening Of Cementum A. Ankylosis B. Dens Invaginatus C. Ementicles D. Hypercementosis 54. Additional Fine Fibres That Support The Principal Fibres System And Are Considered To Be Part Of The Indifferent Fibre Plexus. A. Alveologingival Fibers B. Dentogingival Fibers C. Oxytalan Fibers D. Sharpey’s Fibers 55. Periodontal Fiber That Is Embedded Into The Cementum Of The Adjacent Tooth And Extends Interproximally Over The Alveolar Crest. A. Alveolar Crest Fibers B. Oblique Fibers C. Horizontal Fibers D. Transeptal Fibers 56. It Is Thin Plate Of Bone Lining The Alveolus, Attached To The Cementum By The Periodontal Ligament A. Alveolar Bone Proper B. Lamina Propria C. Lamina Dura D. Spongiosa 57. Part Of The Gingival Epithelium That Is Composed Of Keratinized, Stratified, Squamous Epithelium A. Gingival Epithelium B. Junctional Epithelium C. Oral Epithelium D. Sulcular Epithelium 58. During The Initial Stages Of Root Formation, The Outermost Cells Of The Follicle Near The Forming Root Differentiate Into ________. A. Ameloblast B. Cementoblast C. Fibroblast D. Osteoblast 59. The Part Of Periodontal Ligament Fibers Embedded In The Cementum And Alveolar Bone A. `Alveologingival Fibers B. Dentogingival Fibers C. Oxytalan Fibers D. Sharpey’s Fiber 60. These Are Plates Of Bone That Separates One Socket From The Other A. Cribriform Plate B. Interdental Septa C. Coronoid Process D. Interradicular Septa 61. Part Of The Gingival Epithelium That Is Composed Of Collar Like Band Of Stratified, Non Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium A. Gingival Epithelium B. Junctional Epithelium C. Oral Epithelium D. Sulcular Epithelium 62. Periodontal Fiber That Extends At A Right Angle From The Long Axis Of The Tooth From Cementum To The Alveolar Bon A. Apical Fiber B. Alveolar Crest Fibers C. Oblique Fibers D. Horizontal Fibers 63. It Is The Soft Tissue Wall Of The Gingival Sulcus A. Attached Gingiva B. Marginal Gingiva C. Lamina Propria D. Tongue 64. All Muscles Of Mastication Are Inserted Into The A. Hyoid Bone B. Mandible C. Maxilla D. Zygomatic Bone 65. One Of The Muscles Of Mastication That Originates From The Floor Of Temporal Fossa And Temporal Fascia A. Masseter B. Medial Pterygoid C. Lateral Pterygoid D. Temporalis 66. One Of The Muscles Of Mastication That Originates From The Infratemporal Surface Of Greater Wing Of Sphenoid A. Masseter B. Medial Pterygoid C. Lateral Pterygoid D. Temporalis 67. One Of The Muscles Of Mastication That Is Inserted Into The Pterygoid Tuberosity A. Masseter B. Medial Pterygoid C. Lateral Pterygoid D. Temporalis 68. One Of The Muscles Of Mastication That Is Inserted Into The Angle Of The Mandible And Posterior Part Of Ramus A. Masseter B. Medial Pterygoid C. Lateral Pterygoid D. Temporalis 69. All Statements Are True Regarding The Characteristics Of A Healthy Gingival, EXCEPT A. Color – Coral Pink B. Size – 0-2mm For Marginal Gingiva / 0-9mm For Attached Gingiva C. Consistency – Firm & Resilient D. Surface Texture – Absence Of Stippling ORAL DIAGNOSIS Instructions: Multiple Choice: Choose The Best Answer. Shade The Box Corresponding To The Letter Of Your Choice. Use Pencil No. 2. 1. This Patient Complained Of Pain In The Floor Of His Mouth Particularly Around Meal Time. You Noted Swelling, Which Was Firm To Palpation, And Decided To Take An Occlusal Radiograph. Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of The Radiopacity Observed Radiographically? A. Avulsed Tooth B. Condensing Osteitis C. Osseous Choristoma D. Sialolith E. Torus Mandibularis 2. The Tooth Observed In The PA Radiograph Is Non-Vital. The Apical Portion Of The Tooth Has Defined Radiolucency Area With Radiopaque Line, Which Of The Following Is The Diagnosis Of The Periapical Radiolucency? A. Periapical Granuloma B. Bperiapical Abscess C. Periapical Cyst D. Idiopathisosteosclerosis 3. The Tooth Observed In The PA Radiograph Is Non-Vital. Which Of The Following Is The The Most Likely Diagnosis Of The Mixed Radiolucent And Radiopaque Lesion Observed At The Apices Of The Molar Tooth? A. Periapical Granuloma B. Periapical Abscess C. Periapical Cyst D. Idiopathic Osteosclerosis E. Rarefying And Condensing Osteitis 4. The Asymptomatic Mixed Radiolucent Radiopaque Lesion Seen In The Radiograph Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Odontoma B. Osteoma C. Periapicalcemento-Osseous Dysplasia D. Ddental Granuloma E. Sialolith 5. This Solitary Asymptomatic White Lesion Was Discovered On Routine Examination Of A 60 Y.O. Man Who Smoked And Used Alcohol Heavily. Which Of The Following Is The Best Clinical Diagnosis Of This Adherent White Lesion? A. Lichen Planus B. Pseudomembranous Candidiasis C. Leukoedema D. Leukoplakia E. Frictional Keratosis 6. The Asymptomatic Mixed Radiolucent-Radiopaque Lesion Observed At The Apices Of These Viable Mandibular Incisors Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Odontoma B. Osteoma C. Periapicalcemento-Osseous Dysplasia D. Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst E. Florid Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia 7. The Patient Has Many Supernumerary Teeth And Has No Clavicles. He Is Most Likely Has The Following: A. Osteogenesisimperfecta B. Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome C. Chondroectodermal Dysplasia D. Mandibulofacialdystosis E. Cleidocranial Dysplasia 8. The Patient In This Case Was A Elderly Male Who Had Difficulty In Communicating With You Because Of Hearing And Visual Impairment. A Clinical Picture Of His Upper Jaw Is Provided As Well As A Skull Radiograph That He Brought Along. From What You Can Surmise, Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of His Condition? A. Mccunealbright Syndrome B. Neurofibromatosis C. Paget Disease D. Sturge Weber Syndrome E. Gardner Syndrome 9. Which Of The Following Disease Entities Is Associatedwith “Peau D Orange Effect”? A. Fibrous Dysplasia B. Osteosarcoma C. Proliferative Periostitis D. Paget Disease E. Chondrosarcoma 10. This Rapidly Developing Ulcerated And Indurated Lesion Was Noted In A Long Time Smoker And Alcohol Abuser. The Lesion Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma B. Basal Cell Carcinoma C. Squamous Cell Carcinoma D. Verrucous Carcinoma E. Traumatic Ulcer 11. This Patient Presented With Ulcerated Lesionand With Rolled Borders That You Observe On His Face. A Panorex Revealed Multiple Cyst-Like Radiolucencies Which Were Diagnosed As Odontogenickeratocysts. He Indicated That A Family Member Had The Same Diagnosis. Which Of The Following Syndromes Is The Patient Most Likely To Have? A. Gardern Syndrome B. Peutzjeghers Syndrome C. Sturge-Weber Syndrome D. Mccune Albright Syndrome E. Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome 12. This Periapical Radiograph Reveals “Toothlet” Structure. The Lesion Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. A Cementoblastoma B. An Odontoma C. Hypercementosis D. Condensing Osteitis E. Periapicalcemento-Osseous Dysplasia 13. Which Of The Following Should Head A List Of Differential Diagnoses Knowing That This Asymptomatic Lesion Was Observed In A Young Female Patient When Her Dentist Was Trying To Locate The Unerupted Canine Tooth. A. Adenomatoidodontogenic Tumor B. Ameloblastoma, Solid/Multicystic Type C. Cementoblastoma D. Odontogenicmyxoma E. Odontoma 14. Osteomalaciainchildren Is Called In Which Of The Following: A. Osteopetrosis B. Osteogenesisimperfecta C. Cherubism D. Rickets E. Chondroectodermal Dysplasia 15. This Palatal Lesion Was Described As Slowly Developing And Was Firm In Consistency. It Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Torus Palatines B. Mucocele C. Lipoma D. Osteoma E. Minor Salivary Gland Tumor 16. A Rectangular, Indistinct Lesion Of The Maxilla Of A 14 Y.O. Patient Would More Likely Be Diagnosed As Which Of The Following: A. Fibro-Osseous Lesion Of PDLO (Periodontal Ligament Origin) B. Fibrous Dysplasia C. Cherubism D. Osteogenesis Imperfect E. Osteoma 17. The Radiographic Appearance In The Lateral Skull Film Showing Multiple Punched-Out Radiolucent Areas Is Most Consistent With Which Of The Following Disease Entities? A. Multiple Myeloma B. Metastatic Carcinoma C. Langerhans Cell Disease D. Sickle Cell Anemia E. Paget Disease 18. Paget Disease Most Commonly Affects The Maxilla Of Patient Under The Age Of 20 Years Old. A. True B. False 19. Which Of The Following Is Most Helpful In Identifying An Ossifying Post Surgical Bony Defect? A. The Radiographic Appearance B. A History Of Surgery C. Clinical Features Of Tenderness And Swelling D. A & C E. None Of The Above 20. The Surgeon Who Explored This Scalloped Cyst-Like Radiolucency Indicated That He Found Nothing Occupying The Space. This Lesion Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Aneurysmal Bone Cyst B. Periapical Cyst C. Lateral Periodontal Cyst D. Stafne Cyst E. Traumatic Bone Cyst 21. Which Of The Following Should Be Included In A Differential Diagnosis Of The Asymptomatic Soft To Firm Peripheral Fibroma? A. Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma B. Papilloma C. Pyogenic Granuloma D. All Of The Above E. A & C Only 22. The Radiographic Appearance Of This Skull Film With Punched-Out Appearance Is Most Characteristic Of Which Of The Following Lesions? A. Osteosarcoma B. Multiple Myeloma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Leukemia E. Paget Disease 23. Which Of The Following Should Be Considered In The Differential Diagnosis Of This Multilocular Radiolucent Lesion? A. Ameloblastoma B. Ameloblastic Fibroma C. Odontogenicmyxoma D. All Of The Above E. A & C Only 24. This Teenage Patient Presented With Mild Bony Expansion. The Tooth Tested Vital While The Radiograph Shows A Mixed Radiolucent Radiopaque Lesion Involving The Apical Portions Of The Tooth Root. This Lesion Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Periapicalcemento-Osseous Dysplasia B. Hypercementosis C. Cementoblastoma D. Condensing Osteitis E. Odontoma 25. The Clinicians Main Concern In Dealing With The Multilocular Radiolucent Lesion Should Be Which Of The Following? A. The Rate Of Recurrence Of This Lesion B. The Malignant Transformation Rate Of This Lesion C. The Fact That This Lesion Is Almost 90% Of The Time Associated With Gardner Syndrome D. The Fact That Most Patients Succumb To This Lesion Following Invasion And Metastasis E. The Fact That Only Radiation Therapy Is Effective In Treating This Lesion 26. Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of The Projected Firm Asymptomatic Mass Discovered On The Buccal Mucosa Near The Occlusal Plane? A. Papilloma B. Mucocele C. Osteoma D. Hemangioma E. Irritation (Traumatic) Fibroma 27. Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of The Asymptomatic Periapicalradiolucencies? A. Periapical Abscesses B. Periapical Cysts C. Periapical Scar Tissue D. Periapical Granulomas E. All Of The Above 28. Which Of The Following Terms Has Been Used To Describe The Radiographic Appearance Of Fibrous Dysplasia? A. Orange Peel B. Stippled C. Salt-And-Paper D. Graound Glass E. All Of The Above 29. What Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of This Periapicalradiopacity Discovered In A Periapical Radiograph Of This Asymptomatic Vital Tooth? A. Condensing Osteitis B. Idiopathic Osteosclerosis C. Hypercementosis D. Cementoblastoma E. Odontoma, Compound Type 30. The Patient In This Case Had Multiple Pigmented Lesions Such As The One Observed On His Face As Well As Multiple Bony Lesions Resembling Those Shown In The Occlusal Radiograph. This Patient Most Likely Has Which Of The Following? A. Mccune Albright Or Jaffeliechtenstein Syndromes B. Neurofibromatosis I Syndrome C. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome D. Sturge Weber Syndrome E. Monostotic Fibrous Dysplasia 31. Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of The Asymptomatic, Solitary Lesion Observed In The Oral Cavity Of The Patient With Unknown Cause And Has A “Cauliflowerlike” Features? A. Fibroma B. Verrucous Carcinoma C. Papilloma D. (Inflammatory) Papillary Hyperplasia E. Lymphoepithelial Cyst 32. The Pathologic Biopsy Report Described This Multilocular Radiolucency As Consistent With A Diagnosis Of Central Giant Cell. The Pathologist Suggested Which Of The Following Disease Entities Should Be Ruled Out Based Upon Serum Chemistries? A. Multiple Myeloma B. Paget Disease C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperparathyroidism E. Hypophosphatemia 33. The Patient In This Case Was A 58 Y.O. Female, Whose Diabetes Mellitus Was Poorly Controlled. The Rest Of Her Medical History Was Non-Contributory. Her Chief Complain Was Dull Intermittant Pain, Which On Occasion Became More Severe. Based Upon The Clinical History And Accompanying Radiograph, This Patient Most Likely Suffers From Which Of The Following? A. Fibrous Dysplasia B. Metastatic Carcinoma C. Osteomyelitis D. Osteosarcoma E. Proliferative Periostitis 34. This Patient's Chief Oral Complaint Was Bone Pain. In Passing She Noted "The Pain Is Nothing Like The Pain I Had When I Passed A Kidney Stone A Couple Months Ago." She Related Other Complaints That Included Abdominal Pain And The Fact That Her Daughter "Just Didn't Understand Her Problems Or How She Acted Any More." Based Upon The History And Accompanying Radiograph, Which Of The Following Disease Entities Should Be At The Top Of The List For Investigation? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Cushing Syndrome D. Osteitisdeformans E. Osteopetrosis 35. This 25 Y.O. Male Complained Of Pain, Swelling, And Loosening Of His Teeth. X-Ray Reveals The Lesion Has “Sun-Ray Effect”. This Patient Most Likely Has Which Of The Following? A. Paget Disease B. Osteosarcoma C. Osteopetrosis D. Fibrous Dysplasia E. Proliferative Periostitis 36. Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of These Tongue Lesions Were Said To Come And Go Periodically? A. Geographic Tongue B. Erythema Multiforme C. Median Rhomboid Glossitis D. Hairy Tongue E. Lymphangioma 37. The Teeth Associated With Lesions Of Periapicalcemento-Osseous Dysplasia Are Typically: A. Vital B. Non-Vital C. Extracted D. Deformed E. Exfoliated 38. Tori May Appear As Multiple Separate Radiopacities. A. True B. False 39. The Lesions Observed In The Radiograph Were Discovered Upon Routine Radiographic Examination Of An Asymptomatic 46 Y.O. African American Female, Who Presented With No Clinical Evidence Of The Underlying Bony Lesion? This Is Most Likely A Case Of Which Of The Following? A. Osteosarcoma B. Chronic Osteomyelitis C. Multiple Complex Odontomas D. Focal Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia E. Florid Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia 40. Paget’s Disease (Aka Osteitisdeformas) May Appear Radiographically As: A. A Generalized Rarefaction B. A Mixed RL/RO Lesion C. A “Cotton-Wool” Radiopacity D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above 41. The Patient In This Case Is A 55 Y.O. Female Who Has Been On Steroids And Antibiotics For Over Two Weeks Because Of A Pulmonary Infection. The White Lesions Observed In This Patient Were Easily Removed With A Tongue Blade Leaving A Raw Bleeding Surface. These White Lesions Are Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Atrophic (Erythematous) Candidiasis B. Pseudomembranous Candidiasis C. Chemical Burns D. Sites Of Spreading Bacterial Infection E. ANUG 42. The Patient In This Case Is A 11 Y.O. Girl Whose Chief Complaints Are Pain And Bleeding From The Gingiva Along With Epitaxis And Fatigue. Both Sides Of The Mandible Presented With This Radiographic Appearance But The Maxilla Was Considered To Be Within Normal Limits. Of The Following, This Patient Is Most Likely Suffering From Which Of The Following? A. Sickle Cell Anemia B. Thalassemia C. Uncontrolled Diabetes D. Leukemia E. Hyperparathyroidism 43. Osteopetrosis Is The Name Given To A Group Of Diseases That Affect The Growth And Remodeling Of Bone. A. True B. False 44. The Radiopaque Appearance Observed At The Apex Of A Vital Tooth Is Most Consistent With A Diagnosis Of Which Of The Following? A. Mature Stage Of Periapicalcementoosseous Dysplasia B. Cementoblastic Stage C. Cementoblastoma D. Hypercementosis E. None Of The Above 45. The Patient In This Case Is A 20 Y.O. Female Who Indicatres She Has Had Multiple Cysts Removed From Her Face And Forehead. A Review Of Her Family Health History Indicates That Multiple Relatives Have Had Colon Cancer. Basing On Her Personal And Family History, You Believe This Patient May Have Which Of The Following? A. Plummervinson Syndrome B. Gardner Syndrome C. Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome D. Cushing Syndrome E. Von Recklinghausen Disease 46. The Long-Standing Soft Tissue Mass Observed In This Long-Time Denture Wearer Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Verrucous Carcinoma B. Fibroma C. Squamous Cell Carcinoma D. Papillary Hyperplasia E. Epulisfissuratum 47. The Projected Painless, Ragged, Ill Defined Radiolucency Observed In This 70 Y.O. Male Is Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Dentigerous Cyst B. Fibrous Dysplasia C. Infection/Inflammation Or Malignancy D. Ameloblastic Fibroma E. Ameloblastic Fibro-Odontoma 48. This Asymptomatic Mixed Radiolucent-Radiopaque Lesion Was Discovered At The Apex Of This Vital Tooth Upon Routine Radiographic Examination Of A New Patient. Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of This Lesion? A. Focal Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia B. Rarefying And Condensing Osteitis C. Complex Odontoma D. Fibrous Dysplasia E. Mandibular Torus 49. This Asymptomatic Radiolucency Was Discovered Between These Two Vital Teeth. The Radiolucency Was Most Likely Which Of The Following? A. Mental Foramen B. Lateral Radicular Cyst C. Lateral Periodontal Cyst D. Residual Cyst E. Gingival Cyst 50. X-Ray Reveals A Well-Defined Radiopaque Area, Which Of The Following Is The Diagnosis Of The Lesion Demonstrated In This Slide? A. Residual Cyst B. Radicular Cyst C. Periapical Granuloma D. Lateral Periodontal Cyst E. None Of The Above 51. Which Of The Following Is The Most Appropriate Term Used For The Keratotic Lesion Observed In Association With The Ill-Fitting Denture? A. Leukoplakia B. Frictional Keratosis C. Papillary Hyperplasia D. Verrucous Carcinoma E. Nicotine Stomatitis 52. Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Diagnosis Of A Slow Growing, Bony-Hard, Exophitic Growth On The Midline Of The Palate That Had Been Present For Many Years? A. Pleomorphic Adenoma Or Mixed Tumor B. Palatal Cyst C. Torus Palatines D. Nasopalatine Cyst E. Mucocele 53. Median Rhomboid Glossitis Is Most Commonly Associated With Which Of The Following? A. A Staphylococcus Aureus Infection B. An Actinomycesisraelii Infection C. A Mycobacterium Tunerculosis Infection D. A Candida Albicans Infection E. A Herpes Simplex Infection 54. Which Of The Following Is The Most Common Cause Of A Mucocele? A. A Sialolith B. Tumor Formation C. Severing Of Or Trauma To A Minor Salivary Gland D. Inflammation E. Mechanical Obstruction Of A Salivary Gland Duct 55. Which Of The Following Is An Example Of A True Cyst? A. Aneurysmal Bone Cyst B. Traumatic Bone Cyst C. Residual Cyst D. All Of The Above E. A & C Only 56. Which Of The Following Disease Entities May Commonly Manifest A Positive Nikolsky Sign? A. Pemphigous Vulgaris B. Lichen Planus Reticular Type C. Cicatricialpemphigoid D. All Of The Above E. A & C Only 57. Which Of The Following Is Associated With Chronic Osteomyelitis? A. Radiation Therapy Involving Bone B. Sickle Cell Anemia C. Paget Disease D. All Of The Above E. A & C Only 58. Which Of The Following Is True Of The Conventional Solid/Multicysticameloblastoma? A. They Occur Most Commonly In The Posterior Portion Of The Mandible B. They Are Slow Growing Odontogenic Tumors That May Cause Bone Expansion C. Treatment Consists Of Marginal Resection With At Least A 1 Cm Margin D. All Of The Above E. A & C Only 59. An Odontoma Is Best Classified As Which Of The Following? A. A Neoplasm B. A Choristoma C. A Developmental (Hamartoma) Lesion D. An Inflammatory Lesion E. An Immunological Lesion 60. Which Of The Following Is The Most Common Primary Malignant Tumor Of Bone In Patients Less Than 40 Years Of Age? A. Melanoma B. Chondrosarcoma C. Osteosarcoma D. Osteoma E. Squamous Cell Carcinoma 61. Which Of The Following Is A Common Component Of Mccune-Albright Syndrome? A. Polyostotic Fibrous Dysplasia B. Multiple Basal Cell Carcinomac) Multiple Oral Papillomas C. Multiple Odontogenickerat