AAPC CPC Final Exam

AAPC CPC Final Exam The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean? a. Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. c. Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to patients. d. All of the above. - ANS-b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. EHR stands for: a. Electronic health record b. Extended health record c. Electronic health response d. Established health record - ANS-a. Electronic health record The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of a. Continuing education and networking b. Membership dues c. Regulations and bylaws d. Financial management - ANS-a. Continuing education and networking What does the abbreviation MAC stand for? a. Medicaid Alert Contractor b. Medicare Advisory Contractor c. Medicare Administrative Contractor d. Medicaid Administrative Contractor - ANS-c. Medicare Administrative Contractor The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are ______. a. Permanent b. Consistent and appropriate c. Frequent d. Swift and enforceable - ANS-b. Consistent and appropriate Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart from the lungs? a. Pulmonary vein b. Bronchial vein c. Pulmonary artery d. Bronchial artery - ANS-a. Pulmonary vein Muscle is attached to bone by what method? a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone c. Ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone d. Tendons and cartilage - ANS-b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following? a. Production of tears b. Production of vitreous c. Production of mydriatic agents d. Production of zonules - ANS-a. Production of tears Melasma is defined as: a. Lines where the skin has been stretched b. A discharge of mucus and blood c. A dark vertical line appearing on the abdomen d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face - ANS-d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face A gonioscopy is an examination of what part of the eye: a. Anterior chamber of the eye b. Lacrimal duct c. Interior surface of the eye d. Posterior segment - ANS-a. Anterior chamber of the eye What type of code is assigned when the provider documents the reason for a patient seeking healthcare services that is not for an injury or disease? a. Non-specific code b. External cause code (V00-Y99) c. Z code (Z00-Z99) d. ICD-10-PCS - ANS-c. Z code (Z00-Z99) What is the ICD-10-CM code for hay fever? - ANS-J30.1 What is the ICD-10-CM code for swine flu? a. J10.1 b. A08.4 c. J11.1 d. J09.X2 - ANS-d. J09.X2 What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with a symptom of urinary retention? a. N40.1 b. N40.3, R33.8 c. N40.0 d. N40.1, R33.8 - ANS-d. N40.1, R33.8 What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for behavioral disturbances in a patient with early onset Alzheimer's? a. G30.8, F02.81 b. F02.81 c. F02.81, G30.0 d. G30.0, F02.81 - ANS-d. G30.0, F02.81 What is the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with postoperative anemia due to acute blood loss during the surgery who needs a blood transfusion? a. D64.9 b. D53.0 c. D50.0 d. D62 - ANS-d. D62 A 54-year-old male goes to his primary care provider with dizziness. On physical exam his blood pressure is 200/130. After a complete work-up, including laboratory tests, the provider makes a diagnosis of end stage renal disease and hypertension. What are the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter? a. I12.0, N18.6 b. I10, N18.6 c. I10, N18.9 d. I12.0 - ANS-a. I12.0, N18.6 A 32-year-old male was seen in the ambulatory surgery center ASC for removal of two lipomas. One was located on his back and the other was located on the right forearm. Both involved subcutaneous tissue. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. D17.30 b. D17.39 c. D17.1, D17.23 d. D17.21, D17.1 - ANS-d. D17.21, D17.1 A 33-year-old patient visits his primary care provider to discuss a lap band procedure for his morbid obesity. His caloric intake is in excess of 4,000 calories per day and his BMI is currently 45. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. E66.01, Z68.42 b. E66.3, Z68.45 c. E66.01 d. E66.01, Z68.45 - ANS-a. E66.01, Z68.42 A 58-year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, F41.3 b. G30.0, F02.80 c. F02.80, G30.0 d. G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 - ANS-b. G30.0, F02.80 What would be considered an adverse effect? a. Shortness of breath when running b. Rash developing when taking penicillin c. Hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery d. Wound infection after surgery - ANS-b. Rash developing when taking penicillin What is a TRUE statement in reporting pressure ulcers? a. When a pressure ulcer is at on stage and progresses to the higher stage, report the lowest stage for that site. b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. c. When documentation does not provide the stage of the pressure ulcer, report the unstageable pressure ulcer code(L89.95). d. The site of the ulcer and the stage of the ulcer are reported with two separate codes. - ANS-b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. A child has a splinter under the right middle fingernail. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a. S61.222A b. S61.227A c. S61.242A d. S60.452A - ANS-d. S60.452A A 16-year-old male is brought to the ED by his mother. He was riding his bicycle in the park when he fell off the bike. The patient's right arm is painful to touch, discolored, and swollen. The X-ray shows a closed fracture of the ulna. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. S52.201A, V19.9XXA, Y92.830 b. S52.201A, V18.4XXA, Y92.831 c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92.830 d. S52.209A, V18.4XXA, Y92.830 - ANS-c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92.830 A 12-month-old receives the following vaccinations: Hepatitis B, Hib, Varicella, and Mumps-measles-rubella. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for the vaccinations? a. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9, Z23 b. Z23, B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9 c. Z23 d. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9 - ANS-c. Z23 The Table of Drugs in the HCPCS Level II book indicates various medication routes of administration. What abbreviation represents the route where a drug is introduced into the subdural space of the spinal cord? a. IT b. SC c. IM d. INH - ANS-a. IT A patient is in the OR for an arthroscopy of the medial compartment of his left knee. A meniscectomy is performed. What is the correct code used to report for the anesthesia services? a. 01400 b. 01402 c. 29880-LT d. 29870-LT - ANS-a. 01400 What is the correct CPT® code for a MRI performed on the brain first without contrast and then with contrast? a. 70554 b. 70553 c. 70552 d. 70551 - ANS-b. 70553 How are ambulance modifiers used? a. They identify the time elements of the ambulance service. b. They identify the mileage traveled during the encounter. c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. d. they identify emergency or non-emergency transport types. - ANS-c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown toenail? - ANS-11765 Rationale: In the CPT® Index, look for Excision/Nail Fold referring you to 11765. A patient is taken to surgery for removal of a squamous cell carcinoma of the right thigh. What is the correct diagnosis code for today's procedure? a. C44.722 b. C44.702 c. D79.89 d. C79.2 - ANS-a. C44.722 In ICD-10-CM, what type of burn is considered corrosion? - ANS-Burns due to chemicals Joe has a terrible problem with ingrown toenails. He goes to the podiatrist to have a nail permanently removed along with the nail matrix. What CPT® code is reported? a. 11720 b. 11730 c. 11750 d. 11765 - ANS-c. 11750 The patient is seen for removal of fatty tissue of the posterior iliac crest, abdomen, and the medial and lateral thighs. Suction-assisted lipectomy was undertaken in the left posterior iliac crest area and was continued on the right and the lateral trochanteric and posterior aspect of the medial thighs. The medial right and left thighs were suctioned followed by the abdomen. The total amount infused was 2300 cc and the total amount removed was 2400 cc. The incisions were closed and a compression garment was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 15877, b. 15877, c. 15830, , 15847 d. 15830, - ANS-b. 15877, The patient is seen in follow-up for excision of the basal cell carcinoma of his nose. I examined his nose noting the wound has healed well. His pathology showed the margins were clear. He has a mass on his forehead; he says it is from a fragment of sheet metal from an injury to his forehead. He has an X-ray showing a foreign body, and we have offered to remove it. After obtaining consent we proceeded. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic. I had drawn for him how I would incise over the foreign body. He observed this in the mirror so he could understand the surgery and agree on the location. I incised a thin ellipse over the mass to give better access to it; the mass was removed. There was a granuloma capsule around this, containing what appeared to be a black-colored piece of stained metal; I felt it could potentially cause a permanent black mark on his forehead. I offered to excise the metal. He wanted me to, and so I went ahead and removed the capsule with the stain and removed all the black stain. I consider this to be a complicated procedure. Hemostasis was achieved with light pressure. The wound was closed in layers using 4-0 Monocryl and 6-0 Prolene. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 10121, L92.3, Z18.10, Z85.828 b. 11010, M79.5, Z18.10, Z85.828 c. 10121, M79.5, Z18.10, Z85.828 d. 11010, S01.84XA, Z18.10, Z85.828 - ANS-a. 10121, L92.3, Z18.10, Z85.828 In ICD-10-CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture classifications? a. Gustilo classification for open fractures b. PHF classification of fractures c. Danis-Weber classification d. Muller AO classification of fractures - ANS-a. Gustilo classification for open fractures A patient presented with a right ankle fracture. After induction of general anesthesia, the right leg was elevated and draped in the usual manner for surgery. A longitudinal incision was made parallel and posterior to the fibula. It was curved anteriorly to its distal end. The skin flap was developed and retracted anteriorly. The distal fibula fracture was then reduced and held with reduction forceps. A lag screw was inserted from anterior to posterior across the fracture. A 5-hole 1/3 tubular plate was then applied to the lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The wound was irrigated and closed with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior splint. What CPT® code is reported? a. 27823-RT b. 27792-RT c. 27814-RT d. 27787-RT - ANS-b. 27792-RT A 49-year-old female presented with chronic deQuervain's disease and has been unresponsive to physical therapy, bracing or cortisone injection. She has opted for more definitive treatment. After induction of anesthesia, the patient's left arm was prepared and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Local anesthetic was injected using a combination 2% lidocaine and 0.25% Marcaine. A transverse incision was made over the central area of the first dorsal compartment. The subcutaneous tissues were gently spread to protect the neural and venous structures. The retractors were placed. The fascial sheath of the first dorsal compartment was then incised and opened carefully. The underlying thumb abductor and extensor tendons were identified. The tissues were dissected and the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. The fibrotic tissue was incised and the tendons gently released. The tendons were freely moving. Subcutaneous tissues were closed with a 3-0 Vicryl and the skin with 3-0 Prolene subcuticular closure. Steri-strips, Xeroform and dry sterile dressings were applied. What CPT® code is reported? Continues...