NUR 1172 Nutrition Exam 3 Study Guide Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT

NUR 1172 Nutrition Exam 3 Study Guide Questions and Answers 1. People at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions include: a. infants. b. people with diabetes. c. women of childbearing age. d. older men and women. ANS: D 2. Drugs that may cause weight gain include: a. amphetamines. b. steroids. c. antibiotics. d. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. ANS: B 3. One potential side effect associated with use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is: a. stomach irritation and bleeding. b. stomatitis and esophagitis. c. impaired folate absorption. d. increased potassium excretion. ANS: A 4. Use of the antibiotic neomycin may decrease absorption of: a. iron, copper, and zinc. b. protein and amino acids. c. fat-soluble vitamins. d. water-soluble vitamins. ANS: C 5. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of: a. platelets. b. vitamin K. c. calcium. d. vitamin B12. ANS: B 6. People who use monoamine oxidase inhibitors for treatment of depression need to avoid foods high in: a. folate. b. tyramine. c. potassium. d. vitamin K. ANS: B 7. Aspirin is best (most effective) taken: a. on an empty stomach with cold water. b. on a full stomach after a meal. c. with a glass of fruit juice. d. first thing in the morning. ANS: A 8. A true statement about medications is that: a. over-the-counter medications are unlikely to interact with food or nutrients. b. prescription medications always have significant interactions with food. c. prescription and nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies interact with food. d. herbal products are generally safe since they are natural. ANS: C 9. One of the reasons hospital patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be is because: a. hospitalized patients are more acutely ill. b. hospital routines interfere with correct timing of medications. c. drugs used today are more toxic and have more side effects. d. responsibility for monitoring this is shared by various members of the health care team. ANS: A 10. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are the: a. physician and nurse. b. physician and pharmacist. c. nurse and clinical dietitian. d. clinical dietitian and pharmacist. ANS: D 11. Patients with hiatal hernia may develop anemia because: a. iron absorption is reduced. b. gastritis may cause bleeding. c. iron stores turn over more quickly. d. patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron. ANS: B 12. Most peptic ulcers occur in the: a. esophagus. b. stomach. c. duodenum. d. jejunum. ANS: C 13. Drugs that contribute to peptic ulcers include: a. antacids. b. certain antibiotics. c. cholesterol-lowering medications. d. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. ANS: D 14. Acceptable grains for someone with celiac disease include: a. rice. b. rye. c. wheat. d. barley. ANS: A 15. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is: a. a low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea. b. a low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status. c. a high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function. d. pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. ANS: D 16. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with: a. acute cholecystitis. b. hepatic encephalopathy. c. ulcerative colitis in remission. d. acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. ANS: D 17. Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when: a. the longitudinal muscles of the intestine contract. b. more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. c. more than 50% of the large intestine is surgically removed. d. transit time is decreased due to infection or drugs. ANS: B 18. Infection of small sacs that protrude from the lumen of the colon is known as: a. diverticulosis. b. diverticulitis. c. cholelithiasis. d. cholecystitis. ANS: B 19. Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by: a. buildup of ammonia in the body. b. buildup of urea in the body. c. fatty infiltration of the liver. d. jaundice. ANS: A 20. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of: a. protein. b. sodium. c. cholesterol. d. fat. ANS: D 21. Three major causes of atherosclerosis are: a. hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite. b. high blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking. c. constipation, peptic ulcer disease, and pancreatitis. d. kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention. ANS: B 22. The type of lipoprotein that carries cholesterol from tissues to the liver for excretion is: a. very low-density lipoprotein. b. intermediate-density lipoprotein. c. low-density lipoprotein. d. high-density lipoprotein. ANS: D 23. A major feature of therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) recommended for treatment of high blood cholesterol is: a. avoiding all foods that contain cholesterol. b. reducing sodium intake to less than 2 g/day. c. limiting total fat intake to less than 30% of energy intake. d. limiting saturated fat intake to less than 7% of energy intake. ANS: D 24. Two dietary components that may help decrease blood cholesterol levels are: a. omega-3 fatty acids and soluble fiber. b. short-chain fatty acids and insoluble fiber. c. trans fatty acids and potassium. d. cis fatty acids and calcium. ANS: A 25. For most people, medication should not be used to treat high blood cholesterol levels unless: a. the client has at least three major risk factors for coronary heart disease. b. the client has been experiencing symptoms of coronary heart disease for at least 3 months. c. the client’s medical insurance covers prescription drugs. d. treatment with TLC alone is unsuccessful after 3 months. ANS: D 26. Immediately after a myocardial infarction, the most important concern is: a. reducing cholesterol intake. b. cardiac rest to allow healing. c. reducing saturated fat intake. d. eating several small meals each day. ANS: B 27. Patients with congestive heart failure need to restrict their intake of: a. fiber. b. sodium. c. cholesterol. d. saturated fat. ANS: B 28. Nutrients that may help decrease high blood pressure levels include: a. magnesium and sodium. b. protein and monounsaturated fat. c. calcium and potassium. d. dietary fiber and plant sterols. ANS: C 29. High blood pressure is defined as systolic and diastolic measurements greater than or equal to: a. 140 mm Hg and 90 mm Hg, respectively. b. 150 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg, respectively. c. 160 mm Hg and 110 mm Hg, respectively. d. 180 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg, respectively. ANS: A 30. Clients may benefit from slightly higher fat intakes than are normally recommended if they have: a. congestive heart failure. b. cerebrovascular accident. c. peripheral vascular disease. d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. ANS: D 31. A condition that often progresses to become type 2 diabetes mellitus is: a. type 1 diabetes mellitus. b. high blood pressure. c. chronic pancreatitis. d. impaired glucose tolerance. ANS: D 32. The ethnic group that has the lowest rates of type 2 diabetes is: a. Caucasians. b. Asian Indians. c. Pacific Islanders. d. African Americans. ANS: A 33. Symptoms of uncontrolled type 1 diabetes include: a. depression, anxiety, and fatigue. b. increased thirst, urination, and hunger. c. weight gain, macrosomia, and food cravings. d. poor wound healing, blurred vision, and recurrent infections. ANS: B 34. The islet cells in the pancreas that synthesize insulin are: a. alpha cells. b. beta cells. c. gamma cells. d. delta cells. ANS: B 35. In type 1 diabetes, blood glucose levels are high because: a. urinary excretion of glucose is impaired. b. lean body mass is metabolized to produce glucose via gluconeogenesis. c. absorption of glucose from the gastrointestinal tract is more efficient. d. there is insufficient insulin to facilitate transport of glucose into the cells. ANS: D 36. Major complications of diabetes include damage to the: a. stomach, liver, and pancreas. b. eyes, nerves, and kidneys. c. skin, blood vessels, and lungs. d. brain, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland. ANS: B 37. Clients with type 2 diabetes are most likely to achieve metabolic control if they: a. lose weight. b. use self-monitoring of blood glucose. c. eliminate all dietary sugars. d. eat three regular meals daily. ANS: A 38. Metabolic control is especially important for women with gestational diabetes to ensure the infant does not develop: a. microsomia. b. macrosomia. c. type 1 diabetes. d. type 2 diabetes. ANS: B 39. A test used to monitor the degree of blood glucose control over a long period is: a. glucose tolerance test. b. glycated hemoglobin level. c. self-monitoring of blood glucose. d. 24-hour urinary glucose excretion. ANS: B 40. Nutrition therapy for clients with diabetes is based on: a. low dietary intake of sugars. b. standardized diabetic diet plans. c. each client’s lifestyle and preferences. d. the client’s weight and blood glucose level. ANS: C 41. Clients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) have a glomerular filtration rate less than: a. 15 mL/min/1.73 m2. b. 30 mL/min/1.73 m2. c. 90 mL/min/1.73 m2. d. 125 mL/min/1.73 m2. ANS: A 42. The mechanism behind most CKD in patients without diabetes is mediated by: a. enzyme systems. b. immune systems. c. catabolic systems. d. hormonal systems. ANS: B 43. A common comorbidity in patients with CKD is: a. liver disease. b. malnutrition. c. acute renal failure. d. difficulty breathing. ANS: B 44. One factor that contributes to development of bone diseases in patients with CKD is retention of: a. iron. b. sodium. c. potassium. d. phosphorus. ANS: D 45. The recommended daily fluid intake of patients maintained using hemodialysis is: a. 150 mL plus the volume of urinary output. b. 500 mL plus the volume of urinary output. c. 1000 mL plus the volume of urinary output. d. 1500 mL plus the volume of urinary output. ANS: C 46. Patients maintained using peritoneal dialysis may gain weight because: a. their appetite is increased. b. physical activity is limited. c. they absorb glucose from the dialysate. d. they absorb amino acids from the dialysate. ANS: C 47. Causes of acute renal failure include: a. chronic renal failure. b. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. c. recurrent urinary tract infections. d. severe injury such as extensive burns. ANS: D 48. The initial major sign of acute renal failure is: a. oliguria. b. hematuria. c. proteinuria. d. glycosuria. ANS: A 49. Patients with kidney stones should increase their intake of: a. fluids. b. vitamin C. c. oxalates. d. protein. ANS: A 50. The most common type of kidney stone is: a. cystine. b. calcium. c. struvite. d. uric acid. ANS: B