1. Why are most statins recommended to be taken in the evening?
• Can cause insomnia
• Decreases stomach upset
• Cholesterol synthesis increases during the night
• Cholesterol synthesis decreases during the night
2. What is the mechanism of action of ezetimibe?
• It inhibits the absorption of bile, thus causing the liver to produce bile
from cholesterol.*
• It decreases the adhesion of cholesterol on the arterial walls.
• It inhibits absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small
intestine.
• (option cutoff)
3. Which of the following is not an expected adverse effect of Niacin?
• Arthralgias
• Hyperglycemia
• Itching
• Flushing
4. Which adverse effects would you monitor for a patient receiving a statin
to manage cholesterol levels. Select all that apply.
• Gallstone development
• Increased serum transaminase levels
• Unexplained muscle pain or tenderness *
• Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease *
• Elevated creatinine kinase (CK) level with muscle pain *
5. Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in peptic ulcer
disease?
• Avoid diuretics
• Avoid NSAIDS
• Avoid proton pump inhibitors
• Avoid antibiotics
,6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics is notable for side effects such
as nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
• Cephalosporins
• Beta-lactams
• Aminoglycoside
• Tetracyclines
7. Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media?
• Corticosteroids
• Aspirin
• Immunoglobulins
• Amoxicillin
8. Which of the following medications is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic?
• Penicillin
• Azithromycin
• Amikacin
• Ciprofloxacin
9. Which of the following best classifieds aminoglycosides, macrolides, and
clindamycin?
• mycolic acid synthesis inhibitors
• protein synthesis inhibitors
• cell wall inhibitors
• folic acid synthesis inhibitors
10. Which of the following groups of antibiotics binds to the 50S subunit of
the bacterial ribosome and includes drugs such as erythromycin and
azithromycin?
• macrolides
• fluoroquinolones
• aminoglycosides
• tetracyclines
,11. Which of the following groups of people are at risk for early
hypertension?
• African American
• Adolescents or young adults
• Mexican American Culture
• Old females
12. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with
peptic ulcer disease?
• Opioids
• Two antibiotics
• Corticosteroids
• Hormonal therapy
13. Which of the following medications or drug classes is commonly
indicated for managing gestational hypertension?
• Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• Loop diuretics
• Calcium channel blockers
• Dobutamine
• Calcium gluconate
14. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often
combined with trimethoprim?
• cephalosporins
• fluoroquinolones
• Aminoglycosides
• Sulfonamides
• macrolides
15. Convert 15 lbs 8 oz to kilograms. Round to the nearest 100th.
• 7.00
• 34.10
• 33.00
• 7.03
, 16. A patient receiving intravenous gentamicin has a toxic serum drug level.
The prescriber confirms that the dosing is correct. Which possible cause of
the situation will the provider explore?
• Whether patient is taking a medication that binds to serum albumin
• Whether a loading dose was administered
• If the ordered dose frequency is longer than the gentamicin half-life
• If the drug was completely dissolved in the IV solution
17. The therapeutic index is a measure of drug:
• Absorption rate
• Safety profile
• Bioavailability status
• Effectiveness
18. Which science provides primary healthcare providers the opportunity to
individualize drug therapy based on a patient's genetic makeup?
• Pharmacogenetics
• Pharmacogenomics *
• Pharmacodynamics
• Pharmacokinetics
19. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice to describe age
associated changes that can affect pharmacokinetics in older patients?
• Increase in total body water
• Decrease in creatinine clearance
• (option cutoff)
• (option cutoff)
20. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 enzymes for metabolism may:
• None of the answers are correct
• Induce the metabolism of another drug
• Inhibit the metabolism of another drug *
• Both induce and inhibit the metabolism of another drug. CORRECT
21. An example of a first-dose reaction that may occur includes:
• Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses
• Hemolytic anemia from Ceftriaxone use
• Contact dermatitis from neomycin use * CORRECT
• Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use
• Can cause insomnia
• Decreases stomach upset
• Cholesterol synthesis increases during the night
• Cholesterol synthesis decreases during the night
2. What is the mechanism of action of ezetimibe?
• It inhibits the absorption of bile, thus causing the liver to produce bile
from cholesterol.*
• It decreases the adhesion of cholesterol on the arterial walls.
• It inhibits absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small
intestine.
• (option cutoff)
3. Which of the following is not an expected adverse effect of Niacin?
• Arthralgias
• Hyperglycemia
• Itching
• Flushing
4. Which adverse effects would you monitor for a patient receiving a statin
to manage cholesterol levels. Select all that apply.
• Gallstone development
• Increased serum transaminase levels
• Unexplained muscle pain or tenderness *
• Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease *
• Elevated creatinine kinase (CK) level with muscle pain *
5. Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in peptic ulcer
disease?
• Avoid diuretics
• Avoid NSAIDS
• Avoid proton pump inhibitors
• Avoid antibiotics
,6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics is notable for side effects such
as nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
• Cephalosporins
• Beta-lactams
• Aminoglycoside
• Tetracyclines
7. Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media?
• Corticosteroids
• Aspirin
• Immunoglobulins
• Amoxicillin
8. Which of the following medications is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic?
• Penicillin
• Azithromycin
• Amikacin
• Ciprofloxacin
9. Which of the following best classifieds aminoglycosides, macrolides, and
clindamycin?
• mycolic acid synthesis inhibitors
• protein synthesis inhibitors
• cell wall inhibitors
• folic acid synthesis inhibitors
10. Which of the following groups of antibiotics binds to the 50S subunit of
the bacterial ribosome and includes drugs such as erythromycin and
azithromycin?
• macrolides
• fluoroquinolones
• aminoglycosides
• tetracyclines
,11. Which of the following groups of people are at risk for early
hypertension?
• African American
• Adolescents or young adults
• Mexican American Culture
• Old females
12. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with
peptic ulcer disease?
• Opioids
• Two antibiotics
• Corticosteroids
• Hormonal therapy
13. Which of the following medications or drug classes is commonly
indicated for managing gestational hypertension?
• Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• Loop diuretics
• Calcium channel blockers
• Dobutamine
• Calcium gluconate
14. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often
combined with trimethoprim?
• cephalosporins
• fluoroquinolones
• Aminoglycosides
• Sulfonamides
• macrolides
15. Convert 15 lbs 8 oz to kilograms. Round to the nearest 100th.
• 7.00
• 34.10
• 33.00
• 7.03
, 16. A patient receiving intravenous gentamicin has a toxic serum drug level.
The prescriber confirms that the dosing is correct. Which possible cause of
the situation will the provider explore?
• Whether patient is taking a medication that binds to serum albumin
• Whether a loading dose was administered
• If the ordered dose frequency is longer than the gentamicin half-life
• If the drug was completely dissolved in the IV solution
17. The therapeutic index is a measure of drug:
• Absorption rate
• Safety profile
• Bioavailability status
• Effectiveness
18. Which science provides primary healthcare providers the opportunity to
individualize drug therapy based on a patient's genetic makeup?
• Pharmacogenetics
• Pharmacogenomics *
• Pharmacodynamics
• Pharmacokinetics
19. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice to describe age
associated changes that can affect pharmacokinetics in older patients?
• Increase in total body water
• Decrease in creatinine clearance
• (option cutoff)
• (option cutoff)
20. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 enzymes for metabolism may:
• None of the answers are correct
• Induce the metabolism of another drug
• Inhibit the metabolism of another drug *
• Both induce and inhibit the metabolism of another drug. CORRECT
21. An example of a first-dose reaction that may occur includes:
• Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses
• Hemolytic anemia from Ceftriaxone use
• Contact dermatitis from neomycin use * CORRECT
• Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use