Test Bank For Understanding Pathophysiology 7th Ed Sue Huenther

Test Bank For Understanding Pathophysiology 7th Ed Sue Huenther A nurse is teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor. Which information should the nurse include? Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of: a. Platelets b. Epidermal cells c. Connective tissue cells d. Fibroblast cells ANS: C Different types of cells require different growth factors; for example, PDGF stimulates the production of connective tissue cells. The factor stimulates the production of connective tissue, not platelets. The factor stimulates the production of connective tissue, not epidermal cells. The factor stimulates the production of connective tissue, not fibroblast cells. The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as: a. Anaphase b. Telophase c. Prophase d. Metaphase ANS: A Anaphase begins when the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart. During telophase, the final stage, a new nuclear membrane is formed around each group of 46 chromosomes, the spindle fibers disappear, and the chromosomes begin to uncoil. During prophase, the first appearance of chromosomes occurs. Metaphase occurs when two centrioles located at opposite poles of the cell pull the chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle c. Restrain cell growth and development d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development ANS: A Cytokines play a major role in the regulation of tissue growth and development. Cytokines help overcome intracellular braking mechanisms that restrain cell growth. Cytokines promote cell growth, not restrain it. Cytokines regulate growth; they do not provide nutrients. A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called _ columnar epithelium. a. Simple b. Ciliated simple c. Stratified d. Pseudostratified ciliated ANS: B Ciliated simple columnar epithelium are found in the lungs. Simple columnar epithelium are found from the stomach to the anus. Stratified columnar epithelium are found in the linings of epiglottis, part of pharynx, anus, and male urethra. Pseudostratified ciliate columnar epithelium is found in the linings of large ducts of some glands (parotid, salivary), male urethra, respiratory passages, and eustachian tubes of ears. The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant extracellular cation as: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Glucose ANS: A The predominant extracellular cation is sodium. Potassium is the predominant intracellular cation. Chloride is an anion. Urea is a nonelectrolyte. Glucose is a nonelectrolyte. The student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying the primary function of the nerve cell as: a. Sensory interpretation b. Conductivity c. Maintenance of homeostasis d. Communication ANS: B Conduction as a response to a stimulus is manifested by a wave of excitation; an electrical potential that passes along the surface of the cell to reach its other parts. Conductivity is the chief function of nerve cells. Nerve cells assist with sensory interpretation, but their primary function is conductivity. Nerve cells assist with maintenance of homeostasis, but their primary function is conductivity. Nerve cells assist with communication, but their primary function is conductivity. Chapter 2. Genes and Genetic Diseases MULTIPLE CHOICE A nurse recalls the basic components of DNA are: a. Pentose sugars and four phosphate bases b. A phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases c. Adenine, guanine, and purine d. Codons, oxygen, and cytosine ANS: B DNA has three basic components: the pentose sugar molecule, deoxyribose; a phosphate molecule; and four types of nitrogenous bases. DNA contains four nitrogenous bases, not phosphate bases. Adenine and quinine are purines and are only a portion of the components of DNA. DNA synthesizes body protein, of which a codon is a component. Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? a. Base pair substitutions b. Silent mutations c. Intron mutations d. Frameshift mutations ANS: D The frameshift mutation involves the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs of the DNA molecule. They alter the amino acid sequence. The base pair substitution is a type of mutation in which one base pair replaces another. Silent mutations do not change amino acids or protein synthesis. Intron mutations are part of RNA sequencing. The base components of DNA are: a. A, G, C, and U b. P, G, C, and T c. A, G, C, and T d. X, XX, XY, and YY ANS: C The four base components of DNA are cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine and are commonly represented by their first letters: A, C, T, and G. The four base components of DNA are cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine and are commonly represented by their first letters: A, C, T, and G. U is not included. The four base components of DNA are cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine and are commonly represented by their first letters: A, C, T, and G. P is not included. X, XX, XY and YY are components of human chromosomes. A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT. Which of the following would be a complementary strand? a. CGATACGT b. TAGCCTAG c. TUGCCTUG d. UAGCCUAG ANS: B The consistent pairing of adenine with thymine and of guanine with cytosine is known as complementary base pairing; thus, A complements to T and C to G and vice versa throughout the strand. A complements to T; thus, the first letter must be a T. U does not represent a complement in the sequence. U does not represent a complement in the sequence. A biologist is explaining how RNA directs the synthesis of protein. Which process is the biologist describing? a. Termination b. Transcription c. Translocation d. Translation ANS: D In translation, RNA directs the synthesis of a polypeptide, interacting with transfer RNA (tRNA), a cloverleaf-shaped strand of about 80 nucleotides. At a termination signal, translation and polypeptide formation cease. This does not involve synthesis of protein. Transcription is the process by which DNA specifies a sequence of messenger RNA (mRNA). Translocation is the interchange of genetic material between nonhomologous chromosomes. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, which of the following occurs? a. Neurofibromatosis b. Nondisjunction c. Polyploidy d. Conjoined twins ANS: B Nondisjunction is an error in which homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate normally during meiosis or mitosis. Neurofibromatosis is a dominant disorder. It is not due to chromosome failure during meiosis. Polyploidy occurs when a euploid cell has more than the diploid number of chromosomes. Conjoined twins are not due to chromosome failure during meiosis. A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called a _ cell. a. diploid b. euploid c. polyploid d. haploid ANS: C A polyploid cell is one in which a euploid cell has more than the diploid number of chromosomes. A diploid cell is when the somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs. A euploid cell is a cell with multiples of the normal number of chromosomes. A haploid cell has only one member of each chromosome pair, for a total of 23 chromosomes. A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? a. Biploidy b. Triploidy c. Tetraploidy d. Aneuploidy ANS: C Tetraploidy is a condition in which euploid cells have 92 chromosomes. Biploidy is a euploid cell with 2 times more chromosomes, or 46. Triploidy is a zygote that has three copies of each chromosome, rather than the usual two. Aneuploidy is when an aneuploid cell does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes. The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called: a. Reciprocal translocation b. Partial trisomy c. Inversion d. Down syndrome ANS: B Partial trisomy is a condition in which only an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell. A reciprocal translocation occurs when breaks take place in two different chromosomes and the material is exchanged. An inversion occurs when two breaks take place on a chromosome, followed by the reinsertion of the missing fragment at its original site, but in inverted order. Down syndrome is an aneuploidy of the twenty-first chromosome. After a geneticist talks to the patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may _ genetic disease(s). a. Only be a carrier of the b. Have a mild form of the c. Have two d. Be sterile as a result of the ANS: B A chromosomal mosaic means the body has two or more different cell lines, each of which has a different karyotype; thus, the person has a mild form of the disease. Mosaics are not only carriers; they have the disease. Mosaics have two different lines but not two different diseases. Mosaics are not sterile. The nurse is teaching staff about the most common cause of Down syndrome. What is the nurse describing? a. Paternal nondisjunction b. Maternal translocations c. Maternal nondisjunction d. Paternal translocations ANS: C The most common cause of Down syndrome is maternal nondisjunction. Down syndrome is not related to paternal nondisjunction. Down syndrome is related to the maternal side, but not due to translocation. Down syndrome is not related to paternal abnormalities. A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurses best response? a. Fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus b. Increased paternal age c. Family history of Down syndrome d. Pregnancy in women over age 35 ANS: D The primary risk for Down syndrome is pregnancy in women over 35. Down syndrome is a trisomy and not due to fetal exposure. Paternal age is not a risk factor in Down syndrome. Down syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality and is not related to family history. A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? a. Down syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome ANS: C A condition with the presence of a single X chromosome and no homologous X or Y chromosome, so the individual has a total of 45 chromosomes, is known as Turner syndrome. Down syndrome is a change in one arm of a chromosome. Cri du chat syndrome is due to a chromosome deletion. Fragile X syndrome is due to a break or a gap in a chromosome. An XXY person asks the nurse what this genetic disorder is called. What is the nurses best response? This disorder is _ syndrome. a. Turner b. Klinefelter c. Down d. Fragile X ANS: B Individuals with at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome in each cell (47 XXY karyotype) have a disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome. A condition with the presence of a single X chromosome and no homologous X or Y chromosome, so the individual has a total of 45 chromosomes, is known as Turner syndrome. Down syndrome is a trisomy. Fragile X syndrome is due to a break or a gap in a chromosome, not an extra chromosome. A patient has severe mental retardation caused by a deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart? a. Prader-Willi syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Cri du chat syndrome d. Trisomy X ANS: C Cri du chat syndrome means cry of the cat and describes the characteristic cry of the affected child. Another symptom of the disorder is mental retardation. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by short stature, obesity, and hypogonadism. Down syndrome does cause mental retardation, but is due to chromosome 21, not chromosome Trisomy X can result in mental retardation, but is due to an extra X chromosome. A couple has three offspring: one child with an autosomal dominant disease trait and two who are normal. The father is affected by the autosomal dominant disease, but the mother does not have the disease gene. What is the recurrence risk of this autosomal dominant disease for their next child? a. 50% b. 33% c. 25% d. Impossible to determine ANS: A For each child with an autosomal dominant disease parent there is a 1 in 2, or 50%, risk. The risk is 50%. The risk is 50%. The risk can be determined and the risk is 50%. An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide? a. Penetrance b. Expressivity c. Dominance d. Recessiveness ANS: B Expressivity is the extent of variation in phenotype associated with a particular genotype. For neurofibromatosis, a variety of manifestations occur among individuals. The penetrance of a trait is the percentage of individuals with a specific genotype who also exhibit the expected phenotype. Dominance refers to observable traits and risk of transmission. Recessiveness refers to silent strains with reduced risk of occurrence. When a patient asks what causes cystic fibrosis, how should the nurse respond? Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _ gene. a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive ANS: D Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Cystic fibrosis is not X linked, but autosomal. Cystic fibrosis is not X linked, but recessive. Cystic fibrosis is not dominant.