CETP Exam Prep Questions With Correct Answers

Primary motor innveration to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve? - Answer Cranial nerve X (Vagus) Fela is a third-grade student in a public school. She is a speaker of African American Vernacular English (AAVE) who has difficulty with the Standard American English (SAE) dialect used in her classroom. Her teacher believes that Fela's language skills are affecting her academic performance and has referred her to the school's speech-language pathologist. Which of the following is an appropriate rationale for providing language intervention for Fela? Select all that apply. A.It will likely foster better communication with Fela's linguistically and culturally diverse peers. B.It will likely improve Fela's code-switching ability with her teacher and other adult speakers of SAE. C.It may expand Fela's later academic and vocational opportunities. D.It will likely lead Fela to adopt SAE as her primary dialect. - Answer A, B, C This investigation was motivated by observations that when persons with dysarthria increase loudness, their speech improves. Some studies have indicated that this improvement may be related to an increase of prosodic variation. Studies have reported an increase of fundamental frequency (F0) variation with increased loudness, but there has been no examination of the relation of loudness manipulation to specific prosodic variables that are known to aid a listener in parsing out meaningful information. This study examined the relation of vocal loudness production to selected acoustic variables known to inform listeners of phrase and sentence boundaries: specifically, F0 declination and final-word lengthening. Ten young, healthy women were audio-recorded while they read aloud a paragraph at what each considered normal loudness, twice-normal loudness, and half-normal loudness. Results showed that there was a statistically significant increase of F0 declination, brought about by a higher resetting of F0 at the beginning of a sentence and an increase of final-word lengthening from the half-normal loudness condition to the twice-normal loudness condition. These results suggest that when some persons with dysarthria increase loudness, variables related to prosody may change, which in turn contributes to improvement in communicative effectiveness. However, until this procedure is tested with individuals who have dysarthria, it is uncertain whether a similar effect would be observed. Which of the following represent(s) the independent variable or variables used in the Watson and Hughes study? A. Prosody of dysarthric speech B. F0 declination and final-word lengthening C. Vocal loudness D. Speech intelligibility and communicative effectiveness - Answer C. Vocal loudness A client exhibits weakness, atrophy, and fasciculation's of the right side of the tongue and lower face. The client also has right vocal-fold weakness and nasal regurgitation of fluid when swallowing. These problems are the result of damage to which part of the nervous system? A. Brain stem B. Cerebellum C. Left cerebral cortex D. Right cerebral cortex - Answer A. Brain stem - Weakness, atrophy, fasciculation's, and the other described symptoms are all consistent with lower motor neurone locus and suspected cranial nerve abnormalities, which emerge directly from the brainstem. Hearing loss in infants who are born with a cleft palate is usually related to which of the following? A. The infant's ability to create positive pressure in the oral cavity B. Malformation of the middle-ear ossicles associated with malformation of the palate C. Eustachian tube dysfunction D. Cochlear dysfunction - Answer C. Eustachian tube dysfunction - Eustachian tube dysfunction, a major factor contributing to middle-ear disease and conductive hearing loss, is nearly universal in infants with cleft palate Which of the following is the most important acoustic cue that distinguishes between an unreleased final /p/ and an unreleased final /b/, as in cap versus cab? A. Locus frequency of burst B. Voice onset time C. Vocal fundamental frequency D. Duration of the preceding vowel - Answer D. Duration of the preceding vowel - vowel duration influences a listener's perception of voicing - vowels that precede unreleased voiced stop consonants are as much as 1.5x as long as vowels that precede voiceless stops Language intervention for a child at the one-word stage should be most strongly influenced by a consideration of the child's A. motor skills B. cognitive skills C. syntactic skills D. articulation skills - Answer B. cognitive skills - the cognitive skills at the one-word stage will most strongly influence the child's speech-language responses A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music with an overall level of 100 dB SPL will most likely produce A.tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in high frequencies B.tinnitus and a distortion of speech perception C.a temporary threshold shift in the low frequencies D.a permanent threshold shift - Answer A. tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in high frequencies After sustaining a CVA, Ms. Williams, age 75, was referred to an SLP for a speech and language evaluation. While Ms. Williams was describing the cookie-theft picture, the SLP observed that her grammatical structure appeared to be intact and her prosody was normal but that many of her sentences were meaningless, did not fit the context, and included nonsensical paraphasic errors. Additional testing also revealed that Ms. Williams exhibited poor repetition and naming skills, did not respond appropriately to many simple commands, and had difficulty reading. Ms. Williams appeared happy and talked excessively. She did not appear to be aware of her communication deficits. What is the most likely location of the lesion? A.Left posterior superior temporal gyrus B.Left inferior frontal gyrus C.Left superior frontal gyrus D.Left inferior parietal gyrus - Answer A. Left posterior superior temporal gyrus An SLP who is treating an adolescent who stutters designs a treatment plan that includes three fluency management strategies: prolonged speech, cancellation, and pullout. Which of the following is true about the use of these treatment strategies? Select all that apply. A.Use of prolonged speech is likely to reduce the frequency of part-word repetitions and sound prolongations significantly. B.Each of the three strategies entails deliberate regulation of speech motor movements. C.The client will seek to apply cancellation whenever he feels anxious about the possibility of stuttering overtly. D.The client will seek to apply pullout during the course of part-word repetition or sound prolongation. - Answer A, B, D A 12-year-old native speaker of Spanish who has been studying English as a second language for three years is most likely to do which of the following when speaking English in casual conversation with teachers at school? A. Use the auxiliary "have" in place of "be" in progressive tenses B. Use incorrect word order with prepositional phrases C. Use conjunctions in place of prepositions D. Use multiple negation improperly - Answer D. Use multiple negation improperly - Multiple negation is a grammatical feature of Spanish but not English A prospective client is described as a man in his forties who is under chronic stress. He uses his voice extensively in daily life, has a hard-driving personality, and exhibits glottal fry. The client has the classic profile of a person at high risk for A. spastic dysphonia B. acute laryngitis C. vocal nodules D. contact ulcers - Answer D. contact ulcers Which of the following is an accurate statement about whispered speech? A. it is produced by approximating the arytenoid cartilages so that their medial surfaces are in direct contact B. it is composed largely of aperiodic sounds C. spectrographic analysis of it reveals no discernible formants for the vowels D. most people can produce longer utterances per breath using it than they can using conventional phonation - Answer B. it is composed largely of aperiodic sounds - whispered speech is composed largely of aperiodic sounds, as the vocal folds do not vibrate while whispering is taking place Which of the following will most effectively control the problem of over referral in school screening programs that use impedance/immittance measurements? A. obtaining the measurements in a professional sound-insulated room B. including 500Hz in the audiometric screening procedure C. retesting immediately those who did not pass the first screening D. waiting 3-5 weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening - Answer D. waiting 3-5 weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening - some children may have a temporary problem due to a cold or ear infection, which may resolve in a few weeks Six months ago, an SLP evaluated 4-year-old Molly's speech fluency during conversation. At that time, she displayed physically relaxed repetitions of words and phrases (occurring at a frequency of 2 per 100 words), and interjections such as "um" (occurring at a frequency of 1 per 100 words). She did not display any sound prolongations or facial grimaces; she did not produce any pitch rises or phonatory breaks; and she did not appear to avoid any sounds or words. Results from several formal tests suggested that her articulation and language development were within normal limits. Molly reportedly began producing repetitions and interjections at age 24 months, and the frequency of these disfluency types reportedly has remained stable since then. The SLP did not recommend speech-language intervention following the previous evaluation; however, she did provide the parents with information about fluency development, symptoms of stuttering, and general suggestions for how to facilitate children's fluency. A reevaluation is scheduled for next week. Which of the following is most appropriate for the SLP to do if Molly's speech fluency has remained the same since the previous evaluation? A.Recommend that Molly immediately begin fluency therapy, in which the focus is on reducing the frequency of repetitions and interjections in her conversational speech B.Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP's active caseload C.Recommend that Molly be referred for psychological counseling, with a focus on on helping Molly improve speech fluency by learning how to manage anxiety more effectively D.Recommend monthly evaluations of Molly's speech fluency until she is five years old - Answer B. recommend that Molly be released from the SLPs active caseload - Molly's fluency development was within normal limits at the previous evaluation, and based on the parents report, it also seemed to be within normal limits at age 2. Naturalistic teaching chiefly involves which of the following? A. establishing successful and useful communication B. using multiple trials and training techniques C. using more adult-initiated interactions than child-initiated interactions D. using differential reinforcement, fading, and modelling - Answer A. establishing successful and useful communication - naturalistic teaching focuses on the successful production of utterances that are useful in context for communicating A team of SLPs is evaluating whether a new language intervention is suitable for use with children who are on their caseload. The clinicians read an article documenting research on the effect of a novel treatment on the language performance of 30 children with specific language impairment. The researchers administered a standardized language test to the children before and after the treatment program. The children's posttreatment scores on the test were significantly higher than their pretreatment scores. This led the researchers to conclude that the treatment was highly effective. Based on the preceding description, which of the following appears to be a significant limitation of the design of the study? Select all that apply. A.The use of a single-group pretest-posttest design B.The absence of a control group C.The inability to rule out the possibility that the children's language scores improved for reasons other than the treatment D.The use of random assignment to place the children into the treatment group E.The number of participants in the study - Answer A, B, C - the use of a single-group pretest-posttest design is a limitation because there is inadequate control of internal and external validity without a control group - the absence of a control group is a limitation because control groups are a way of introducing control and can better isolate the effect of the treatment - since it is a longitudinal study, improvement based on language development cannot be ruled out Which of the following muscles produces the opposing action to those that produce velopharyngeal closure? A. musculus uvulae B. levator veli palatini C. palatoglossus D. stylopharyngeus - Answer C. palatoglossus - velopharyngeal closure is largely produced by soft palate elevation, and the only muscle in the list that produces soft palate depression is the palatoglossus. Michael is a 32-month-old boy who has been receiving early intervention services over the past ten months for delayed speech and expressive-language development. Although his birth was reportedly unremarkable, Michael does have a history of recurrent otitis media with effusion. His parents described him as having been a "well-behaved and quiet baby." When Michael began receiving services, he communicated mainly through gestures and crude vocalizations. An open resting mouth position with slight tongue protrusion was sometimes noted. However, his receptive-language skills were found to be age appropriate and he showed no oral motor deficits during feeding. Michael's expressive-language skills have shown some progress since he began working with the speech-language pathologist, but he remains poorly intelligible. Michael's imitation of tongue, lip, and jaw movements is characterized by inconsistent groping and errors of sequencing not observed in his spontaneous oral movements. Michael has an age-appropriate vocabulary and produces utterances of up to five words. Articulation errors, especially metathesis of phones and syllables, increase as his utterance length increases. Michael's intelligibility is greatest at the single-word level. Automatic speech and highly familiar utterances are much more intelligible than his imitated productions As part of ongoing assessment, the SLP's most appropriate action is to have Michael's parents consult with his primary-care provider for referral to A.a special educator B.a neurologist C.a psychologist D.an otolaryngologist - Answer D. an otolaryngologist An otolaryngologist has referred a 45-year-old man for voice treatment following medialization thyroplasty for a paralyzed vocal fold. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic strategy for the SLP to use? A.Assisting the patient to produce a soft glottal attack B.Digitally manipulation of the patient's neck to reduce strap-muscle tension C.Assisting the patient to produce a hard glottal attack D.Employing techniques aimed at increasing airflow - Answer C. Assisting the patient to produce a hard glottal attack - medialization thyroplasty moves the paralyzed vocal fold closer to the mid-glottis to allow better compensation by the unaffected fold, only the production of a hard glottal attack addresses the compensatory behavior For a test of expressive morphology and syntax for speakers of African American Vernacular English (AAVE), the test item that would be considered LEAST biased against such speakers would be one requiring A.use of the auxiliary verb "be" in the present progressive tense B.use of the past-tense ending "-ed" C.use of sentences with multiple negation D.agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number - Answer D. agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number - the morphological feature listed is one in which AAVE does not differ from SAE Research regarding the use of intensive phonemic-awareness treatment for children who have difficulty learning to read has demonstrated that the treatment A. is effective only for children from 4-8 years old B. is effective mainly with children who have remediated all phonological process errors C. is effective only when combined with a supplemental literacy program D. might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities - Answer D. might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities - intensive phonemic-awareness treatment programs are thought to improve reading by training children to better differentiate and process speech sounds, however, research has not successfully separated the effects of intensive intervention, so no direct relationship has yet to be proved An SLP is planning treatment for a 5-year-old child with multiple speech-production errors. The most effective strategy the clinician can use to treat the child is to A.arrange error sounds by developmental pattern and correct them sound by sound B.start with sounds the child can make and use them as bridges to error sounds C.teach sounds in isolation, then use nonsense syllables, and then build to words D.delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs - Answer D. delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs - the most efficient procedure for the child would be for the SLP to define the phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs A teacher asks the speech-language pathologist for advice regarding a child who talks excessively during class, rarely listens to instructions, and does work only intermittently. Attempts at alternative seating for the child have not been successful. Of the following, which is the most appropriate recommendation that the speech-language pathologist can provide to the teacher? A.Have the school counselor consider working with the child and the parents on self-control and discipline B.Put the child on a management system for classroom behavior C.Refer the child for evaluation by members of the child-study team D.Suggest remedial speech-language services for the child to improve the child's interactive communication - Answer C. refer the child for evaluation by members of the child-study team - the child has a behavioural problem that should be evaluated for the purposes of identification and management planning A speech-and-hearing clinic has recently opened, but referrals are slow in coming. Which of the following would be most appropriate and effective for the clinic's director to do first? A. ask local hospitals to provide names of recent clients likely to need speech-language services B. identify and define the major consumer groups and referral sources, and develop a plan to reach them C. identify the weaknesses in the competition, and inform consumer groups and referral sources of the weaknesses D. wait for demand to increase on its own, because marketing speech-language services is against the ASHA Code of Ethics - Answer B. identify and define the major consumer groups and referral sources, and develop a plan to reach them Native speakers of a language possess several capacities or abilities that provide insight into their language competence. Sentences such as "Visiting friends can be a nuisance" are especially useful to test a person's ability to A.recognize syntactic ambiguity B.interpret metaphoric language C.distinguish homophones by means of syntactic cues D.recognize a semantically anomalous sentence - Answer A. recognize syntactic ambiguity - there are two ways to parse or interpret the structure of this sentence, one interpretation is that it is bothersome to visit friends, the other is that friends who have come for a visit are bothersome; therefore, this sentence would be appropriate as a part of a test of a person's ability to recognize syntactic ambiguity A two-year-old child produces the following utterances during a play-based conversation with her mother. Utterance Gloss/Child's Intended Meaning No kitty: It's not a kitty. My doggie: This toy dog is mine. No goat: It's not a goat. Kitty house: The cat is in the house. Big kitty: It's a big cat. Doggie ball: The dog pushed the ball. Which of the following semantic-syntactic constructions does the child show evidence of using? Select all that apply. A.Disappearance B.Denial C.Possessor + possession D.Attribute + entity E.Agent + action - Answer B, C, D, E - denial: "no kitty" - possessor + possession: my doggie" - attribute + entity: "big kitty" - agent + action: "doggie ball" Which of the following errors is likely to persist the longest in the speech of children who are learning SAE as a first language and are following normal developmental course for speech and language acquisition? A. assimilation B. consonant cluster reduction C. final-consonant deletion D. velar fronting - Answer B. consonant cluster reduction - this is the most persistent of the normal developmental processes listed For which of the following conditions is most appropriate for the SLP to recommend that the patient's primary-care physician refer the patient to a prosthodontist for construction of a palatal-lift appliance? A. sub mucous cleft palate B. unrepaired cleft of the secondary palate C. flaccid paralysis of the soft palate D. congenitally short palate - Answer C. flaccid paralysis of the soft palate - a palatal lift appliance would be appropriate for a patient with flaccid paralysis characterized by an intact palate that does not function Which of the following is a typical symptom of cerebellar involvement? A. overshooting or undershooting an intended target B. rigidity during voluntary motions C. spasticity during involuntary action D. word-finding difficulty - Answer A. overshooting or undershooting a target Which of the following communication disorders is most frequently associated with significant dysphagia? A. aphasia B. ataxic dysarthria C. flaccid dysarthria D. organic voice tremor - Answer C. flaccid dysarthria - flaccid dysarthria and dysphagia are both disorders likely to be characterized by the flaccidity or weakness of the promoter and laryngeal mechanisms that results from cranial nerve damage, the two disorders frequently coexist Which of the following is the ratio of reinforcement that will most quickly cause a newly acquired behavior to be habituated? A. a random ratio of tokens to correct responses B. a ratio of 1:1 C. a ratio of 1:4 D. a ratio of 1:10 - Answer A. a random ratio of tokens to correct responses - when the goal is to reinforce a behavior that has already been acquired, a random ratio of tokens to correct responses creates an intermittent reinforcement schedule and is the most effective, this reinforcement schedule decreases the child's dependence on the token reward Mr. Charles, age 78, has had Alzheimer's disease for the past nine years. A recent speech and language evaluation at his nursing home indicated severe deficits in verbal reasoning, memory, word finding, discourse, pragmatics, phonology, semantics, and syntax. Which of the following should the speech-language pathologist do next? A.Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language skills, beginning with the areas where he is least deficient B.Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language skills, beginning with the areas where he is most deficient C.Initiate group treatment with other adults with language impairments to improve spontaneous conversational speech and pragmatic skills D.Examine his living conditions and, if necessary, educate the nursing staff concerning ways to help him communicate more effectively - Answer D. examine his living conditions and if necessary educate the nursing staff concerning ways to help him communicate more effectively - SLP treatment is very unlikely to be effective and thus is not appropriate A physician told the spouse of a client that melodic intonation therapy (MIT) would improve the client's speech considerably. The most appropriate next action by the SLP would be to A. provide MIT, as recommended B. tell the physician that it is inappropriate to make recommendations for a speech treatment C. consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the clients treatment D. explain MIT to the clients spouse to assist in the decision making process about the type of therapy to use - Answer C. consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the clients treatment - the SLP has a responsibility for determining the value of this procedure in relation to the objectives of the speech-language treatment program Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for vocal fold abduction? A. posterior cricoarytenoid B. cricothyroid C. interarytenoid D. lateral cricoarytenoid - Answer A. posterior cricoarytenoid - the PCA muscle has its origin on the posterior wall of the cricoid lamina, and inserts onto the lateral arytenoid cartilage - given the anatomy of the cricoarytenoid joint, PCA contraction can only produce rotation of the arytenoid cartilages such that the vocal processes are displaced laterally, abducting the vocal folds Which of the following contributes to UES opening? Select all that apply. A. partial relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle B. superior and anterior hyolaryngeal excursion C. velopharyngeal closure D. posterior and inferior hyolaryngeal excursion - Answer A, B. - partial relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle is part of the neurological sequence - superior and anterior hyolaryngeal excursion provides a mechanical opening A client has been determined to have poor UES opening secondary to decreased hyolaryngeal excursion, following a lateral medullary stroke. Cognitive functions are WNL. Which of the following interventions would be the most appropriate recommendation for this client as an initial course of treatment for the underlying disorder? A. thermotactile stimulation B. mendelsohn maneuver C. thickened liquids D. chin tuck posture (head/neck flexion) - Answer B. mendelsohn maneuver - it is the only of the listed interventions designed and shown in research to prolong the duration and diameter of UES opening An individual attempting to sustain /f/ is showing in the midsaggital view above. The most important reason why this speaker will not produce an acceptable /f/ is that A. the upper central incisors are tipped too far labially B. the lower central incisors are tipped too far labially C. intraoral air pressure will be insufficient D. lip placement is inadequate - Answer C. intraoral air pressure will be insufficient - the speakers velopharyngeal port is open, allowing a flow of air into the nasal cavity If a child's language exhibits the phonological process of gliding, the child might say [wɛd] for "red." When asked, "Do you mean wed?" the child may respond, "No! [wɛd]!" Such a response demonstrates which of the following? A.Phonological development lags behind semantic development. B.Semantic development lags behind phonological development. C.Linguistic competence lags behind linguistic performance. D.Linguistic performance lags behind linguistic competence. - Answer D. linguistic performance typically lags behind linguistic competence Establishment of which of the following is most important in ensuring that the results of any diagnostic test of speech or language are replicable? A.Content validity B.Interjudge reliability C.Split-half reliability D.Face validity - Answer B. inter judge reliability - a test that has inter judge reliability is one whose results are replicable, even if different people administer the test Linguistic approaches to the treatment of sound-production errors in children are based on the notion that the errors are systematic and rule-based and that the goal of treatment is to modify a child's rule system to approximate the rule system used by adults. Which of the following is a treatment objective that reflects a linguistic approach to treatment? A. the child will contrast alveolar stops with velar stops in meaningful word pairs B. the child will produce voiceless alveolar sibilants correctly in unstructured conversation C. the child will coarticulate stop plus liquid clusters as easily as other children of the same age D. the child will recognize and identify phonetic distortions of his or her error sound - Answer A. the child will contrast alveolar stops with velar stops in meaningful word pairs - the objective refers to speech sounds in terms of general distinctive-feature classes, rather than in terms of isolated phonemes or overly specific classifications Which of the following is the most reasonable standard to apply when judging whether a client has achieved generalization of a targeted skill? A. the client uses the targeted skill under stimulus conditions that were not present during the training process and without reinforcement B. the client maintains the correct production of the targeted skill when the reinforcement schedule is changed C. the client correctly produces the targeted skill effortlessly and without hesitation D. the client is able to monitor the errors and correct them with only a minimal number of cues from the clinician - Answer A. the client uses the targeted skill under stimulus conditions that were not present during the training process and without reinforcement - it shows that the client is exhibiting the skill independently in situations not covered during training A child who is 4 years and 4 months old is referred for assessment of speech sound development, with the following results.