MCCC Entrance Exam QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2022/2023Latest Update | Rated A+

MCCC Entrance Exam QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2022/2023Latest Update | Rated A+ Mccc entrance   Troop Leading Procedures (TLPs) - Answer Step 1 - Receive the mission. Step 2 - Issue a warning order. Step 3 - Make a tentative plan. Step 4 - Initiate movement. Step 5 - Conduct reconnaissance. Step 6 - Complete the plan. Step 7 - Issue the order. Step 8 - Supervise and refine. Dynamic process used by small-unit leaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan and prepare for an operation Tenets and Foundations of Unified Land Operations - Answer Simultaneity Depth Synchronization Flexibility Steps of IPB (Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield) - Answer 1) Define the Operational Environment (conditions, circumstances, and influences that affect the employment of capabilities) 2) Describe Environmental Effects on Operations (terrain, weather, civil considerations, and friendly forces) 3) Evaluate the Threat 4) Determine Threat COAs The Mission Statement - Answer Who (unit) What (Unit's essential task and type of operation) When (time give in the higher level order) Where (OBJ or location) Why (unit's purpose, taken from higher's concept of the operation) Decisive Point - Answer A geographic place, specific key event, critical factor, or function that, when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an adversary or contribute materially to achieving success. Offensive Tasks - Answer 1. Movement to Contact (develop the situation and to establish or regain contact) 2. Attack (destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both) 3. Exploitation (usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth) 4. Pursuit (catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it) Defensive Tasks - Answer 1. Area defense (denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright) 2. Mobile defense (destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force) 3. Retrograde (organized movement away from the enemy. Delay, withdrawal, withdrawal under pressure, retirement) Characteristics of the Offense - Answer Surprise Concentration Audacity Tempo Characteristics of the Defense - Answer Disruption Flexibility Maneuver Mass/Concentration Operations in Depth Preparation Security Engagement Area Development - Answer 1) Identify all likely enemy avenues of approach 2) Determine likely enemy schemes of maneuver 3) Determine where to kill the enemy force 4) Plan and integrate obstacles 5) Emplace weapon systems 6) Plan and integrate indirect fires 7) Rehearse Levels of War - Answer 1) Strategic level focuses on supporting national goals 2) Operational level concerns forces collectively in theater 3) Tactical level involves the details of individual engagements Fundamentals of Reconnaissance - Answer EDORRGD: Ensure continuous reconnaissance. Do not keep reconnaissance assets in reserve. Orient on the reconnaissance objective. Report information rapidly and accurately. Retain freedom of maneuver. Gain and maintain enemy contact. Develop the situation rapidly. Fundamentals of Security - Answer PPOPM: 1. Provide early and accurate warning 2. Provide reaction time and maneuver space 3. Orient on the force or facility to be secured 4. Perform continuous recon 5. Maintain enemy contact Principles of Direct Fire Control - Answer MADE MP3: Mass the effects of fire. Avoid target overkill. Destroy the greatest threat first. Employ the best weapon for specific target. Minimize exposure. Plan and implement fratricide avoidance measures. Plan for limited visibility conditions. Plan for degraded capabilities. Direct Fire Control Measures - Answer TERRAIN-BASED FIRE CONTROL MEASURES -Target reference point -Engagement area -Sector of fire -Direction of fire -Terrain-based quadrant -Maximum engagement line -restrictive fire line -final protective line THREAT-BASED FIRE CONTROL MEASURES -Rules of engagement -Weapons ready posture -Weapons safety posture (Loaded, Locked, Prepared, Cleared) -Weapons control status -Engagement priorities -Friendly-based quadrant -Trigger -Engagement techniques -Fire patterns (frontal, cross, depth) -Target array Weapons Control Status - Answer Weapons Control Status: 1) Weapons Hold. Engage only if engaged or ordered to engage 2) Weapons Tight. Engage only targets that are positively identified as enemy 3) Weapons Free. Engage any targets that are not positively identified as friendly Forms of Maneuver - Answer Envelopment Turning Movement Infiltration Penetration Frontal Assault Movement Formations - Answer Column Wedge Line Echelon L/R Vee Staggered Column File (PLT) Box (TM) Diamond (TM) Coil (PLT) Herringbone (PLT) Movement Techniques - Answer Traveling Traveling Overwatch Bounding Overwatch Tenets of Breaching Operations - Answer IFOMS 1. Intelligence 2. Fundamentals 3. Organization 4. Mass 5. Synchronization Fundamentals of Breaching - Answer 1. Suppress 2. Obscure 3. Secure 4. Reduce 5. Assault Elements of Combat Power - Answer Leadership Information Command and Control Movement and Maneuver Intelligence Fires Sustainment Protection Warfighting Functions - Answer Command and Control Movement and Maneuver Intelligence Fires Sustainment Protection Military Aspects of Terrain - Answer Obstacles Avenues of Approach Key Terrain Observation and Fields of Fire Cover and Concealment Five Paragraphs of the OPORD - Answer 1. Situation 2. Mission 3. Execution 4. Sustainment 5. Command and Signal Commander's Critical Information Requirements - Answer A commander's critical information requirement is an information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to facilitating timely decision-making. The two key elements are friendly force information requirements (need to know about friendly or support force) and priority intelligence requirements (need to know about the enemy or environment) Specified by a commander for a specific operation. Applicable only to the commander who specifies it. Situation dependent—directly linked to a current or future mission. Time-sensitive. Mission Variables - Answer Mission Enemy Time Terrain and Weather Troops and Support Available Civil Considerations AN ATTACK BY FIRE OR OTHER DESTRUCTIVE MEANS FROM CONCEALED POSITIONS ON A MOVING OR TEMPORARILY HALTED ENEMY - Answer AMBUSH A TACTICAL MISSION TASK IN WHICH A COMMANDER USES DIRECT FIRES, SUPPORTED INDIRECT FIRES, TO ENGAGE AN ENEMY FORCE WITHOUT CLOSING WITH THE ENEMY TO DESTROY, SUPPRESS, FIX, OR DECEIVE THAT ENEMY - Answer ATTACK BY FIRE A TACTICAL MISSION TASK THAT DENIES THE ENEMY ACCESS TO AN AREA OR PREVENTS HIS ADVANCE IN A DIRECTION OR ALONG AN AVENUE OF APPROACH - Answer BLOCK A TACTICAL MISSION TASK IN WHICH THE UNIT EMPLOYS ALL AVAILABLE MEANS TO BREAK THROUGH OR ESTABLISH A PASSAGE THROUGH AN ENEMY DEFENSE, OBSTACLE, MINEFIELD, OR FORTIFICATION - Answer BREACH A TACTICAL MISSION TASK IN WHICH THE COMMANDER DIRECTS HIS UNIT TO MANEUVER AROUND AN OBSTACLE, POSITION, OR ENEMY FORCE TO MAINTAIN THE MOMENTUM OF THE OPERATION WHILE DELIBERATELY AVOIDING COMBAT WITH AN ENEMY FORCE - Answer BYPASS A tactical mission task in which the commander restricts enemy movement to a narrow zone by exploiting terrain coupled with the use of obstacles, fires, or friendly maneuver - Answer Canalize A tactical mission task that requires the commander to stop, hold, or surround enemy forces or to cause them to center their activity on a given front and prevent them from withdrawing any part of their forces for use elsewhere - Answer Contain A tactical mission task that requires the commander to maintain physical influence over a specified area to prevent its use by an enemy or to create conditions necessary for successful friendly operations - Answer Control Attack by part or all of a deafening force against an enemy attacking force, for such specific purposes as regaining ground lost, or cutting off or destroying enemy advance units, and with the general objective of denying to the enemy the attainment of the enemy's purpose in attacking. In sustained defensive operations, it is undertaken to restore the battle position and is directed at limited objectives - Answer Counterattack A tactical mission task that requires the commander to remove all enemy forces and eliminate organised resistance within an assigned area - Answer Clear To slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy or adversary to project forces or capabilities - Answer Delay A tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted. Alternatively, to destroy a combat system is to damage it so badly that it cannot perform any function or be restored to a usable condition without being entirely rebuilt - Answer Destroy A tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo, interrupt his timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely to attack in piecemeal fashion - Answer Disrupt A tactical mission task in which a second committed force follows a force conducting an offensive task and is prepared to continue the mission if the lead force is fixed, attrited, or unable to continue - Answer Follow and Assume A tactical mission task in which a committed force follows and supports a lead force conducting an offensive task - Answer Follow and Support A tactical mission task where a commander prevents the enemy from moving any part of his force from a specific location for a specific period - Answer Fix A tactical mission task where the commander prevents, disrupts, or delays the enemy's use of an area or route - Answer Interdict A tactical mission task that requires a unit to seal off--both physically and psychologically--an enemy from sources of support, deny the enemy freedom of movement, and prevent the isolated enemy force from having contact with other enemy forces - Answer Isolate A tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation - Answer Neutralize A tactical mission task that involves a force moving a friendly force into an area so that it can control that area. Both the force's movement to and the occupation of the area occur without enemy opposition - Answer Occupy An operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force's combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy - Answer Passage of Lines An operation in which, by direction of higher authority, all or part of a unit is replaced in an area by the incoming unit and the responsibilities of the replaced elements for the mission and the assigned zone of operations are transferred to the incoming unit - Answer Relief in Place A tactical mission task in which the commander ensures that a terrain feature controlled by a friendly force remains free of enemy occupation or use - Answer Retain A form of retrograde in which a force out of contact moves away from the enemy - Answer Retirement A tactical mission task that involves preventing a unit, facility, or geographical location from being damaged or destroyed as a result of enemy action - Answer Secure A tactical mission task that involves taking possession of a designated area using overwhelming force - Answer Seize A tactical mission task in which a maneuver force moves to a position where it can engage the enemy by direct fire in support of another maneuvering force - Answer Support by Fire A tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission - Answer Suppress A tactical mission task that involves forcing an enemy force from one avenue of approach or mobility corridor to another - Answer Turn A planned retrograde operation in which a force in contact disengages from an enemy force and moves in a direction away from the enemy - Answer Withdraw A planned retrograde operation in which a force in contact disengages from an enemy force and moves in a direction away from the enemy - Answer Withdraw Under Pressure A tactical obstacle effect that integrates fire planning and obstacle effort to divert an enemy formation from one avenue of approach to an adjacent avenue of approach or into an engagement area - Answer Turn An obstacle effect that integrates fire planning and obstacle effort to stop an attacker along a specific avenue of approach or to prevent the attacking force from passing through an engagement area - Answer Block An obstacle effect that focuses fire planning and obstacle effort to cause the enemy to break up his formation and tempo, interrupt his timetable, commit breaching assets prematurely, and attack in a piecemeal effort - Answer Disrupt An obstacle effect that focuses fire planning and obstacle effort to slow an attacker's movement within a specified area, normally an engagement area - Answer Fix In land warfare, a point on the terrain, easily identifiable, where two or more units are required to make contact - Answer Contact Point The point where two infiltrating elements in the same or different infiltration lanes are scheduled to meet to consolidate before proceeding on with their missions - Answer Linkup Point An immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas - Answer Final Protective Fire (FPF) A phase line crossed at a prescribed time by troops initiating an offensive operation - Answer Line of Departure (LD) Line utilised for control and coordination of military operations, usually an easily identified feature in the operational area - Answer Phase Line (PL) A predetermined point on the ground used to control movement, tactical maneuver, and orientation - Answer Checkpoint (CP) An easily recognizable point on the ground (either natural or man-made) used to initiate, distribute, and control fires - Answer Target Reference Point (TRP) An area designated and numbered for future firing - Answer Target A route through, over, or around an enemy or friendly obstacle that provides safe passage of a passing force. The route may be reduced and proofed as part of a breaching operation, constructed as part of the obstacle, or marked as a bypass - Answer Lane IBCT Infantry Battalion - Answer IBCT Airborne Infantry Battalion - Answer IBCT Air Assault Battalion - Answer IBCT Weapons Company - Answer IBCT Mortar Section - Answer ABCT CAB - Answer ABCT Infantry Company - Answer ABCT Armor Company/Platoon - Answer ABCT Mortar Platoon - Answer SBCT Infantry Battalion - Answer SBCT MGS Platoon - Answer SBCT Mortar Platoon - Answer IBCT Cavalry Squadron - Answer ABCT Cavalry Squadron - Answer SBCT Cavalry Squadron - Answer CA Team - Answer MISO Team - Answer Special Forces Unit - Answer Ranger Unit - Answer Multiple Rocket Launcher Artillery Unit - Answer Single Rocket Launcher Artillery Unit - Answer Tube Artillery Unit - Answer Equivalent Threat Units - Answer M4A1 - Answer 5.56 mm Max: 3600 m Point: 500 m Area: 600 m Crew: N/A Symbol: M320 - Answer 40 mm MAX: 400 m Point: 150 m Area: 350 m Crew: N/A Symbol: M249 - Answer 5.56 mm MAX: 3600 m Point (B): 600 m Point (T): 800 m Area (B): 800 Area (T): 1000 Crew: N/A Symbol: M2 .50 Cal - Answer .50 cal MAX: 6764 m Point: 1500 m Area: 1830 m Crew: Vehicle or 4 PAX (Crew Leader, AG, Gunner, AB) Symbol: Mk19 - Answer 40 mm MAX: 2212 m Point: 1500 m Area: 2212 m Crew: Vehicle or 3 PAX (Gunner, AG, AB) Symbol: M777 Howitzer - Answer 155 mm 14800 m (Charge 7) 37700 m (RAP) Crew: 7 + 1 PAX Symbol: M119 Howitzer - Answer 105 mm 14 km (Charge 8) 19500 m (RAP) Crew: 7 PAX Symbol: M107 Rifle - Answer .50 cal MAX: 6800 m Point: 1830 m Crew: N/A Symbol: AT-4 - Answer 84 mm MAX: 2100 m Eff: 300 m Crew: N/A Symbol: ITAS/TOW - Answer 6 in Eff: 3750 m Crew: N/A Symbol: Javelin - Answer 127 mm (5 in) Eff: 2000 m Min (top atk): 150 m Min (dir atk): 65 m Crew: N/A Symbol: M1A2 Abrams - Answer 120 mm Cannon, 2x 7.62 mm (1x coax), 1x .50 cal 120 mm: 4000 m Crew: 4 PAX (CDR, Gunner, Loader, Driver) Symbol: M2 Bradley - Answer 25 mm Chain Gun, 7.62 mm coax, 2x TOW 25 mm: MAX 6800 m, Eff 3000 m Other: See TOW/M240 Crew: 3 PAX (CDR, Gunner, Driver) + 6x Dismounts Symbol: M120 120 mm Mortar - Answer 120 mm Range: 200-7200 m Crew: 5 PAX (SL, Gunner, AG, 1AB, 2AB) Symbol: M109A6 Paladin - Answer 155 mm 22 km (unassisted) 30 km (assisted) Crew: 4 PAX (CDR, Gunner, Loader, Driver) Symbol: M252 81 mm Mortar - Answer 81 mm 83-5608 m Crew: 5 PAX (SL, Gunner, AG, 1AB, 2AB) Symbol: M224 60 mm Mortar - Answer 60 mm Conventional: 70-3490 m Handheld: 75-1340 m Crew: 3 PAX (SL, Gunner, AB) Symbol: M1126 Stryker - Answer .50 cal, 40 mm, or 7.62 mm See M2/Mk19/M240 Crew: 2 PAX (CDR, Driver) + 9 Dismounts Symbol: M1128 Stryker MGS - Answer 105 mm 3200 m 3 PAX (CDR, Driver, Gunner) Symbol: HMMWV - Answer Various weapons Mobility: > 500 km Crew: 2-4 PAX Symbol: M113 - Answer .50 cal 2000 m 2 PAX + 11 Dismounts M1 ABV - Answer .50 cal and M58 MICLIC See M2 2 PAX M9 ACE - Answer Smoke Mobility > 350 km 1 PAX Avenger - Answer FIM-92 Stinger Missiles 8 km 2 PAX (Basic) 3 PAX (STC) AH-64 Apache - Answer 30 mm Chain Gun, 70 mm Rockets, AGM-114 Hellfires 30 mm: 1700 m 70 mm: 8 km Hellfires: 500 m - 8 km 2 PAX M3/M4 MAAWS - Answer 84 mm Eff: 700 m Eff w/boost: 1000 m 2 PAX (Gunner and Loader) M110 SASS - Answer 7.62 mm Eff: 800 m Crew: N/A M104 Wolverine - Answer N/A Mobility > 400 km 2 PAX AK-47 - Answer 7.62 Max: 800 m Eff: 300 m AK-74 - Answer 5.45 mm Max: 800 m Eff: 500 m SVD - Answer 7.62 mm Eff: 800 m Eff w/scope: 1000m RPK - Answer 7.62 mm Max: 800 m Eff: 800 m RPK-74 - Answer 5.45 mm Max: 1000 m Eff: 800 m PKM - Answer 7.62 mm Max: 3800 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 2 PAX RPG-7 - Answer 40 mm grenade Eff: 500 m Crew: 2 PAX RPG-29 - Answer 105 mm grenade Eff: 500 m, 800 m w/HE Crew: 2 PAX AGS-17 - Answer 30 mm grenade Min: 50 m Max: 1730 m Eff: 1200 m Crew: 3 PAX W-87 - Answer 35 mm grenade Max: 1500 m Eff: 600 m Panzerfaust 3 - Answer 60 mm grenade Eff: 600 m Crew: 2 PAX T-54/55 - Answer 100 mm cannon Max: 2500 m Eff: 2000+ m 12.7 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1500 m 7.62 mm coax Max: 2000 m Eff: 800 m Crew: 4 PAX T-62 - Answer 115 mm cannon Max: 3000 m Eff: 1800 m 7.62 mm coax Max: 2000 m Eff: 800 m Crew: 4 PAX T-72A/M1 - Answer 125 mm cannon Max: 3000+ m Eff: 2000+ m 12.7 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1500 m 7.62 mm Max: 1800 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX T-80B - Answer 125 mm cannon Max: 4000 m Eff: 3000 m 12.7 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1500 m 7.62 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX T-90A - Answer 125 mm cannon Max: 4000 m Eff: 3000 m 12.7 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 2000 m 7.62 mm Max: 2000 m Eff: 1500+ m Crew: 3 PAX BMP-1 - Answer 73 mm cannon Max: 1300 m Eff: 800 m AT-4 ATGM Max/Eff: 3000 m 7.62 mm Max: 1300 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX + 6 DM BMP-2 - Answer 30 mm chain gun Max: 2500 m Eff: 2000 m AT-5 ATGM Max/Eff: 4000 m 7.62 Max: 2000 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX + 7 DM BMP-3 UAE - Answer 100 mm cannon Max: 4000 m Eff: 4000 m 30 mm Max/Eff: 2500+ m 7.62 mm coax Max/Eff: 2000 m 7.62 mm bow Max/Eff: 1000 m Crew: 3 PAX + 7 DM BRDM-2 - Answer 14.5 mm MG Max/Eff: 2000 m 7.62 mm Max: 1500 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 4 PAX BTR-80 - Answer 14.5 mm turret MG Max/Eff: 2000 m 7.62 mm Max: 1500 m Eff: 1000 m Crew: 2 PAX + 8 DM Mi-24 - Answer 12.7 mm MG Max/Eff: 2000 m 30 mm cannon Max/Eff: 4000 m 57 mm rockets Max/Eff: 4000+ m ATGM Max/Eff: 6-7 km Crew: 2 PAX Mi-28 - Answer 20 mm cannon: 4000 m 80 mm rockets: 4000+ m ATGM: 6-7 km Crew: 2 PAX Mi-17 - Answer 12.7 mm MG: 1500 m 7.62 mm: 1000+ m ATGM: 4000 m 80 mm rockets: 4000+ m Crew: 3 PAX + 26-36 troops MT-12 - Answer 100 mm Max: 2500 m PLT Volley: 3000 m Crew: 6 PAX 2S6M1 - Answer 2x 30 mm: 4000 m SA-19: 10 km Crew: 4 PAX SU-25 Frogfoot - Answer 30 mm mg: 4000 m ATGM: 6-7 km Crew: 1 PAX 2S9-1 - Answer 120 mm: 8850 m Crew: 4 PAX 2S19 - Answer 152 mm: 6.5 - 24.7 km 12.7 mm: 1500 m Crew: 5 PAX + 2 in ammo carrier NSV - Answer 12.7 mm Max: 7850 m Eff: 2000 m BM-14 - Answer 140 mm rockets: 2-10 km Crew: 7 PAX BM-21 - Answer 122 mm rockets: 1.5-32.7 km Crew: 5 PAX AT-14 Kornet - Answer Kornet 152 mm: 100-5500 m Crew: 2-3 PAX M240 - Answer 7.62mm Max: 3725m Point (B): 600m Point (T): 800m Area (B): 800m Area (T): 1800m M249 (Image) - Answer M240 (Image) - Answer M2 .50 Cal (Image) - Answer Mk19 (Image) - Answer M777 Howitzer (Image) - Answer M119 Howitzer (Image) - Answer M107 Rifle (Image) - Answer AT-4 (Image) - Answer ITAS/TOW (Image) - Answer Javelin (Image) - Answer M1A2 (Image) - Answer M2 Bradley (Image) - Answer M120 120 mm Mortar (Image) - Answer M109A6 Paladin (Image) - Answer M252 81 mm Mortar (Image) - Answer M224 60 mm Mortar (Image) - Answer M1126 Stryker (Image) - Answer M1128 Stryker MGS (Image) - Answer HMMWV (Image) - Answer M1 ABV (Image) - Answer M9 ACE (Image) - Answer Avenger (Image) - Answer Ah-64 Apache (Image) - Answer M3/M4 MAAWS (Image) - Answer M110 SASS (Image) - Answer M104 Wolverine (Image) - Answer AK-47 (Image) - Answer AK-74 (Image) - Answer SVD (Image) - Answer RPK (Image) - Answer RPK-74 (Image) - Answer PKM (Image) - Answer RPG-7 (Image) - Answer RPG-29 (Image) - Answer AGS-17 (Image) - Answer W-87 (Image) - Answer Panzerfaust 3 (Image) - Answer T-54/55 (Image) - Answer T-62 (Image) - Answer T-72A/M1 (Image) - Answer T-80B (Image) - Answer T-90A (Image) - Answer BMP-1 (Image) - Answer BMP-2 (Image) - Answer BMP-3 UAE (Image) - Answer BRDM-2 (Image) - Answer BTR-80 (Image) - Answer Mi-24 (Image) - Answer Mi-28 (Image) - Answer Mi-17 (Image) - Answer MT-12 (Image) - Answer 2S6M1 (Image) - Answer SU-25 Frogfoot (Image) - Answer 2S9-1 (Image) - Answer 2S19 (Image) - Answer NSV (Image) - Answer BM-14 (Image) - Answer BM-21 (Image) - Answer AT-14 Kornet (Image) - Answer