USMLE Exam Questions & answers 2023 update |verified

USMLE Exam Questions & answers 2023 update |verified what cell takes up bacteria from the ileum and present antigen to immune cells - correct answer M cell on Peyer patch that will then secrete IgA what is the histology of Hashimoto thyroiditis - correct answer follicular destruction and germinal center formation what fungi is seen with mucicarmine staining - correct answer cryptococcus neoformans what is the defect in osteogenesis imperfecta - correct answer type 1 collage osteoid production by osteoblast what findings will you see in osteogenesis imperfecta - correct answer can be mistaken for child abuse multiple fractures may have teeth issue blue sclera due to exposure of chorodial veins hearing loss genetics with osteogenesis imperfecta - correct answer AD COLA1A1 and COL1A2 what is celecoxib - correct answer selective cox 2 inhibitor, has anti-inflammation without impaired platelet function becuase the platelets express cox 1 how does adapative immunity prevent us from getting influenza - correct answer anti- hemagglutin what does hemagglutin do - correct answer promote influenza viral injury what does neuramindase do - correct answer promote progeny virion release what is akathisia - correct answer extrapyramidal symptom of antipsychotic that present with inability to sit or stand still in one position what is in the cavernous sinus - correct answer CN III, IV, V1, V2, V1 what is germinal martrix hemorrhage - correct answer happen when baby born young, present with altered level of consciousness, hypotonia, bulging anterior frontanelle with a lot of bleeding how does phase 4 depolarizarion in cardiac pacemaker work - correct answer closure of repolarizing K channel, slow influx of Na through funny channel, opening of T type Ca channel what is the action of timolol - correct answer non selective beta blocker effect of timolol on the eye - correct answer antagonize beta 2 receptor on ciliary epithelium which decrease aqueous humor how do beta blocker help with hyperthyroidism - correct answer hyperthyroidism cause an upregulation of beta adrenergic receptor, hence we wanna block that beta blocker also block the conversion of T4 to T3 Medulloblastoma- who is it seen most in and what are the histology - correct answer seen in kids really malignant, affect cerebellum histology show small blue cell warfrin can cause what skin effect - correct answer skin necrosis via the thrombotic occlusion in the microvassculature Neutrophils have... name 2 things - correct answer myeloperoxidase and beta glucuronidase neutrophil chemotactic agents are - correct answer C5a IL8 LTB4 kallikrein platelet activating factor what can happen after chronic use of antipsychotic - correct answer tardive dyskinesia involuntary movement after chronic use, lip smacking what is important to regenerate in the anaerobic cycle, what does this do - correct answer we need to regenerate NAD+ we have convert glyceraldehyde 3 phos to 1,3 BPG How do we regenerate NAD+ - correct answer lactate dehydrogenase converting pyruvate to lactate what is treacher collins pathology - correct answer issue with the first and 2nd arch what are the mediators for fever - correct answer IL1, IL6, TNF, prostaglandin what is seen with a diagnositic test for nontreponemal syphillus - correct answer antibody to cardiolipin-cholesterol lechtin antigen what will be seen on midgut malrotation - correct answer formation of Ladd bands 6th week herniate through umbilical ring 10th week return to abdominal cavity and rotate around SMA what does a mitral regurg sound like? - correct answer holosystolic blowing murmur loudest at apex and radiates to the axilla what does tricuspid regurg sound like - correct answer holosystolic murmur radiates to the right sternal boarder left dominant circulation of the heart - correct answer posterior descending/ interventricular artery arise from the left circumflex coronary artery right dominant circulation - correct answer posterior descending/ interventricular artery arise from right coronary artery what are the strep virdins bacteria - correct answer streptococcus mitis streptococcus mutans where are the baroreceptors - correct answer in the aortic arch and carotid sinus what does the baroreceptor in the aortic arch respond to - correct answer increase in blood pressure, transmit info via vagus nerve to solitary nucleus what does the baroreceptor in the carotid sinus respond to - correct answer increase and decrease in BP, transmit info via glossopharyngeal nerve to the solitary nucleus what happen to barorecpetor in low blood pressure - correct answer decrease in atrial pressure -> decrease stretch-> decrease afferent baroreceptor firing -> increase in efferent sympathetic firing (via alpha 1` vasoconstrictrion and beta 1 contractility) and decrease efferent parasympathetic (via vagus nerve) stimulation -> vasoconstriction, increase in HR, increase in BP, increase in contractility cohort study - correct answer look at person with an exposure and see if they get disease LOOK AT EXPOSURE case control study - correct answer compare people with and without disease and see if they have certain exposure LOOK AT DISEASE type 1 error - correct answer p value, significance levels stating that there is an effect or difference when none exist null hypothesis incorrectly rejected in favor of alternative hypothesis type 2 error - correct answer statistical power is 1-beta beta is the probability of making a type II error stating that there is not an effect or different when one exist; null hypothesis is not rejected when it is in fact false how do you decrease beta error - correct answer increase sample size increase expected effect size increase in precision of measurement what is affected in wenicke speech fluidity? comprehension? repetition? - correct answer speech fluidity- fluent comprehension- impaired repetition- impaired the area affected in the superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe what is affected in conduction aphasia? speech fluidity? comprehension? repetition? - correct answer speech fluidity- fluent comprehension- intact repetition- impaired due to damage arcuate fasciculus what is I cell disease - correct answer inherited lysosomal storage disease, issue with the signaling of proteins to the lysosomes. instead they secreted extracellulary. defect in N acetlyglucosaminyl-1 phoaphotransferase what is the presentation of I cell disease - correct answer high plasma level of lysosomal enzymes coarse facial features restricted joint movement clouded corneas what is the antibody associated with pemphigus vulgaris - correct answer IgG antibody against demoglobin affects the adhesion molecules that bind epidermal keratinocytes to one another what is the antibody associated with bullous pemphigoid - correct answer IgG antibody against hemidesmosomes what is the presentation of pemphigus vulgaris type of blister involve oral mucosa immunofluorescence nikolsky sign - correct answer flaccid blisters involve the oral muscoa immunofluorescence is net like/ reticular pattern positive nikolsky sign- seperation of epidermis upon manual stroking of skin what is the presentation of bullous pemphigoid type of blister involve oral mucosa immunofluorescence nikolsky sign - correct answer tense blister does not involve the oral mucosa immunofluorescence is linear pattern at epidermal- dermal junction niklosky sign is negative- no seperation of epidermis upon manual stroking of skin antibody for RA - correct answer IgM antibody against Fc portion of IgG MORE specific- anti-cyclic cirtullinated peptide antibody what innervate the Inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle - correct answer vagus nerve (superior laryngeal branch) what muscle does CN 9 innervate (glossopharyngeal nerve)? What does this do? - correct answer stylopharyngeus elevation of pharynx and larynx what happens to amcetaminophin when we take too much of it? - correct answer create toxic NAPQI and deplete glutathione why is glutathione important? - correct answer it allows for the conversion of reactive oxygen specific to water so less damage is done to issue Glutathione needs to be in its reduced state to do this, once oxidized it will be reduced with NADPH what is the presentation of acute intermittant porphyria? - correct answer painful abdomen port wine colored urine polyneuropathy worse with p450 inducers, alcohol, and starvation psychological issues how do you treat acute intermittant porphyria - correct answer glucose and heme (inhibits aminolevulionic acid dehydrogenase) what mutation can cause sideroblastic anemia? mode of transmission? - correct answer aminolevulinic acid synthase x linked what is that pathway for ubiquination - correct answer ubiquinated proteins get degraded via proteasome what happens when we treat salmonella - correct answer prolong duration of bug in poop what happens when we treat shigella - correct answer lessen duration of bug in poop what type of response for live attenuated vaccine give - correct answer induce cellular (T cell) and humoral response (B cell) what type of response for inactivated/ killed vaccine - correct answer humeral response (mostly B cell) what are the toxoid vaccine - correct answer C. diptheriae toxoid C. tetani toxoid B. pertussis toxoid how are very long fatty acid chains broken down - correct answer via peroxisome what is the point of pulmonary surfactance - correct answer decrease alveolar surface tension- which prevents alveolar collapse decrease lung recoil increase compliance what is slipped strand misreading - correct answer there are repeated sequences of a certain nucleotide and the copies of homologous chromosome bind out of registry and then cause excision of part of the DNA and future alternation of the protein. this would shorten the protein and cause a frame shift mutation what is underdeveloped in digeorges - correct answer 3rd and 4th brachial pouch what is mosaicisim - correct answer presence of genetically distinct cell lines in the same person what causes a transesophageal hernia aka hiatal hernia - correct answer the fundus of the stomach protruding out of the diaphragm what is the function of glucokinase - correct answer convert glucose to glucose 6 phosphate in the liver and beta pancreatic cell what is the function of hexokinase - correct answer convert glucose to glucose 6 phosphate in most tissue minus the liver and beta pancreatic cell what gene mutation is asssociated with maturity-onset diabetes of the young - correct answer glucokinase what is michaelis menten constant - correct answer concentration of s substrate that is found when the reaction has reached half its maximum velocity what is on the first pharyngeal arch - correct answer maxillary process-> maxilla and zygomatic bone mandibular process -> meckel cartilage -> mandible, malleus and incus, sphenomandiular ligament can also result in periauricular skin tags what is the function of IkB on NF-kBb - correct answer releases NF-kB after undergoing phosphorylation what happens if the posterior communicating artery is damaged - correct answer contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing what can an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery result in - correct answer occulomotor nerve palsy what is complex seizures - correct answer impaired consciousness symptoms are dependent on where the anatomical location of the seizure is simple partial seizures - correct answer consciousness is spared symptoms are dependent on the anatomical location of the seizure myoclonic seizures - correct answer patients present with quick and repeitive jerks tonic clonic - correct answer usually begins in tonic phase where there is a contraction of all muscles, the clonic phase is then followed and results in rhythmis jerking of the bilateral extremities what is the difference between avoidant and schizoid personality disorder - correct answer avoidant- desires relationship with others schizoid- content with social isolation what can smoking do to stomach acid - correct answer increase stomach acid and decrease the amount of mucus made. bad if you want to reduce ulcers what is an adverse effect to inhaled anesthetics and succinylcholine - correct answer malignant hyerperthermia induced fever with severe muscle contractions mutation in voltage sensitive ryanodine receptor cause increase Ca release from sacroplasmic reticulum, casing increase ATP and heat antisocial - correct answer disregard for and violation of rights of others, criminality, impulsivity before the age of 18 this is called conduct disorder lentigo maligna - correct answer mole that is assymetrical, differ in color, change in time proliferation at epidermonal and dermal junction, good prognosis what are the types of melanoma - correct answer superficial spreading nodular lentigo maligna acral lentiginous seborrheic keratosis - correct answer flat, greasy, pigmented squamous epithelial proliferation with keratin filled cyst what is leser trelat sign - correct answer a sudden appearance of seborrheic keratosis, indicate a malignancy what is the pathology associated with sarcoidosis - correct answer widespread noncaseating granulomas and elevated CD4/CD8 ratio what hematological issue can happen with lupus - correct answer cytopenias what are rouleaux formations and what are their significance - correct answer high ESR and multiple myeloma what are the functions of oxytocin - correct answer stimulate labor uterine contractions milk let down controls uterine hemorrhage western blot - correct answer can look at protein southern blod - correct answer look at DNA northern blot - correct answer look at RNA southwestern blot - correct answer look at DNA binding proteins what type of pain is seen with diabetic neuropathy - correct answer burning what is a common site of fetal hydronephrosis that is obstructive - correct answer ureteropelvic junction what is the function of C3b - correct answer Opsonization inactivated influenza vaccine will do what - correct answer neutralizing antibodies against hemagglutinin antigen, which prevent virus from entering the cell what are the functions of setroli cell - correct answer create anti-mullerian hormone which results in inovulation of parameonephric duct also provides nutrients for spermatogenesis what is the functoin of leydig cell - correct answer creates testosterone (which can be used to convert the wolffian duct to male internal genitalia Also creates DHT via 5a reductase to allow for male external genitalia what can coxiella burnetii cause - correct answer Q fever high suspected if person works on farm will have pneumonia and hepatitis no rash what will be seen on gross anatomy of primary TB - correct answer Gohn complex affects 2 sites- lower lobe and ipsilateral lymph node will become calcified overtime what is the gross anatomy of secondary TB - correct answer simon focus- apex of the lung, gets there via primary TB spreading by blood can be calcified how do you convert glucose 6 phosphate to 6 phosphogluconate - correct answer via G6PD what is G6PD that rate limiting step for - correct answer pentose phosphate pathway what are the quads attached to - correct answer tibial tuberosity what would we see in gallstone ileus - correct answer small bowel obstruction with air in the gallbladder and biliary tree what happens to our skin as we age - correct answer increased collagen crosslinking- however does not help overall because you are not making that much collagen decrease collagen fibril and increase of collagen and elastin degradation placenta accreta - correct answer placenta is atached to the myometrium will present as postpartum hemorrhage that does not improve with medication or uterine massage what never innervates the subprapubic area - correct answer illiohypogastric nerve what does the ilinguinal nerve provide - correct answer sensation to upper and medial thigh and part of the external genitalia what does the genitofemoral nerve do - correct answer provide cremasteric reflex and sensation to upper anterior thigh what type of bladder issue will people with MS have - correct answer hypertonic bladder, due to lack of descending inhibitory control from upper motor neuron what mediators cause systemic inflammatory response - correct answer IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a what are the antibodies in goodpasture - correct answer alpha 3 chain type IV collagen what organ is spared in polyarteritis nodosa - correct answer lungs how do we test for a primary thyroid issue - correct answer TSH what is the function of bcl-2 - correct answer inhibits apoptosis and promotes survival of cell what increases when we have oral glucose vs iv glucose - correct answer oral glucose will have a higher response to insulin level due to incretins glucagon like peptide and gastric inhibitory peptide incretins are secreted in response to sugar containing meals NF 2 chromosome issue and mode of inheritance - correct answer chromsome 22 AD NF 2 presentation - correct answer cataracts bilateral schwannoma schwannoma is a - correct answer adult primary brain tumor what is the marker for schwannoma - correct answer S 100 what stain can we use for glioblastoma multiforme - correct answer GFAP Glioblastoma can cross the.... - correct answer corpus callosum what bone is most commonly fractured when fall on outstretch hand - correct answer scaphoid xray of carpal bones - correct answer what is a transamiation reaction - correct answer a reaction between amino acids and alpha keto acid what is the co factor for transamination - correct answer vitamin B6- pyridoxal phosphate what is tetrahydrobiopterin a cofactor for - correct answer the synthesis of tyrosine, dopamine, and serotonin what is inhibited in the diphtheriae vaccine - correct answer exotoin B via IgG how do we do glycogenesis - correct answer take pyruvate and go to oxaloacetate then phosphenolpyruvate then back to glucose what does the external branch of superior laryngeal nerve innervate - correct answer cricothryoid muscle what nerve and muscle are at risk of injury in a thyroidectomy - correct answer external branch of superior laryngeal nerve and the cricothryoid muscle what are neoplastic polyp with a high risk of malignancy transformation - correct answer serrated and adenomatous polyp which adenomatous polyp type is more dangerous for malignancy- villous or tubular - correct answer villous what muscle is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve - correct answer latissimmus dorsi how do we screen the stool for fat - correct answer sudan III stain where are anal fissure below pectinate line located - correct answer posterior midline due to lack of perfusion what does a high grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia mean - correct answer immature basal cells go to epithelial surface what does cervical carcinoma make - correct answer atypical cell invade basement membrane what does low grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia mean - correct answer atypical cell in the lower 1/3 of epithelium atherosclerotic plaques predominate what type of arteries - correct answer large elastic artery large to medium size muscular artery what is the most affected location is atherosclerosis, name the rest of the affected vessels in descending order - correct answer abdominal aorta coronary artery popliteal artery carotid artery what is the site of b cell development in the lymph node - correct answer follcile what is the site of T cell development in the lymph node - correct answer paracortex what is the cell marker for monocyte macrophage lineage - correct answer CD 14 what is the cause of cleft lip - correct answer failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal process what is the cause of cleft palate - correct answer failure of fusion of the lateral palatine shelves failure of fusion of lateral palatine shelf what is the presentation of treacher collins - correct answer mandibular hypoplasia, facial abnormalities what is the Pierre robin sequence - correct answer micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate, airway obstruction Pierre Robin sequence pathology - correct answer issue with 1st and 2nd brachial arch how does the EBV virus infect the body - correct answer infects B cells through CD 21 what does EBV show on blood smear - correct answer atypical lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear will show *reactive cytotoxic T cell* what mononucleosis will have a negative monospot test - correct answer CMV what is the monospot test - correct answer heterophile antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep or horse RBCs what is meigs syndrome - correct answer triad of ovarian fibroma (bundle of spindle shaped fibroblast), ascities, hydrothorax choriocarcinoma - correct answer malignancy of trophoblastic tissues no chorionic villi increase in beta- hCG shortness of breath, hemoptysis hematogenous spread of lung why do we have calicium oxalate stones with Chrons disease - correct answer there is impaired bile acid reabsorption in the terminal ilium, which means that the bile salts will bind to calcium in the small intestine and create soap which go out in the poop the oxalate will get absorb and we have oxalate kidney stone what are the characteristic of calcium oxalate x ray CT shape - correct answer xray- radiopaque CT- radiopaque shape- envelope/ square what are the characteristic of calcium phosphate stone x ray CT shape - correct answer xray- radiopaque CT- radiopaque shape- wedge shaped prism what vitamin issue can result in calcium oxlate stone - correct answer vitamin C abuse what pH changes are associated with calcium oxlate stones - correct answer hypocitrauria decrease in pH what effect does prolong ACTH exposure on the adrenal gland - correct answer hyperplasia of the fasiculata and reticularis what does the brachiocephalic vein drain to - correct answer jugular and subclavian vein what does a blockage in brachiocephalic vein show - correct answer one sided arm and face swelling what swelling will be in SVC syndrome - correct answer bilateral facial and arm swelling what is the function of pilli in N, meningitis - correct answer colonization of the nasopharyngeal epithelium what provides cutaneous innervation to the lateral foreman - correct answer musculocutaneous nerve what provides cutaneous innervation of the medial forearm - correct answer medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve what do T tubules do - correct answer transmit depolarization signal to trigger the release of calcium and induce muscle contraction uniform distribution allows for coordinated muscle contraction how do we get horner syndrome - correct answer compression of the superior cervical ganglion what is buspirone mechanism of action - correct answer stimulates 5-HT 1a receptors what is buspirone used for - correct answer generalized anxiety disorder what is the benefits of buspirone - correct answer lack muscle relaxant or anti-convulsant properties slow onset of action carries no risk of dependence what is the earliest manifestation of diabetic nephropathy - correct answer albumin in pee what is the immunology seen with primary sclerosing cholangitis - correct answer p ANCA what is the immunology seen with primary biliary cirrhosis - correct answer AMA what is the pathology of primary sclerosing cholangitis - correct answer onion skin bile duct fibrosis alternating strictures and dilation what is the pathology of primary biliary cirrhosis - correct answer lymphocytic infiltration and granuloma what will activation of nicotinic cholinergic receptor result in - correct answer immediate influx of Na and Ca and outflux of K how do we treat cardiotoxicity of TCA - correct answer sodium bicarb where are muscarinic receptors found - correct answer parasympathetic nervous system where are nicotinic receptors found - correct answer sympathetic nervous system nicotinic receptors are.... - correct answer all excitory muscarinic receptors are... - correct answer inhibtory and excitory overactive bladder syndrome is caused by - correct answer uninhibited bladder contractions why do we get mallory weiss syndrome - correct answer due to increased abdominal pressure what happens with mallory weiss syndrome - correct answer mucosal lacerations at gastroesophageal junction due to severe vomiting fructose intolerance - correct answer hereditary deficiency of aldolase B cause a buildup of fructose-1- phospate in liver what is the presentation of fructose intolerance - correct answer hypoglycermia, jaundice, cirrhosis, vomiting what is the presentation of essential fructosuria - correct answer fructose in blood and urine other than that the symptoms are asymptompatic what is the enzyme affected in essential fructosuria - correct answer fructokinase what arteries do charcot bouchard aneurysm affect - correct answer small vessels of the brain what are the risk factors of charcot bouchard aneurysm - correct answer chronic hypertension is charcot bouchard seen on angiogram - correct answer no what are the symptoms of charcot bouchard - correct answer progressive neurological symptoms what are the symptoms of saccular aneurym - correct answer sudden severe headache how do you treat otitis media - correct answer amoxicillin and clavulante when does central pontine myelinolysis happen - correct answer when we do a rapid correction of severe hyponatremia what will be the presentation of central pontine myelinolysis - correct answer para and quadriparesis, dysarthria (issue speaking), dysphagia (issue swallowing) which renal artery does the ACE inhibitor affect - correct answer efferent arteriole, causes vasodilation Increase renal blood flow and decrease GFR what does angiotensin II do on the renal artery - correct answer constrict efferent arteriole what happens when we constrict efferent arteriole - correct answer increase in GFR Decrease RBF what happens when we contrict afferent arteriole - correct answer Decrease GFR Decrease RBF What drugs constrict afferent arteirole on kindey - correct answer NSAIDS What drugs dilate afferent arteriole on kidney - correct answer prostaglandins What bacteria are removed by the spleen - correct answer streptococcus pneumonia haemophilus influenzae neisseria meningitis Down syndrome markers in newborn screening - correct answer decrease in alpha fetoprotein increase in beta- hCG Edward syndrome marker in newborn screening - correct answer decrease in alpha fetoprotrin decrease in beta- hCG What would indicate cancer metastasis on the brain - correct answer multiple masses on brain in junction of white and gray junction due to region high vascularity and narrow diameter vessel What is the marker for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - correct answer calcitonin What is the marker of epithelial tumor of the ovary - correct answer CA125 What is the marker of pancreatic andrenocarcinoma - correct answer CA 19-9 What is the the pathology of Paget Disease of Bone - correct answer increase osteoclastic activity followed by increased osteoblastic activity Describe the bone quality in paget disease of bone - correct answer poor bone quality. increased bone density and alternating band of cortical thickening What is the histological findings will be seen in basal cell carcinoma - correct answer palisading nuceli What is the precursor to squamous cell carcinoma - correct answer Actinic keratosis- a scaly plaque where are the cyst in ADPKD - correct answer cortex and medulla where are the cyst in ARPKD - correct answer collecting duct what is the mutation with ADPKD - correct answer chromosome 16- PKD1 chromosome 4- PKD2 where is the foramina of monro located - correct answer between lateral ventricle and 3rd ventricle where is the lateral foramina of lushchka located - correct answer between 4th ventricle and CSF where is the median foramen of magendie - correct answer between 4th ventricle and CSF how do we absorb phosphate from the kidney - correct answer Na-phosphate cotransporter what is the potential complications of MI between 0-24 hours - correct answer ventricular arrhythmia heart failure cardiogenic shock what is the potential complications of MI between 1-3 days - correct answer post infection fibrosis pericarditis what is the potential complications of MI between 3-14 days - correct answer free wall rupture -> tamponade papillary muscle rupture -> mitral regurgitation interventricular septal rupture LV pseudoaneurysm What is the complication of MI 2 weeks and out - correct answer Dressler syndrome- pericarditis, autoimmune heart failure arrhythmia true ventricular aneurysm What type of seizures can be treated with phenobarbital - correct answer focal/partial tonic-clonic status epilepticus What is the chromosome is affected VHL? - correct answer 3q What chromosome is affected in NF1 - correct answer chromosome 17 aortic arch- 1st - correct answer part of the maxillary artery aortic arch-2nd - correct answer stapedial artery and hyoid bone aortic arch- 3rd - correct answer common carotid artery and proximal part of internal carotid aortic arch-4th, left - correct answer aortic arch aortic arch-4th, right - correct answer right subclavian artery aortic arch-6th - correct answer proximal part of pulmonary artery and ductus arteriosis (on left) What is the embryological issue with patent ductus arteriosis - correct answer 6th brachial arch What murmur is heard with patent ductus arteriosis - correct answer machine like murmur what abdominal finding is seen with downs - correct answer duodenal atresia and hirschsprung what is covering the omphalacele - correct answer peritonium what is the population at risk for buerger disease - correct answer heavy smoker who start smoking early what is the pathology of buerger - correct answer segemental thrombosis in arteries and vein what is the presentation of buerger - correct answer peripheral ischemia, pain, faint pulse in small/medium artery, and gangrene in toe and finger what are the side effects of TCA - correct answer anticholinergic effects- dry mouth, urinary retention QT prolongation what is the signs of PCP intoxication - correct answer tachycardia, dilation of pupil (mydriasis), nystagmus what are the signs of amphetamine intoxication - correct answer tachycardia, dilation of pupil, NO nystagmus how does TCA cause QT prolongation - correct answer inhibit fast Na channel in cardiac myocytes what is the long term complication of rubeola virus - correct answer subsacute sclerosing panencephalitis- dementia and personality what part of the pancreas is made by ventral pancreatic bud - correct answer precursor of uncinate process inferior/ posterior portion of the head major pancreatic duct what part of the pancreas is made by the dorsal pancreatic bud - correct answer body, tail, and most of the head what is the triad of plummer vinson syndrome - correct answer 1. esophageal web 2. dysphagia 3. iron deficiency anemia what is the weight is anorexia nervosa - correct answer low weight what is the weight in bulimia nervosa - correct answer normal body weight what causes enlarged coronary sinus - correct answer pulmonary hypertenison what are class III anti-arrhythmic drugs - correct answer amiodarone sotalol dofetilide what is the MOA of class III anti-arrhythmic drug - correct answer block potassium channel and inhibit the outward potassium currents during phase 3 of the cardiac action potential what are the 3 things that are degenerated in Friedreich atxia - correct answer 1. spinocerebellar tract degeneration 2. dorsal column 3. dorsal root ganglia what happens when the spinocerebellar tract is damaged - correct answer cerebellar ataxia what does damage to the dorsal column/ dorsal root ganglia degeneration - correct answer position/ vibration sensation what hormones use cAMP as a second messenger - correct answer FSH LH ACTH TSH CRH hCG ADH- V2 receptor MSH PTH calcitonin GHRH glucagon way to remember second messengers that use cAMP - correct answer FLAT ChAMP what does cAMP activated in the second messenger pathway - correct answer protein kinase A rationalization - correct answer making an excuse for unacceptable feelings about an exam example of rationalization - correct answer claiming the job was not important when we get fired example of supression - correct answer not worrying about a big game until it is time to play what is repression - correct answer intentionally withholding an idea or feeling from conscious awareness what does the CFTR protein do - correct answer transmembrane ATP gated Cl channel what are the signs of vit D overdose - correct answer hypercalcemia, loss of appetite, not really consciousness what disease can cause vit D excess - correct answer granulomatous disease why do granulomatous disease cause increase Vit D - correct answer increased activation of vit D by epitheloid macrophage they express a-1 hydroxylase where is the AV node located - correct answer endocardial surface of the right atrium, near the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve what can injury above the clavicle result in - correct answer damage to the lung pleura boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck what can be damage here - correct answer sternocleidomastoid muscle trapezius muscle clavicle accessory nerve how do we get esophageal varices in portal hypertension - correct answer shunting of blood to left gastric vein what can cause caput medusae in portal hypertension - correct answer shunting of blood to periumbilical veins what can cause splenomegaly in portal hypertesion - correct answer shunting of blood to splenic RED pulp where do aortic dissections type A happen - correct answer ascending aorta, at the sinotubular junction where do aortic dissection type 2 happen - correct answer descending aorta at the left subclavian artery what leads to increase expiratory flow rates - correct answer increase elastic recoil and increased radial traction what will Dubin Johnson syndrome present as - correct answer black liver what is the histology of Dubin Johnson syndrome - correct answer dense pigment within lysosome what is the defect in Dubin Johnsn - correct answer cannot excrete conjugated bilirubin what is the defect in crigler-najjar - correct answer absent UDP- glucuronosyltransferse severe what is the defect in gilbert syndrome - correct answer mildly decreased UDP-glucuronosyltransferase may present in times of stress what does UDP- glucuronosyltransferase do - correct answer conjugate bilirubin why is there selective loss of albumin in minimal change disease - correct answer loss of foot process- loss of neg charge on basement membrane what unwinds the DNA - correct answer helicase what relaxes the tension of the DNA as it is being unwind - correct answer topoisomerase what coagulase bacteria are novobiocin sensitive - correct answer S. epidermidis what coagulase negative bacteria is novobiocin resistant - correct answer S. saprophyticus what is indicated in the treatment of alcohol withdrawl - correct answer benzodiazapine what are the benzodiazepine - correct answer -epam chlordiazepoxide alprazolam what is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines - correct answer facilitate GABAa action by increasing the *frequency* of Cl channel opening how to treat benzo overdose - correct answer flumaxenil flumenazil and its relation to benzo - correct answer competitive antagonist mechanism of action of barbiturates - correct answer facilitate GABAa action by increase *duration* of Cl channel opening what enzyme is affected in acute intermittent prophyria - correct answer prophoblinogen deaminiase what enzyme is affected in polyporphyria cutanea tarda - correct answer uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase what is the presentation of polyprophryia cutanea tarda - correct answer blistering cutaneous photosensitivity what is the presentation of acute intermittent porphyria - correct answer painful abdomnet, port wine colored pee, polyneuropathy, psychological issues worse with P450 inducer,alcohol,starvation what is diagnostic for 21 hydroxylase deficiency - correct answer elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone what type of seizure is lamotrigine not used for - correct answer status epilepticus what is the mechanism of action for lamotrigine - correct answer block voltage gated Na channel what should you worry about with lamotrigine - correct answer Steven johnson sydnrome which is more selective- spironolactone or epleronone - correct answer eplerenone which would result in gynecomastia- spironolactone or eplerenone - correct answer spironoloactone what is thiazide diuretic - correct answer chlorthalidone what are status epilepticus - correct answer seizure lasting more than 5 minutes how do you treat acute status epilepticus - correct answer benzodiazepines how do you prevent status eplipticus - correct answer phenytoin what is the mechanism of action of phenytoin - correct answer block Na channel what cellular structures are affected in malignant tumors that result in their malignant spread - correct answer integrin what do integrin bind to - correct answer fibronectin, collagen, laminin what does IL 4 do - correct answer class switch to IgE and IgG what does IL 5 do - correct answer eosinophil chemotaxis class switch IgA maturation of B cell to plasma cell what does IL2 do - correct answer T cell growth factor and CD8 T cell activator what does Th1 make - correct answer IFN gamma and IL 2 what does Th2 make - correct answer IL4, IL5, IL 10 light microscope for membranous glomerulopathy - correct answer diffuse thickness of the glomerular basement on light microscopy without increase cellularity what is the EM appearance of membranous nephropathy - correct answer spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits what is the appearance of membranoproliferatie disorder - correct answer tram track appearance what is the immune complex deposition of membranoprolierative glomerulonephritis - correct answer granular what are the fat soluble vitamins - correct answer ADEK what are the signs of Vit A deficiency - correct answer night blindness dry, scaley skin corneal ulceration what are the diagnostic approach for strongyloides stercoralis - correct answer rhabditiform larvea in stool how do you diagnose schistosoma infection - correct answer detect parasite egg in the stool what diagnostic test use to ID enterobius vermicularis - correct answer perianal egg deposition what is the diagnosis for flatworm infection - correct answer proglottids in the stool what is the diagnosis for giardia lamblia and entameoba histolytica - correct answer trophozoites and cyst in the stool what artery supplies the majority of the blood for the femoral head and neck - correct answer medial circumflex femoral artery ACL attaches - correct answer lateral femoral condyle to anterior tibia PCL attaches - correct answer medial femoral condyle to posterior tibia what is seen in wold-parkinson-white syndrome - correct answer antrioventricular conduction tract bypassing the atrioventricular node how do you treat wolff- parkinson-white syndrome - correct answer procainmide- Na blocker amiodarone- K channel blocker will ectopic ACTH production from small cell lung cancer be suppressed with high dose dexamethasone administration - correct answer no will high ACTH from a pituitary adenoma be suppressed with high dose dexamethasone - correct answer yes what is the mechanism of action of tamsulosin - correct answer alpha 1 selective malassezia will cause... - correct answer a hypopigmented rash what is the presentation of renal papillary necrosis - correct answer gross hematuria acute flank pain passage of tissue fragments in pee high altitude exposure will result in what type of metabolic compensation - correct answer respiratory alkalosis why do we get edema is nephrotic syndrome - correct answer we are peeing out protein, so there is less plasma oncotic pressure so there is an increase in plasma filtration in capillary bed how do you treat C diphtheriae from order of importance - correct answer 1. diphteria antitoxin 2. penicillin or erythromycin 3. DPT vaccine how do you treat acute migraine - correct answer SSRI NSAID sumatropitan how do you prevent migraine - correct answer beta blocker Ca blocker how do you treat cluster headache - correct answer O2, ergotamine, sumatriptan how do you prevent cluster headage - correct answer vermpil how you treat tension headache - correct answer NSAIDS what is the genetic issue with follicular lymphoma - correct answer t14;18 what is the genetic issue with mantel cell lymphoma - correct answer t11;14 what is the pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura - correct answer 1. neurological symptoms 2. renal symptoms 3. fever 4. thrombocytopenia 5. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia what initiates transcription - correct answer CAAT box TATA box how do we get epispadias of penis - correct answer issue with genital tubercle hepatocellular carcinoma is most strongly associated with which hepatitis - correct answer Hep B what is the defect in hyper IgM syndrome - correct answer CDL on Th cell what is the defect in chronic granulomatous disease - correct answer defect in NADPH oxidase what will the nitroblue tetrazulium dye reduction test show in chronic granulomatous disease - correct answer fail to turn blue what bug spreads chagas disease - correct answer triatomie what is budd chiari - correct answer thrmobosis or compression of hepatic vein with centrilobular congestion and necrosis what are the potential cause of budd chiari - correct answer hypercoagulable, polycythemia vera, post partum state what do fibrates inhibits and what does it activate - correct answer 7-a- hydroxylase- inhibited PPARa- activate what do you want to give prior to surgury of pheochromocytoma - correct answer alpha antagonist followed by beta blocker what is the target or rituximab - correct answer CD20 what are the lab findings the hemochromatosis - correct answer increase serum iron increase ferritin decrease transferriton increase in transferin saturation what does the parvoviris B 19 infect - correct answer erythrocyte precurosis which group will have diarrhea with HUS- kids or adults - correct answer kids get diarrhea which leukemia will have a dry tap on aspiration - correct answer hairy cell leukemia what is the staining for hairy cell leukemia - correct answer positive TRAP What is folinic acid also known as - correct answer leucovorin how do you reverse toxicity of methotrexate - correct answer folinic acid aka leucovorin what the congenital reasons for QT prolongation - correct answer mutation in K channel that delays what is Romano Ward Syndrome - correct answer AD congenital long QT syndrome NO DEAFNESS What is Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome - correct answer AR congenital long QT syndrome sensorineural deafness what is the mechanism of action of opiods - correct answer agonist at opiod receptor open K channels and close Ca channels what is in the marginal zone of a B cell lymphona - correct answer most outer part of the lymphome contains memory B cell what does opiods do for synaptic transmission - correct answer decrease in synaptic transmission what do opiods inhibit the release of - correct answer ACh NE 5-Ht glutamate Substance P what is the excess collagen in keloid - correct answer collagen 3 what does collagen 3 make in terms of wound healing - correct answer granulation tissue what does TGF beta cause in excess in wounds - correct answer keloid and hypertrophic scarring TGF beta functions include - correct answer fibroblast migration, proliferation, and connective tissue synthesis TGF beta can convert helper T cell to what type, what other factor does it need - correct answer TGF-beta and IL 6 to make Th17 cell what is the first area to get damage by global cerebral ischemia - correct answer hippocampus- specifically the pyramidal cells in general, what are the are the neurons to be worried in global cerebral ischemia - correct answer pyramidal cells of hippocampus and neocortex purkinje cell of the cerebellum where does positive selection happen in the thymus - correct answer cortex where does negative selection happen in the thymus - correct answer medulla what should be used to reduce chronic kidney disease in patients with hypertension and diabetes - correct answer ACE ARBs what type of glands cause acne - correct answer sebaceous glands what are the examples of holocrine glands - correct answer sebaceous glands meibomian gland what are the example of apocrine glands - correct answer mammary glands what are the examples of merocrine glands - correct answer salivary gland eccrine sweat glands apocrine sweat glands what is the mechanism of merocrine glands - correct answer cells secrete via exocytosis what is the mechanism of apocrine glands - correct answer cells secrete via membrane bound vesciels what is the mechanism of action of holocrine glands - correct answer cell lysis releases entire contents of the cytoplasm what cells make glucagon - correct answer alpha cell of the pancreas can you tell someone if a patient is stable if you cannot get their consent to do so - correct answer yes- only that they are stable desmopressin can increase the levels of... - correct answer vWF from endothelial cell factor 8 what are the signs of vitamin B 2 def aka riboflavin - correct answer inflammation of lips, fissures at corner of the mouth, corneal vascularization what is riboflavin used for - correct answer redox reactions what are the components of ribaflavin - correct answer FAD and FMN what part of the cirtric acid cycle require FAD - correct answer succinate dehydrogenase to convert succinate to fumarate when can we get a Hep D infection - correct answer with hep B bipolar II will have... - correct answer hypomanic and depressive episode bipolar I will have - correct answer at least one manic episode with or without a hypomanic or depressive episode borderline personality disorder will have - correct answer unstable mood and relationships erratic behavior may have splitting what are fetal hydrops - correct answer pleural effusion with secondary pulmonary hypoplasia, and ascites what can parovirus B 19 present in adults - correct answer arthralgia aka joint pain what is the function of Rb protein - correct answer prevents the damage cell from preceding G1 to S checkpoint via the inactivation of transcription factor E2F when is Rb activated - correct answer hypophosphorylated- inactivates transcription factor E2F when is Rb inactivated - correct answer hyerphsophorylated what will happen if there is damage to lateral geniculate body - correct answer temporal hemiretina what amino acid is needed for the excretion of acid - correct answer glutamine what happens when ATP binds to mosin - correct answer release of mysoin head from its binding site on the actin filament what can be the result of increased urinary pressure on the kindey - correct answer renal parenchymal atrophy what is the main muscle used in the valsalva maneuver - correct answer rectus abdominis what will happen if there is injury to the meyer's loop in the temporal lobe - correct answer contralateral superior quadratanopia what will be seen on blood smear of a babesiosis infection - correct answer intraerythrocyic organisms what spreads babesiosis - correct answer ixodes tick where is babesia infection hapen - correct answer northeastern US what does an S4 sound mean - correct answer stiffness in ventricle wall what does S3 sound mean - correct answer sudden cessation of passive ventricular filling what do we called milder major depressive disorder lasting at least 2 year - correct answer persistent depressive disorder alzheimer can happen with down syndrome because... - correct answer chromosome 21 has amyloid precursor protein Alzheimer's disease involve in intracellular.... - correct answer neurofibrillary tangles Alzheimer's disease involve in extracellular.... - correct answer AB amyloid beta plaque AB amyloid plaques are... - correct answer abnormal fragments of amyloid precursor protein neurofibrillary tangles compose of... - correct answer hyperphosphorylated tau protein what happens when we have weight loss or a lot of exercise when it comes to periods - correct answer functional hypothalamic amenorrhea....results in loss of pulsatile GnRH what is the mechanism of action of rifampins - correct answer inhibition of DNA- dependent RNA polymerase what is the mechanism of action of isoniazid - correct answer inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis what is the side effects of pyrazinamide - correct answer hepatotoxicity and hyperuricemia what is the mechanism of action of ethambutol - correct answer inhibition of arabinosyl transferase what is the most common presentation of cryptococcus neuformans - correct answer meningoenephalitis what are the withdrawl symptoms of heroin - correct answer dialated pupils, yarning, lacrimation what are the withdrawal signs of stimulants - correct answer increased appetite hypersomnia intense psychomotor reterdation what is an imperforate hymen - correct answer incomplete degeneration of the central portion of the fibrous tissue band connection that walls of the vagina what is the presentation of imperforate hyman - correct answer normal secondary sexual characteristics cyclic abdominal or pelvic pain due to accumulate of periods blood primary amenorrhea where is angiotensin I converted to angiotensin II - correct answer small vessels of the lung what causes isolated systolic hypertension - correct answer age related stiffness and decrease in compliance of the aorta and major peripheral arteries both alleles contribute to the phenotype of the heterozygote - correct answer codominance phenotype varies amount people of the same genotype - correct answer variable expressivity what are examples of codominance - correct answer blood groups a1- antritrypsin deficiency what are the example of variable expressivity - correct answer NF 1 patients not all people with a mutant genotype show the mutant phenotype - correct answer incomplete pentrance what are examples of incomplete penetrance - correct answer BRAC1 gene mutation do not always get cancer one gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects - correct answer pleiotropy what is an example of pleiotropy - correct answer PKU- which results in light skin, intellectual disability, and musty oder increased severity or earlier onset of disease in succeeding generations - correct answer anticipation patients inherits or develops a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene, the complementary allele must be deleted/mutated before cancer develops - correct answer loss of heterozygosity what are examples of loss of heterozygosity - correct answer retinoblastoma two hit hypothesis Lynch syndrome Li-Fraumeni syndrome a heterozygote produces a nonfunctional altered protein that also prevents the normal gene product from functioning - correct answer dominant negative mutation tendency for certain alleles at 2 link loci to occur together more or less often than expected by chance - correct answer linkage disequilibrium presence of genetically distinct cell lines in the same person - correct answer mosaicism mutation at different loci produce a similar phenotype - correct answer locus hererogeneity different mutations in the same locus produce the same phnotype - correct answer allelic heterogeneity presence of normal and mutated mitochondrial DNA - correct answer heteroplasmy what are an example of allelic heterogeneity - correct answer beta- thalassemia what is the gene issue in beta thalassemia - correct answer beta gene on chromosome 11 gene mutation what is the gene issue in alpha thalassemia - correct answer alpha gene on chromosome 16 gene deletion what is an example of locus heterogeneity - correct answer albinism achondroplasia chromsome affected - correct answer 4- FGFR3 what is the inheritance for achondorplasia - correct answer AD what chromosome is affected in familial adenoamatous polyp - correct answer 5 what is mutated in familial andenomatous polypsis - correct answer APC tumor suppressor gene how do we get sporadic colorectal cancer - correct answer mutation in APC gene what in the syndrome where a person is really friendly to stranger - correct answer williams syndrome what are the facial feature of williams syndrome - correct answer elfin facies what are the Ca issue in willaims syndrome - correct answer hypercalcemia due to increase sensitivity to vitamin D what in the genetics behind williams syndrome - correct answer microdeletion of long arm of chromosome 7 what is the genetics behind cri-du-chat - correct answer microdeletion of short arm of chromosome 5 what 4 things cause activation of the intrinsic pathway - correct answer collagen, basement membrane, activated platelets, and high molecular weight kininogen/ kallikrein what is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis - correct answer autoantibodies to posy synaptic ACh receptor what is type II hypersensitvity - correct answer antibody bind to cell surface, result in cell destruction what is type III hypersensitvity - correct answer antibody-antigen complex, activate complement and release neutrophil what is type I hypersensitvity - correct answer anaphylactic shock, antigen cross link with IgE on presensitized mast cell, result in degranulation what is type IV hypersenstivity - correct answer direct CD 8 kill or CD 4 ID antigen and induce cytokine what are the antibody against lambert- eaton myasthenic syndrome - correct answer autoantibodies to presynaptic Ca channel which decrease ACh release what is the drug used to test for myasthenia gravis - correct answer edorphonoium- anticholinesterase increase ACh how do you treat myasthenia gravis - correct answer pyridostigmine- anticholinesterase, increase ACh what stool type is seen wiht acute mesenteric ischemia - correct answer currant jelly what is the sign of chronic mesenteric ischemia - correct answer food aversion and weight loss what artery is most affected in mesenteric ischemia - correct answer SMA sarcoidosis presentation with x-ray presentation - correct answer shortness of breath enlarged lymph nodes immune mediated, widespread noncaseating granulomas x-ray presentation will show bilateral adenopathy what are the lab values for scaroidosis - correct answer elevated ACE elevated CD4/CD8 ratio in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid what are the calcium findings is sarcoidosis - correct answer hypercalcemia due to increase 1a hydroxylase mediated vitamin D activation in macrophages what is the issue with osteopetrosis - correct answer failure of bone resorption due to defective osteoclast what is the presentation of osteopetrosis - correct answer bone fractre, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia and anemia (due to bone taking up medullary space), vision and hearing issue due to skull being think impinge on nerve why do we get osteopetrosis - correct answer mutations in carbonic anhydrase that impair osteoclast from generating acidic environment needed to reabsorb bone what is the prophylaxis for osteoporosis- in terms of exercise - correct answer regular weight bearing exercise what are AChE inhibitors used in alzhimers - correct answer donepezil galantamine rivastigmine tacrine what is mematine used for - correct answer alizhimers what is the mechanism of action of metamine - correct answer NMDA receptors antagonist- reduce excitoxicity what is clozapine used for - correct answer second generation antipsychotics what are the first generation antipsychotics target - correct answer D2 antagonism what is the mechanism of 2nd generation antipsychotics - correct answer D2 antagonist and blocks serotonin receptors what symptoms can 1st generation anti-psychotics target - correct answer positive symtpoms what symptoms can second generation anti psychotics target - correct answer positive and negative symptoms why can 2nd generation antipsychotics cause drowsiness - correct answer block H1 receptors what are metabolic issues associated with second generation antipsychotic - correct answer end in -pines weight gain diabetes hyperlipidemia what cardiac issue can 2nd generation antipsychotics cause - correct answer QT prolongation what are the unique side effect of clozapine - correct answer agranyloytosis- monitor WBC regularly what is the unique side effect of resperidone - correct answer prolactinemia- due to blockaged of D2 inhibition what is a endocrine side effect 1st gen antipsychotics - correct answer hypeprolactinemia due to dopamine receptor antgonism what medication will we see neuroleptic malignant sydrome and tardive dyskinesia - correct answer first generation anti-psychotics why do we see tardive dyskinesia - correct answer after chronic use of 1st generation antupsychotics what is the MOA of trazadone - correct answer blocks 5-HT2, a1- adrenergic, H1 receptors what is the MOA of bupropion - correct answer increase in NE and dropmine what is bupropion used for - correct answer smoking cessation what is the MOA of varenicline - correct answer nicotinic ACh receptor partial agonist what is the varenicline used for - correct answer smoking cessation weaken the rewarding the effect of nicotine what is secreted in response to hypoglycemia - correct answer glucagon what is the effect of glucagon - correct answer stimulate hepatic glucose production why does hyperammonemia result in coma - correct answer cerebral edema what is the equation for flow rate - correct answer Q= VA Q- flow rate V- velocity A- cross sectional area what is the difference between costrochondritis and pleuirsy - correct answer costrochondritis will have pain with palpation of chest-hurts when there is pressure between the rib and cartilage what is the first step in intracellular killing - correct answer create radical oxygen with NADPH oxidase what is the stages of O2 dependent killed - correct answer O2 converted to O2- via NADPH oxidase O2- converted to H2O2 via superoxide dumitase H2O2 converted to HOCl radical via myeloperoxidase HOCl will then destroy phagosome what will damage in the posterior communicating artery result in - correct answer blown out pupil, down and out eye due to damage to CN III how do we treat salmonella typhi - correct answer ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolone what is the time criteria for brief psychotic disorder - correct answer less than 1 month will have delusions, hallucination, ect what is the time criteria for schizophreniform disorder - correct answer 1-6 months will have delusions, hallucination, ect what is the time criteria for schizoaffective disorder - correct answer more than 2 weeks without major mood episode will have delusions, hallucination, ect PLUS periods of concurrent major mood episode what is clonidine - correct answer a2 agonist what is guanfacine - correct answer a2 agonist what is clonidine/ guanfacine used for - correct answer hypertensive urgency, ADHD, tourette syndrome what is phenoxybenzamine - correct answer irreversible alpha 1 blocker what is VIPoma, what are the action of VIP - correct answer non alpha and non beta islet cell pancreatic tumor increase intestinal water and electrolyte secretion and increase relaxaion of intestinal smooth muscle and spincters what is the signs of VIPoma - correct answer watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, low secretion of acid what do we think a patient has if they have buring abdominal pain that does not get that much better with PPI - correct answer gastrinoma, zollinger ellison syndrome what is the presentation of a patient with tuberous sclerosis - correct answer hamartomas in CNS and skin angiofibroma ash leaf spot cardiac rhabdomyoma- most common primary cardiac tumor in children renal angiomylopoma seizure shagreen patchines increase incidence of subependymal astrocytoma what is the presentation of neurofibromatosis 1 - correct answer cafe au lait spot lisch nodules cutaneous neurofibroma pheochromocytomas optic gliomas what are some biological agents that can be used to treat RA - correct answer TNF-a inhibitors what intestinal nematode aka round worn is associated with respiratory symptoms - correct answer ascaris lumbricoides what ligament has to be cut to get to the spinal cord - correct answer ligamentum flavum what will be seen on gram stain of candida - correct answer peseudohypea- yeast form in the cold what will canidida show in the heat - correct answer germ tubes what is dead space - correct answer area that is ventilated but not perfused what is the presentation of IgA nephropathy - correct answer episodic gross hematuria that occurs concurrently with respiratory of GI tract infections what is the presentation of acute interstitial nephritis - correct answer fever rash hematuria CV tenderness what is the cause of acute interstitial nephritis - correct answer after getting drugs what cancer is associated with lambert-easton myasthenic syndrome - correct answer small cell lung cancer the central retinal artery is a branch of.... - correct answer opthalmic artery how do we cool down the body - correct answer exaporation of sweat what is the pathology of polyarteritis nodosa - correct answer transmural inflammation of the arterial wall and fibrinoid necrosis segmental ischemic necrosis why do we not want to mix alcohol with acetaminophen - correct answer .Alcohol induces the synthesis of CYP2E1 isoenzyme aka a cytochrome p450 enzymes, causing a higher percentage of acetaminophen to be converted to NAPQ1 what happens to LH:FSH and fasting insulin in PCOS - correct answer increase things from this place will be sent to the golgi apparatus - correct answer endoplasmic reticulum what is the function of COPI - correct answer golgi to golgi- retrograde back aka cis of golgi to endoplasmic reticulum what is the function of COPII - correct answer endoplasmic reticulum to back aka cis golgi what is the function of clatherin - correct answer trans-golgi to lysosome plasma membrane to endosome what is the histology of small cell lung cancer - correct answer small dark blue cell positive chromogranin neuron-specific enolase positive aka neural cell adhesion molecule what can be made from small cell lung cancer - correct answer ACTH SIADH Antibodies against presynaptic Ca channels what is the presentation of klinefeler syndrome - correct answer testicular atrophy gynecomastia eunuchoid body shape what is the patho-physiology of klinefelter syndrome - correct answer dysgenesis of seminiferous tubule- results in low inhibin B- which cause an increase FSH abnormal leydig cell function- which cause decrease in testosterone, increase LH, increase estrogen what is the treatment in atropine overdose - correct answer physostigmine- anticholinesterases increase ACh what is transformation - correct answer ability for bacteria to take up naked DNA from environment will not work if DNase is present what will be seen in chronic inflammation - correct answer mononuclear cell like macrophages, lymphocytes , plasma cell fibroblast mediated and collagen deposition what will be seen in granuloma formation - correct answer epithelioid macrophage and giant cell where do we secrete EPO from - correct answer kidney what is the function of vitamin E - correct answer antioxidant, protect RBC and membrane from free radical damage what vitamin def can have neurologic presentation similar to vitamine B12 def wihtout the megaolblastic anemia, hy