NRNP 6552 Final Exam (Version-2) (100 Q & A) (Latest-2023) / NRNP6552 Final Exam:

1. A woman with a gestational age of 37 weeks presents with painless vaginal bleeding, normal vital signs, normal fetal heart tones and an exam that reveals a soft, relaxed uterus, consistent with uterine age. Given this assessment, her bleeding in 3rd trimester is most likely due to: A. Placental abrupt B. Placenta previa C. Membrane rupture D. Acute chorioamnionitis 2. When a pregnant woman takes a teratogenic drug the fetal effects results are seen in: A. Certain target organs in a predictable manner B. Random body systems in an unpredictable manner C. Select organ systems w random outcomes D. A pattern of systemic injury 3. The best choice for medication prescribed for a + Chlamydia culture during pregnancy is: A. Clarithromycin B. Doxycycline C. Azithromycin D. Ofloxacin 4. Susan's glucose screen at 24 weeks' gestation is 160 mg/dl. Which action by the NP is most appropriate in response to this finding? A. Notify Susan of the normal finding on the test. B. Prescribe a low carbohydrate diet. C. Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test D. Refer her to a diabetologist 5. A pregnant patient has an Hgb level of 11 g/dl in the last week of pregnancy. Based on this result the NP should consider which of the following? A. It is a normal finding due to hemodilution