CM Training – AAAE Exam 2023 with complete solutions

Where does TSA have regulatory influences and authority within the terminal? - Answer- 1. Checkpoint operations 2. Airport police response to checkpoints and incidents 3. Unattended bags 4. Unattended vehicles What did the Air Commerce Act (1926) prohibit? - Answer- Using federal funds to build or improve airports. Works Progress Administration (WPA) - Answer- Provided 50% of needed funding. Built over 800 new airports. Air Commerce Act of 1926 created what? - Answer- Aeronautics Branch (soon known as the Civil Aeronautics Admin) under the Dept. of Commerce. Charged with fostering air commerce, establishing air traffic control, licensing for pilots, aircraft certification, establishing airways, and issue and enforce air traffic rules What was the effective beginning of privatized space flight? - Answer- Final flight of the U.S. space shuttle. What does a GA Reliever airport do? - Answer- Relieves a Commercial airport from GA traffic. What is the enplanement threshold for commercial service? - Answer- 2,500 Large hubs have what percentage of U.S. enplanements? - Answer- 70% or more of the enplanements What are the cloud ceiling and visibility requirements for Visual Flight Rules? - Answer- Cloud ceiling: 1,000' Visibility requirements: 3 miles "1000 and 3" What is the entity who is responsible for airport governance? - Answer- The Airport Sponsor. What is the most common airport ownership type in the U.S.? - Answer- Municipalities (cities and counties) Who sets standards for security access control systems? - Answer- The Radio Technical Commission on Aeronautics How many days are required for the Notice of Proposed Rule-Making? - Answer- 30 days What is the directive to FAA personnel on specific subjects and programs? - Answer- The FAA Order What is the method the FAA has found to be the best to extend federal policy to local government units? - Answer- Grant Assurances What is 14 CFR Part 13 Investigation and Enforcement - Answer- The informal complaint system that is filed with the Airport District Office. FAA will investigate and offer to help resolve. If the sponsor is in violation, the FAA provides the opportunity to comply. A Notice of Noncompliance may be issued if the FAA believes the airport is non-compliant. The letter will identify the apparent violation(s), specifies corrective action(s), and gives a deadline. What is 14 CFR Part 16 Rules of Practice for Federally-Assisted Airport Enforcement Proceedings - Answer- The formal complaint system that is filed in Washington DC. It involves financial compliance and reasonable and nondiscriminatory access, but includes all obligations in the Grant Assurances and property deeds. Formal agency finding regarding the compliance status of an airport. Prior to a Part 16 complaint, a person must have initiated and engaged in good faith efforts to resolve informally (Part 13 will work). Deadline driven, including pleadings, investigations, and lawyers If airport is non-compliant, FAA may withhold new grants, withhold payment on existing grants, terminate eligibility for future grants and passenger facility charges; cease and desist orders; civil penalties; or judicial enforcement. What does the Tucker Act do? - Answer- Waives immunity over claims arising out of contracts with the federal government. What agency has the power to make safety related regulations after an aircraft accident? - Answer- The FAA Who produces standards and recommended practices for aviation worldwide? - Answer- The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) What professional industry trade organization represents GA pilots of small aircraft? - Answer- Aircraft Owners & Pilots Association What does Grant Assurance #21 (Compatible Land Use) ensure? - Answer- The sponsor must make a reasonable attempt at compatible land use outside airport property boundaries. Incompatible land is generally residential, schools, hospitals or public health entities, and concert halls. What document must always be up to date to receive FAA funds? - Answer- ALP The ALP must delineate the airport boundaries, all facilities, and identify future development plans. FAA approval represents concurrence in the conformity of design standards and criteria. According to the FAA, where do most conflicts occur in permitted activities (aero or non-aero)? - Answer- Non-aeronautical What are airport tenants and users required to adhere to? - Answer- Rules and Regulations What is the benefit of grant assurances to the airport user? - Answer- Ensures adequate level of safe and effective service What are examples of non-aeronautical revenue sources? - Answer- Concessions, parking lot charges, rental cars, advertising space, industrial park Is a payment to a municipality in excess of the cost acceptable? (eg for police or fire service) - Answer- No. This is an example of a revenue diversion. What is the most common aeronautical charge at a commercial service airport? - Answer- Landing fees. Based on per operation and per weight basis; relatively small portion of an airline operating costs, yet highly contentious during negotiations. What is the FAA's position on the airport fee and rental structure for aeronautical services? - Answer- Rates and fees must be as self-sustaining as possible. What is the FAA's position on the airport fee and rental structure of non-aeronautical services? - Answer- Rates and fees should be Fair Market Value. What type of agreement between the airlines and the airport puts the airlines at the most risk? - Answer- Residual What was the Air Mail Act of 1925, also known as the Kelly Act, and what did it do? - Answer- Authorized the Postmaster General to contract for domestic airmail service with commercial air carriers Only those who use aviation would pay for it Who began the first U.S. air freight service (between Detroit and Chicago)? - Answer- Henry Ford Who carried out most of the commercial related aviation activities before the Air Mail Act? - Answer- The US Army carried mail for the post office What is a Fixed Based Operator? - Answer- FBOs were originally fuel and rest stops for pilots. The buildings were then turned into terminals as aviation grew. What is the American Association of Airport Executives (AAAE)? - Answer- Established in 1928. First airport management trade organization. Consisted of 10 airport directors attending the National Air Races at mines Field (now LAX). Adopted first professional accreditation standards in 1954. Provides lobbying, regulatory services, training, accreditation, and other professional development programs. What was the Aeronautics Branch was reorganized and restructured into? - Answer- Civil Aeronautics Administration (CAA) under the Dept of Commerce What did the Civil Aeronautics Admin (CAA) split into, and what were the duties of each branch? - Answer- CAA maintained Air Traffic Control, Pilot and aircraft certification, Safety enforcement, and Airway development Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB) ensured safety rules, conducting aircraft accident investigations, economic regulation of the airlines, approving air routes, and regulating airfares What was the Development of Landing Areas for National Defence (DLAND) appropriation? - Answer- Secretary of War and Commerce & Secretary of the Navy could acquire land for airport development needed for the war effort. 986 airports built in the US. Post war, 500 airports were declared surplus and handed over to public cities and counties for civil use. Airport sponsor had to promise to make the airport available for public use without discrimination, and to allow the the government to use in the event of a national emergency. What did the Federal Air to Airports Program (FAAP) in 1946 do? - Answer- Provided grant funds for certain projects, mostly RW and TW development. Airport had be in the National airport Plan (NAP) Airports held to previous promises to allow the public to use the airport without discrimination. Federal Aviation Act of 1958 - Answer- Air Commerce Act was repealed, and the Federal Aviation Agency (FAA) was created. The FAA was directed take over rule-making from the CAB, and was responsible for developing a common civil-military system of air navigation and air traffic control When was the FAA moved and renamed to the Federal Aviation Administration? - Answer- Federal Aviation Agency renamed to Federal Aviation Administration in 1966, and put under the newly created Dept of Transportation. Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 - Answer- Created the Airport Development Aid Program (ADAP) and the Planning Grant Program (PGP), expanded the list of eligible projects, created the Part 139 Certification of Airports, created the Aviation Trust Fund. What was the Aviation Trust Fund? - Answer- Created under the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 so that only those who use aviation would pay for aviation, it collected a passenger seat tax, a cargo waybill tax, a fuel tax, and an aircraft registration fee. Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 - Answer- Created the Airport Improvement Program where 75-90% of a project is covered by federal money. Reorganized the National Airport Plan as the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS), establishing airport categories of commercial and GA. Why was the Transportation Security Administration started? - Answer- In response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks. Vision 100 - Century of Aviation Reauthorization Act of 2003 - Answer- Endorsed Next Generation Air Transportation System (NextGen). Multi-faceted series of initiatives designed to make air travel more efficient, secure, and safer. What are the new challenges in aviation? - Answer- 1. Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) 2. Commercial space transportation industry 3. Cybersecurity and integration of NextGen and UAV operations What is the National Airport Plan as the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)? - Answer- Identifies public use airports eligible for federal funds that are critical to US safety. "Wishlist" of what the airport is eligible for. Criteria: airports must be publicly accessible, be commercial service (2,500 enplanements), be a GA reliever, have a USPS contract, be an National Guard base, or meet other conditions. How many airports are there in the US, how many are public use, and how many are on the NPIAS? - Answer- 19,360 nation wide 5,148 public use 3,345 on NPIAS What percentage of worldwide aviation is in the US? - Answer- 40% What three primary measurements does the FAA use on airports? - Answer- Enplanements - a passenger boarding a commercial service aircraft or transferring to another commercial service flight Operations - an aircraft taking off or landing Cargo - measured in annual tonnage moved through the airport What is hub size dependent on? - Answer- percentage of enplanements. A large hub accounts for 70% of passenger enplanements. How many enplanements are needed to be a Primary commercial service airport? - Answer- Over 10,000 What are the 5 types of airports in the US? - Answer- Private - no federal funds Commercial service Cargo service General Aviation and General Aviation Reliever Military What are the four types of GA Airports? - Answer- National (very high levels of activity, approx 200 based aircraft) Regional (high levels of activity, approx 90 based aircraft) Local (moderate levels of activity, approx 33 based aircraft) - "backbone" of GA Basic (low levels of activity, approx 10 based aircraft) What are the three types of military airports? - Answer- Pure military - entirely owned by DOD, and is not regulated by the FAA or TSA. Joint-Use - owned by DOD, both military and civilian aircraft share the airfield, but space is leased for the commercial service airport. Shared-Use - US government owned airport that is co-located with a civil airport, and they share portions of the runways and taxiways. 14 CFR Part 91 General Aviation - Answer- Private flight or general aviation 14 CFR Part 119 - Answer- Requirements for flying for hire 14 CFR Part 121 Operating Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations - Answer- Scheduled air carriers Can only fly into Part 139 airports 14 CFR Part 135 Operating Requirements: Commuter and On Demand Operations - Answer- Air charter or air taxi, certain commuter operations 14 CFR Part 125, Certification and Operations - Answer- Airplanes having a seating capacity of 20+ or a max payload capacity of 6,000 lbs or more 14 CFR Part 380, Public Charters - Answer- One-way or round-trip flight performed by one or more direct air carriers and sponsored by a charter operator. Does not have to meet Part 121 standards. Pilot requirements before a flight - Answer- 1. Check the Airport Facility Directory (aka Chart Supplement) 2. Check NOTAMS 3. Check weather at departure, en route, and forecasted arrival (plus alternate airports in some cases) 4. Flight planning including weights & balances and aircraft performance Part 121 operators and major corporate operators have Flight Dispatchers to "do the math" on the flights Pilot in command has the final say on if the flight goes or not (power of the parking break) Where is Class A airspace? - Answer- Between 18,000 and 60,000 feet Requires Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Air Traffic Control separation Flight plan is required No VFR allowed What are Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? - Answer- See and avoid Flight plan may not be required Lower than 18,000 feet Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) - 1000 feet ceiling and 3 miles visibility What are instrument departure procedures? - Answer- Used to transition aircraft out of terminal area airspace. Allow the pilot to follow a defined flight path to intercept an en route flight path. What are instrument landing approach charts? - Answer- AKA approach plates. Used by pilots to provide guidance down to the runway or air traffic control pattern. What is Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)? - Answer- Procedures used to move aircraft into terminal airspace for transition to landing; STARs are used to simplify communication and understanding during approaches and allows air traffic control to bring aircraft in through arrival gates. What are the three types of runway approaches? - Answer- 1. Visual - approved when the ceiling is 1,000' or greater, and the visibility is 3 statute miles or greater 2. Non-precision - uses one or more NAVAIDs that provide lateral positioning 3. Precision - uses NAVAIDs that provide lateral and vertical positioning What is an instrument approach plate? - Answer- AKA approach chart. A published flight path that ensures clearance over obstacles, sets minimum descent altitudes, and includes procedures for a missed approach. What are the two primary obligations of airport operators? - Answer- 1. Responsibility to the FAA to operate the airport as an essential component of the national aviation system. 2. Responsibility to the local community to minimize negative impacts of the airport's operation. What is an Enterprise Fund? - Answer- A branch of government that operates like a business. Advantages and disadvantages of a municipal airport. - Answer- Advantages - generally better access to municipal resources and funding, such as human resources, purchasing, etc; General Obligation bonds; power to tax; power of eminent domain. Disadvantages - policy makers have less time to spend on airport issues; conflict of interest in decision making; artificial fiscal and personnel constraints. Municipalities that seek to maintain control of the airport, but desire more guidance and expertise, may create an Advisory Board. Advantages and disadvantages of an Airport/Port Authority - Answer- Created through enabling legislation by a municipality, level of authority through legislation (make decisions). Advantages - focused leadership and specialized attention; insulate the management and operation from political influences; serve a metropolitan community better through shared representation or equitable taxation; more business focused; on-scene decision making. Disadvantages - resources and finances may not be readily available in the quantities or levels necessary to provide support. Port Authority operates other forms of transportation or industry. What is privatization? - Answer- The transfer of a typical government function to a private function. Airport Privatization Program - Answer- Transfers the federal obligation, as well as the responsibility for the operation, management, and development of an airport from a public sponsor to a private sponsor. What are the responsibilities of the Airport Executive? - Answer- 1. Charged with operating the airport. 2. May report directly to the sponsor, a division or department head, or a municipal manager/administrator 3. Must understand and balance the dichotomous philosophies of being a public entity and a business enterprise. What is airport management's primary duty? - Answer- The safe, secure, and efficient operation of the airport and all of its facilities What two positions report directly to the board? - Answer- Auditor and legal counsel 14 CFR Part 77, Safe, efficient use and preservation of the navigable airspace - Answer- Obstructions 14 CFR Part 107, Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems - Answer- UAVs 14 CFR Part 150, Airport Noise and Compatibility Planning - Answer- Airport Noise 14 CFR Part 1542, Airport Security - Answer- Airport Security 14 CFR Part 1544, Aircraft Operator Security - Answer- Airline security regs 14 CFR Part 36, Noise Standards - Answer- Plane noise How many regional offices does the FAA have? - Answer- 9 What are FAA's major roles? - Answer- 1. regulating civil aviation to promote safety. 2. Encouraging and developing civil aeronautics, including new technology. 3. Developing and operating an air traffic control system and navigation for both civil and military aircraft. 4. Researching and developing the National Airspace System and civil aeronautics. 5. Developing and carrying out programs to control aircraft noise and other environmental effects of civil aviation. 6. Regulating the US commercial space transportation. What are the 4 lines of FAA business? - Answer- 1. ARP: Office of Airports (Airport District Office, AIP, Part 139, and Alternative Dispute Resolution) 2. ATO: Air Traffic Organization (air traffic control and NAVAIDS) 3. AVS: Aviation Safety (pilot and aircraft certification, Flight Standards District Office) 4. AST: Office of Commercial Space Transportation What are Advisory Circulars? - Answer- Explain intent of a federal regulation Provide guidance and information on a subject Show an acceptable method of competence May be required if "incorporated by reference" What is the Transportation Research Board's Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP)? - Answer- Peer reviewed research on airport management topics, including safety, planning, and operations. What is the National Safe Skies Alliance Program for Applied Research in Airport Security (PARAS) - Answer- Peer reviewed research on airport security topics What does the Radio Technical Commission on Aeronautics regulate? - Answer- Standards for security access control systems What two documents does the TSA put out? - Answer- Security Directives - "have to", provide direction to change security requirements Information Circulars - "don't have to", provide best practices and other information What are Grant Assurances? - Answer- Promises the sponsor makes when it accepts federal money. Trace back to the AP-4 agreements, the Surplus Property Act, commitments in environmental documents, or litigation. Effective means for the FAA to extend federal policy to local governmental units. Balance three public interests: better manage local affairs, meet FAA requirements that money is spent for public air transportation, and they promote social objectives (eg DBE). Good for 20 years, life (if property), or life of an asset. Managed through the Airport Compliance Manual. Risk losing federal funds by being placed on the Airport Noncompliance list if the airport doesn't adhere to them. Grant Assurances essentially cover what? - Answer- 1. Maintain the airport in good and serviceable condition. 2. Use specific lands for non-aero use to generate revenue to support av