CCHT Practice Questions Exam Review For Part 1 Test 2023.

CCHT Practice Questions Exam Review For Part 1 Test 2023. Part 1 1. Which of the following terms indicate a solution that has the same concentration of solutes as blood? a. Atonic b. Isotonic c. Hypotonic d. Hypertonic 2. A patient’s potassium level has been running high between dialysis treatments, so the patient has been working with the renal dietician to restrict potassium in the diet. Which of the fruits should the patient avoid? a. Bananas b. Apples c. Strawberries d. Grapes 3. During osmosis, which of the following movements takes place? a. Solutes move from an area of higher concentration to lower. b. Solutes move from an area of lower concentration to higher. c. Fluid moves from an area of higher concentration to lower. d. Fluid moves from an area of lower concentration to higher. 4. A patient’s granddaughter calls the dialysis center and asks for a progress report on her father, who is a patient in the center. The technician should a. provide the report. b. tell the daughter to ask her father. c. ask the supervisor what to do. d. state that patient information cannot be divulged. 5. If a hematoma forms at the access site where a needle infiltrated, the usual intervention is to apply a. cold compresses. b. hot compresses. c. manual pressure only. d. compression bandage. 6. Which of the following actions by a patient increases the risk of blood clots in a venous access? a. Holding a handbag in the handle on the access side b. Wearing a top with very tight-fitting long sleeves c. Exercising the arm with the access d. Using the access arm to carry out activities of daily living. 7. A patient is very anxious during initial hemodialysis treatment and requires extra attention. When the treatment is completed, the patient offers a $20 tip. The technician should Page 1 a. accept the tip. b. share the tip with other staff. c. politely decline the tip. d. donate the money to the dialysis center. 8. Which of the following statements by a hemodialysis patient suggests that the patient needs more education? a. “Avocados are high in potassium.” b. “I eat small frequent meals to control nausea.” c. “I need to limit my salt intake.” d. “I should stay on a low protein diet.” 9. The inner part of the kidney is the a. medulla. b. calyx. c. pelvis. d. glomerulus. 10. A nephron is comprise of a glomerulus and a a. pyramid. b. calyx. c. papilla. d. tubule. 11. How much urine does a patient with healthy kidneys usually excrete in 24 hours? a. 200 to 500 mL b. 500 to 1000 mL c. 1000 to 2000 mL d. 2000 to 3000 mL 12. When removing soiled gloves, the first glove removed should be a. thrown into the trash. b. grasped in the opposite gloved hand. c. placed in a hazardous waste container. d. placed into a plastic bag for disposal. 13. Which of the following hormone is produced by the kidneys? a. Erythropoietin b. Cortisol c. Aldosterone d. Parathyroid hormone 14. At which stage of chronic kidney disease should a patient begin dialysis? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 15. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that can lead to kidney failure? Page 2 a. Pyelonephritis b. Glomerulonephritis c. Glomerulosclerosis d. Polycystic kidney disease 16. Which of the following complaints by a patient may be an indication of uremia? a. Maculopapular rash b. Itching c. Decreased urination during the night d. Increased libido 17. A patient with a right-sided radiocephalic AV fistula (above the wrist) needs to have blood tests in the lab for a number of different lab tests. The blood should be drawn from the a. AV fistula. b. right hand. c. left antecubital (inner elbow). d. left hand. 18. When setting up hemodialysis equipment, the four things that need to be checked are (1) dialysate, (2) extracorporeal circuit, (3) dialyzer, and (4) a. machine alarms. b. portable digital alarms. c. normal saline. d. Needles. 19. Generally, the optimal dialysate flow rate for hemodialysis should be a. equal to the blood flow rate. b. 1.5 to 2 times the blood flow rate. c. 2 to 2.5 times the blood flow rate. d. 2.5 to 3 times the blood flow rate. 20. A patient is receiving hemodialysis with a dialyzer with an ultrafiltration coefficient (KUF) of 10 and a transmembrane pressure (TMP) of 100 mm Hg. How much fluid should the patient lose per hour of treatment? a. 100 mL b. 500 mL c. 1000 mL d. 1500 mL 21. If a patient has a dialyzer clearance rate of 250 mL/min with 4-hour treatment, the total volume of blood cleared is a. 6 L. b. 60 L. c. 6000 mL. d. 600 L. 22. Under what circumstance can needles be reused for hemodialysis? Page 3 a. After washing and microwaving b. After washing and soaking in alcohol c. After washing and dry-heat sterilization d. Under no circumstances 23. If an emergency (such as a tornado) occurs and patients need to be evacuated, which group of patients should be disconnected from dialysis machines first? a. Patients able to ambulate independently b. Patients furthest from the exit c. Patients who can ambulate with assistance d. Patients who are unable to ambulate 24. For patients on hemodialysis, a 1 kg (2.2 lb.) increase in weight in 24 hours is approximately equivalent to fluid retention of a. 0.5 L b. 1.0 L c. 1.5 L d. 2. 0 L 25. A patient has been advised to avoid foods high in phosphorus. Foods that the patient should be advised to limit include a. dairy products. b. vegetables. c. fruits. d. grains. 26. A patient is scheduled for a serum creatinine test and asks the technician about preparation the day before the test. The patient should be advised to a. avoid excessive exercise. b. avoid food and fluids for 12 hours. c. drink 3 to 4 glasses of water. d. avoid fluids for 6 hours.