PN3_EXAM_3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%

1. A client is learning about cholesterol. The nurse explains that the good cholesterol transports plasma cholesterol away from plaques and to the liver for metabolism. This type of cholesterol is called: • high-density lipoprotein 2. A client has a blood pressure of 124/78 mmHg and a triglyceride level of 160 mg/dL. Based on these results, the nurse knows that the client has: • a prehypertensive blood pressure and a borderline high triglyceride level 3. A client is complaining of chest pain that occurs during exercise. This pain is relieved when the client rests. The nurse realizes that this client is experiencing which type of angina? • Stable angina 4. A client diagnosed with stable angina is undergoing a 12-lead electrocardiogram. Which of the following results is not expected? • ST segment elevation 5. A client is scheduled for a cardiac angiogram. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client about this diagnostic test? • Contrast dye is injected 6. When planning the care of a client diagnosed with stable angina, which of the following would be considered a goal of treatment? • Decrease in ischemia and episodes of angina 7. A client is prescribed a beta-blocker for treatment of coronary artery disease. Which of the following is the client most likely going to be prescribed? • Atenolol 8. A client tells the nurse that using nitroglycerin tablets causes a tingling sensation and a headache. The nurse knows that this is: • Expected 9. A nurse is considering contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following patients is an appropriate candidate for fibrinolytic therapy? • A patient with a history of a motor vehicle accident 1 year ago 10. A client is participating in cardiac rehabilitation and is currently engaging in supervised exercise, counseling, and education. The nurse realizes this client is in which phase of cardiac rehabilitation? • Phase III 11. A client tells the nurse that he ingests an NSAID when the angina pain gets really bad, and it eliminates the pain. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing: • Musculoskeletal pain 12. A client is at risk for coronary artery disease. Which of the following should the nurse instruct as modifiable risk factors for this health condition? (Select all that apply.) • Alcohol consumption • Diabetes mellitus • Low daily fruit intake • Psychosocial index 13. A client is experiencing a sudden onset of chest pain. Which of the following will the nurse do to manage this chest pain? MONA • Administer intravenous Morphine as prescribed • Provide Oxygen • Administer Nitroglycerin as prescribed • Administer Aspirin as prescribed 14. Which of the following will the nurse instruct a client being discharged to home after experiencing an acute myocardial infarction? (Select all that apply.) • Understand cardiac condition • How to manage chest pain • Activity level • Medications • Risk factors 15. The nurse is assessing the pain of a client experiencing angina. Which of the following should be included in this assessment? (Select all that apply.) PQRST • Precipitating event • Quality • Radiation • Severity • Timing Renal 16. The nurse, caring for a client diagnosed with pyelonephritis, realizes that common risk factors for the development of this disorder include all of the following EXCEPT: • orthostatic hypotension 17. A client is diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis. The nurse realizes that an emergency condition that may occur with this diagnosis would be: • compartment syndrome 18. During the admitting assessment process, a client asks, What is oliguria? Based on the nurses knowledge, the best response would be: • Oliguria is a urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours 19. A client is diagnosed with acute renal failure. Which of the following diagnostic studies will the nurse be most concerned with? • Potassium and digitalis levels 20. A client has been prescribed a restricted potassium diet. An appropriate snack for the client would be: • Applesauce 21. A client diagnosed with chronic renal failure is prescribed a diet low in protein. The rationale for this diet is that: • protein sources are broken down and converted to urea, which is then filtered by the kidney 22. A client diagnosed with chronic renal failure asks the nurse, Whats the difference between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis? Which of the following statements best explains the difference? • Hemodialysis uses a graft or fistula and pumps blood through a semipermeable membrane in a hemodialyzer as the filter. Peritoneal dialysis uses the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity as the filter. 23. The nurse would expect that a client recovering from a kidney transplant would be prescribed all the following medications EXCEPT: • Vancomycin (Potential for nephrotoxicity) 24. A client diagnosed with acute renal failure from an intrarenal cause should be instructed to: • avoid using NSAIDs 25. After the nurse provides a client diagnosed with acute renal failure with Kayexalate 30 grams by mouth, the client begins to experience frequent loose bowel movements. Which of the following does this clients response indicate to the nurse? • The client is experiencing a response that is indicative of successful treatment 26. The nurse is assessing circulation through a clients arteriovenous shunt. Which of the following are signs of a patent site? (Select all that apply.) • Positive bruit • Palpable thrill 27. During discharge teaching with a client diagnosed with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, the nurse should stress which of the following points? (Select all that apply.) • Void frequently • Practice good perineal hygiene • Void after intercourse • Take showers 28. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with pyelonephritis. Which of the following are appropriate interventions that the nurse should perform? (Select all that apply.) • Ensure adequate hydration • Monitor vital signs and fluid balance • Provide urinary antiseptics • Monitor electrolytes and creatinine level 29. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following would be considered expected manifestations of this disorder? (Select all that apply.) • Left ventricular dysfunction • Anemia • Constipation • Prickly burning sensation of the extremities (Neuropathy) • Restless legs Endocrine 30. An adult client is complaining of vision changes and difficulty speaking because the tongue is larger. The client also states that his shoes no longer fit. Based on these symptoms, the client is most likely to be diagnosed with: • Acromegaly 31. A client is prescribed medication after recovering from surgery to treat acromegaly. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to see prescribed? • Octreotide (Sandostatin) 20 mg IM every 4 weeks 32. A client, complaining of weight gain, has thin extremities, a buffalo hump, and a protruding abdomen. The nurse realizes that this client is most likely to be diagnosed with which disease process? • Cushings syndrome 33. The nurse is providing instructions to a client receiving treatment for Cushings syndrome. Which of the following instructions would not be appropriate for this client? • Volunteer at the hospital to prevent depression 34. A client tells the nurse that he is so thirsty that he has already consumed four pitchers of water. The clients urine output is 3500 mL in an 8-hour period. The client is recovering from surgery on the pituitary gland. What endocrine disorder is the client most likely experiencing? • Diabetes insipidus 35. The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with Graves disease. Which of the following nursing • Provide frequent meals 36. A client is hospitalized with an ongoing fever. The nurse learns that the client has had a recent infection. Currently the client is restless, diaphoretic, and agitated with the following vital signs: temperature 106F, pulse 114, blood pressure 180/80 mmHg. Which of the following disorders is the client most likely experiencing? • Thyroid crisis 37. A pregnant client is receiving treatment for hyperthyroidism. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to see? • Propylthiouracil 38. Which of the following symptoms would suggest to the nurse that a client is experiencing symptoms of pheochromocytoma? (Select all that apply.) • Severe headache • Palpitations • Profuse sweating Shock 39. The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? Which of the following is not included in the management of this disorder? a. Promoting urine output 40. The nurse, caring for a client diagnosed with shock, realizes that the stage in which the body attempts to remedy the problem by initiating the homeostatic mechanism would be? • Compensatory stage 41. A client experiences a bee sting, complains of difficulty breathing, and shows sign of hypoxia and hypotension. The nurse realizes these are signs of anaphylactic shock, and she should do which of the following first? • Give epinephrine intravenously or via endotracheal tube 42. A client is diagnosed with failure of the left ventricle to provide adequate delivery of oxygen to the body tissues due to a weakened forward pumping function of the heart. The nurse realizes this client is experiencing: • cardiogenic shock 43. To assess if the renal system in a client diagnosed with multisystem failure is functioning properly, the nurse would expect to see urine output of: • 30 mL per hour 44. A client is diagnosed with septic shock. The nurse realizes that the major cause of this type of shock is: • gram-negative bacteria 45. A client is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The nurse should plan interventions to address which of the following potential complications of this disorder? • Myocardial infarction 46. The nurse is concerned that a client will develop neurogenic shock when which of the following is assessed? • Spinal cord injury at T1 47. The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which • Avoid intramuscular injections 48. The nurse is assessing a client for the acute phase of the inflammatory immune response. Which of the following are considered cardinal signs of this response? (Select all that apply.) • Rubor • Tumor • Dolor • Calor