4C0X1 CDC Test Questions with complete solutions

4C0X1 CDC Test Questions with complete solutions Which area is not a basic ethical foundation of trust you must exercise as a mental health technician? Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patient's dignity? Which aspect of doing all of your duty is considered extremely important? Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient? If you touch a patient unnecessarily you are violating? Which of the following is not an example of effective communication Which of the following is not an example of retaliation towards a patient? Which attribute allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior? Which legal liability is considered non-punitive Which liability protects the accountability of the patient and the Air Force Which of these is not considered an intentional tort? A constitutional tort is a violation of? What type of patient admission reduces unfavorable reactions and is the most desirable? What act passed by Congress in 1980 created a Mental Health Bill of Rights? What organization has very specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilian medical or treatment facilities must adhere to? Accreditation findings that raise specific issues are reviewed by the Who conducts Health Services Inspections Which of these is not used to prepare for health services inspection? Which CDC germ-spreading preventative measure is used universally throughout the Air Force? How many years can the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) remain dormant before symptoms develop Which organization must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF)? The somatic nervous system's motor responses are? What slows down the body and helps prepare for more relaxed state, ready for digestion and sleepIn order to ensure that personnel are safe from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses, the Air Force complies with what organization's guidelines? According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention and Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of all of the following except? When lifting or moving a bedridden patient, what part of your body should endure most of the strain? Which of the following is not an element of combustion? When a staff member is involved in or discovers an accident, who initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement? Which type of crisis is often predicted? During which crisis stage does the individual try to use previously used coping mechanisms on his or her current crisis During which crisis stage does the individual realize that attempts to escape the problem fail and move into this stage? Which is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior? What approach should you use when area restriction fails? Which is not considered a seclusion measure? What is the first phase of all the active phase in the assaultive cycle The patient is most likely to assault someone during which phase of the active phase? Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff? The minimum number of staff required to physically restrain a patient is? When physically restraining a patient, who sets the rules for the takedown? Before proceeding with chemical restraints, all of the following questions should be asked except? What is defined as "to make clear distinction; distinguish; differentiate or to act on the basis of prejudice?" Which is not considered a hasty generalization What distance is considered the personal space in a comfort zone Which ethnic group is more likely to use preventive care if it uses culturally appropriate methods, such as ley peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach? In what ethnic group is it likely women neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common? Culturally skilled counselors employ strategies and knowledge for all of the following except? A patient born in 1962 is considered a part of which generational group? Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society? Studies have shown that women are typically over diagnosed with all of the following disorders exceptWhich briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience? Which is not considered an advantage of a guided discussion Which is not considered a disadvantage of a guided discussion? What is the maximum period after a permanent change of station (PCS) that an E-3 has to participate in the required Newcomers Orientation? Which briefing encourages leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explains the referral and treatment process? Using a joke or talking about an incident related to the topic before a briefing is called The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application has been touted as consistently encompassing all off the following elements except? Who is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered based upon the documentation in the health record? What system is used to ensure mental health records are protected from security violations? How long are mental health records maintained after the last date of treatment? Mental health records are prepared for retirement shipment in what order? The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in what section of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) records? What section of the FAP record is used for Supportive Documentation? Which form must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of a patient's admission? Which form is used when a physician wants to request services located outside the unit's normal activities for a patient? The entire budget process for the medical treatment facility is compiled by the? Which budget covers acquisition of land and buildings? What emphasizes the primacy of trust in the relationship between a patient and physician? Which mental health readiness team used to be considered the primary deployable team? The correct number of personnel for a Mental Behavioral Health Rapid Response Team-Psychologist is? The correct number of personnel for a Medical Behavioral Health Rapid Response Team-Nurse is/ In general, a behavioral health team supports a bed-down population of? What provides personnel and equipment necessary for 24-hour staging operations for patients transiting the worldwide Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) system? Which category of stress is difficult for people to cope with and leads to self-devaluation? The body has depleted itself of body energy and immunity during which General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) stage? What Post Traumatic Stress Disorder subtype is defined as symptoms persisting for more than 1 month, but less than 3 months? Which subtype of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) persists beyond 3 months? In which battle fatigue classification does the member stay in the unit to rest and then be restored to full duty? In the discussion on mental health implications for traumatic injuries, the survival of many troops who previously would have dies is attributed to? Which of the following statements regarding amputation from a battlefield injury is true?? During which history might we ask whether or not a person has had an Article 15? Cases that do not have severe combat operational stress reaction (COSR) or behavioral health (BH) disorders are placed in what triage category? Cases that need replenishment in a nonmedical support unit are placed in what triage category? Which combat treatment principle concept states that battle fatigue casualties should be treated in one location? Which combat treatment principles concept impress upon the individual that he or she will return to the unit in a short time? Which of the following is not a general guideline for using BICEPS? Which aeromedical evacuation movement phase provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and to subsequent points of treatment within the combat zoneWhat organization's mission is to receive, shelter, process, and provide medical and nursing care to patients who enter, travel in, or leave the aeromedical evacuation system? Which organization is responsible for coordinating all patient transfers once the mission arrives at the Continental United States (CONUS) reception aerial port?) What ambulatory inpatient aeromedical evacuation class is used for drug or alcohol abuse patients going for treatment? How many major classifications are therein the aeromedical evacuation system? Which term is not a factor that determines one's personality? Which type of genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child conducts himself or herself in a manner which solicits positive responses from others? Which type of genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child seek environments that fit his or her genetic tendencies? Which term is considered a parental influence which can cause damage to a fetus? At what month is the palmer grasp reflex lostBy the end of the second year a child's vocabulary consists of how many words? By the time a child reaches 5 years of age their vocabulary consists of how many words? Around what age do boys experience a growth spurt? During what stage of development do children begin to question parental rules? The majority of physical and cognitive development is completed by what developmental stage? What is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life? What developmental stage is considered a very productive time for work and family? At what age does menopause typically occur in women? During which dimension of self-concept is sense of purpose to the self gained? Who shapes a child's attitudes and beliefs about himself or herself and the world? A person with which attribute is also sensitive and aware of the real self? Using Johari's window and the four panes of self, how much are we aware of in ourselves? Who is considered the father of modern psychology What part of the mind is the source of our emotional pain? According to Freud's theory of personality development, which psychological force is the source of instinctual drives that are sexual and aggressive? Which defense mechanism is used when emotions are aroused in a situation where it would be dangerous to express them? During which of Freud's psychosexual stage does the Oedipus conflict and Electra complex occur? Unsuccessful completion of which stage of psychosocial development leaves the individual withdrawn and estranged?Unsuccessful completion of which stage of psychosocial development leads to compulsive self-restraint or compliance, defiance and willfulness? Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that language was major distinction of which stage of development/ During which of Sullivan's personality developmental stages do adolescents begin to experiences sexual urges? Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that intimacy and sexual urges was the distinction of which stage of development? Who was the first modern theorist to emphasize that infants are actively exploring and trying to master their surroundings from their first breath of life? According to Piaget's stages of Cognitive Development, in which stage does the individual have the ability to reason using abstract concepts? According to Piaget's stages of Cognitive Development, in which stage does the child have the ability to reason like an adult in every way except for reasoning and abstract concepts? Who is credited as being the first to work using the behavioristic approach? Which behaviorist stated the most important determinants of behavior are in the environment and not the individual? Who are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated? Which theory of personality development is focused on people's conscious experiences and perceptions and on freeing them from disabling assumption? Who developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment? Who developed the "Hierarchy of Needs" pyramid? Which of the following is not a basic theme of the existential concept? How many axes are in the DSM-IV-TR multiaxial classificationWhich axis will not have more than one diagnosis? Axis I will always be assumed to be the principle diagnosis unless which axis is identified as such? Which symptom is not one of the general criteria used to asses the presence of a mental disorder? An indication of emotional discomfort consists of depression, anxiety,, and? What is defined as a feeling of strong apprehension or uneasiness, while the source is largely unknown or unrecognized by the individual? Dual disorders is a term used to describe the presence of both a mental disorder and? What is essential in determining the extent of a patient's substance usage? Mental retardation is characterized by an intelligence quotient (IQ) below Which term is not a behavior associated with oppositional defiant disorder? What disorder is characterized by the persistent ingestion of non-nutritional substances after the age of 18 monthsA language disturbance is the primary characteristic of which memory impairment? What memory impairments primary characteristics is a failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function? How many separate personality patterns are seen in patients with personality change due to a general medical condition? What type of personality is exhibited by a patient with a personality change due to a general medical condition demonstrating indifference? A diagnosis of substance dependence can be applied to every class of substance except? Substance dependence is defined as a cluster of criteria occurring any time in what period of time/ A substance-related disorder that is characterized by the development of a temporary reversible substance-specific syndrome resulting from the recent ingestion of or exposure to a substance is called substance? How many minutes does intoxication from an inhalant last? What is the most abused amphetamine? What is the most widely consumed drug in western society? Which drug is considered the most potent psychoactive drug known? At what age does the onset of schizophrenia usually surface? Patients with disorder symptoms lasting at least month, but less than 6 months, have likely been diagnosed with/ Which subtype of a delusion disorder has a prominent theme of the individual being treated maliciously in some way? Which subtype of a delusional disorder has a prominent theme that a person, usually of higher status, is in love with the patient? In which subtype of delusional disorder is the patient convinced that he or she possesses some extraordinary, unidentified talent or insight? Which term is not a subtype for bipolar disorder? Which anxiety disorder is characterized by uncontrollable and unreasonable worry? Which anxiety disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of intense apprehension, terror, and impending doom? Which disorder best describes a patient who reports loss or alteration of physical functioning that suggests a physical disorder, but in fact is related to the expression of a psychological conflict? Which somatoform disorder is preoccupied with some imagined defect in physical appearance? The factitious disorder that is also called Munchausen Syndrome Has? Which term describes the inability to form new memories after the condition producing the amnesia occursWhich term describes a period of amnesia where the patient appears to be conscious and makes rational decisions but no memory of the period of recovery? Which term is not one of the of a normal sexual cycleWhich paraphilia is distinguished by recurrent sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving the use of nonliving objectsWhich paraphilia involves the sexual fantasy or arousal by touching or rubbing against an unsuspecting or non-consenting victim? Emptying the stomach by induced vomiting or emptying the bowels by induced evacuation with enemas or laxatives is called? Which parasomnia was previously referred to as dream anxiety disorder? Which disorder is defined as individuals who have a severe discrete episode of loss of control of aggressive impulses resulting in serious assaultive acts or destruction of property that are grossly out of proportion to the precipitating stressors? A disorder where individuals repeatedly pull out their hair is called? A person experiencing symptoms of nervousness, worry, and jitteriness has an adjustment disorder with? Instability in a variety of areas, including interpersonal behavior, mood, and self-image describes a personality disorder that is called? Which personality disorder is characterized by overly dramatic, reactive, intensely expressed behavior, and have disturbances in interpersonal relationships? Which personality disorder is characterized by frequent suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, jealousy, envy, and an excessive sense of self-importance? Which personality disorder is characterized by individuals who have a defect in their capacity to form social relationships evidenced by the absence of warm and tender feelings for others and an indifference to praise, criticism, and the feelings of others? Which of the following drugs is often given to patients who are withdrawing from alcohol? Which substance is not considered an antidepressant? What drug is most often used by people who successfully complete suicide? Which V code is used when the focus of attention or treatment is an interpersonal problem that apparently is not due to a mental disorder? Which V code is used when the focus of attention or treatment is on rivalry between brothers and sisters to such degree it disrupts normal family functioning? Which V code focus involves adjusting to moving to another country and attempting to fit into unfamiliar surroundings? What kind of child neglect is characterized by failure to provide appropriate nourishment, shelter, and clothing? What form of child sexual maltreatment is characterized by the victim being made to participate in the sexual gratification of another person without direct physical contact between them? Which one of the following is not a common factor in violent families? Who is responsible for developing installation policy and procedures to ensure victim safety? Who can provide assistance in maltreatment incidents through the Victim and Witness Assistance Program? What is the proper term of identifying the individual who may have committed an act of family violence? Within how many days of assuming command do commanders and first sergeants receive Family Advocacy Program (FAP) orientation? Which disaster period is sometimes called the recoil period? What s step one of the pre-exposure preparation training? What is the final phase of a group informational briefing? What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotion, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient? Which of the following is not an attending behavior? What interview process skill requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement? What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words? What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self-awareness? When reviewing a patient record what can contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint? As a Mental Health Journeyman, you have access to all of the following records for the self-referred patient except? A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the commander-directed individual's? Which is not a key area of a patient's social history? What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patient's capabilities? When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the following areas are you trying to determine if the patient has developed tolerance? When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage? What should be very limited in the MSE? Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the MSE? Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range of emotions? What would you be assessing if if you asked a client about something he or she said previously during the interview? What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar? What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as a misperception or misrepresentation of real external stimuli? Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic inspiration to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence? Which element of MI validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience? In MI, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the? When should acute intoxication or signs of severe withdrawal be addressed? What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse? In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic conditions that may affect treatment? Which dimension of assessment is used to identify dangerous psychosocial factors that pose a threat or exacerbate stressor, triggers, or likelihood of relapse? When discussing priority of care, under which beneficiary type group does the active duty service member? In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient? Which is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission? When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned in to the? The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except? Who owns the OPR? What venue is not allowed access to medical records without the patient's consent? Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information? Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP? The Mental Health Clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the? Which act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients? What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specific rights and ensuring compliance nationwide? Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model? According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses? According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, in which type of projection does the user attribute unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others? During which stage of alcoholism is there a significant increase in frequency and amount of alcohol consumed? When a patient "burns bridges" what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost? It is considered unethical or illegal for Mental Health Journeymen to provide counseling for all of the above except? What area of the biopsychosocial essential features explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance use/abuse? The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all of the following except? What effects do inhalants have on the CNS? What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug? What is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease? Which chemically dependent family member's role is to maintain appropriate appearances to the outside world? What is common denominator in every chemically dependent family? When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's? Who is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and providing supervision of psychological tests? Which behavior occurs in response to a specific test question? What is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test session? What format for reporting a psychological test session is the least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores? Patient responses on the BAI should reflect what period of time? How long is the administration time for the BAI? The BDI II is suitable for what patients over the age of? Patient responses on the BDI II should reflect what period of time? The MCMI III is suitable for patients over the age of? High scores on the MCMI III scale are indicative of a patient who is incapable of functioning in the daily routine of day-to-day activities. Which MCMI III scale is designed to measure responses which appear unusually self-disclosing? According to the Cannot Say (?) validity scale, how many omissions in the MMPI II will make the inventory highly suspect or even invalid? How many minutes are allotted for each subtest on the SILS? What does the CQ estimate on the SILS? The WAIS III is suitable for patients over the age of? Which WAIS III subtest asks the patient to solve a series of math problems mentally and respond orally? Each SUAT is transmitted via the Internet to the? Who manages the SUAT information? All of the following are elements to consider when interpreting the OQ-45.2 except the? If a patient has made an attempt to resolve his or her problem and has failed in the past, this is recognized as a? As a minimum, how many strengths and weaknesses should be identified for each patient? What is considered the very basic of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is characterized by the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging? What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is often difficult for substance abuse/dependent individuals, or individuals with severe mental disorders? What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others? What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs represents an individual who has reached his or her maximum potential? What need is not considered a deficiency need? What do short-term goals provide for the patient? What do long-term goals suggest for the patient? Every goal must have at least how many objectives? Goals should not be? Which determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic? What is the leading cause of relapse? It is well documented that treatment outcomes are based upon the patient's? Reconstructing a comprehensive detailing of the patient's substance use history helps? During what stage of treatment does termination of discharge planning begin? What action must occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship? What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people? Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient? What is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan? What is not a purpose of assessment during the treatment process? What must you use to measure treatment progress? What is one of the most self-defeating beliefs for a beginning counselor?. Which is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient? What is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity? What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual? Which is not one of the common stages of counseling? During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his or her primary problem and tentatively begin goal setting. Which cognitive distortion is best defined as extreme contradictory qualities (everything is either all good or all bad)? Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without supporting information? Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and often disclose his or her feelings regarding mortality, responsibility, and accountability? What is not one of Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis? In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood, and inconsistent and often leaves the receiver what an impossible conclusion to an answer? In strategic family therapy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self-image? In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient encouraged to take control of his or her internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses? In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient walked through the least anxiety-provoking events to gradually increasing levels of events through imagery? What group permits patients to join and finish at different times? How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage? Which group usually is structured in nature and time-limited for a specific number of sessions, and typically has a closed membership? What is always considered a primary concern when you discuss group participation? During which stage of the group process should you establish the basic ground rules for participation in group? During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of merging personalities subsided? During which stage of group will dependencies between group members and the facilitator emerge or group members will attempt to introduce new "bombshell" material? Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe the extremely shy patient? What common problems tend to occur the longer group continues? Conflicts can be beneficial if used as a tool in group if it is used to do all of the following except? The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the? When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide the overview? What is not one of the core components of case management? Who is the greatest influence in our lives besides family Who is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment? Who chairs the treatment team (TT) meetings? How many duty days does the Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment Program manager (ADAPTPM) have to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office? = How many visits for evaluation are civilian employees authorized free of charge at the base substance abuse clinic? Which of the following agencies did the AF join forces with to conform to the DOD directive to establish standardized criteria for selection of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors? How many continuing education units (CEU) are required to retain certification during each three-year certification? Which of the 12 core functions is described as the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program? Which of the 12 core functions is described as relating with in-house staff or outside professionals to assure comprehensive, quality care for the client? Who notifies the applicants of the results of the Certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse Counselor (CADAC) written examination? Understanding which of the following greatly impacts the quality of work or product which you will be evaluated by? Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) specifically outlines not only the education and certification requirements for the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC), but also the required supervision? The certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor's (CADAC) competency assessment must be performed how many times per month and documented in their training record? What is not one of the critical success factors? What percentage of all formal mental health care is provided by primary care managers?