NR 511 WEEK 5 QUIZ Differential Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum Verified 100% A+

NR 511 WEEK 5 QUIZ Attempt Time Score LATEST Attempt 1 15 minutes 15 out of 15 Score for this quiz: 15 out of 15 Submitted Feb 8 at 12:35pm This attempt took 15 minutes. Question 1 1 / 1 pts A 55-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of left hand and wrist pain and swelling after a slip and fall on the ice yesterday. On examination, the clinician notes tenderness at the “anatomical snuffbox.” This finding most likely indicates which of the following? Correct! Scaphoid fracture. Ulnar styloid fracture. Hamate fracture. Radial head fracture. There is tenderness over the “anatomical snuffbox” in a scaphoid (aka navicular) fracture, the most common injury of the carpal bones. Poor blood supply puts the scaphoid bone at risk of avascular necrosis; therefore, wrist pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, even without history of antecedent trauma, warrant a wrist x-ray. Question 2 1 / 1 pts A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic for follow-up from the emergency department, where he was seen for right forearm pain 3 days ago. He works as a carpenter and is right hand dominant. He states he was diagnosed with right forearm tendinitis and is not sure what this means. As part of teaching, the clinician explains that the condition is caused by inflammation of one or more of the tendons. Which of the following describes tendons? Correct! The collagen fibers that connect muscle to bone. The pouches of synovial fluid that cushion bone and other joint structures. The ropelike bundles of collagen fibrils that connect bone to bone. The fibrocartilaginous disks that separate bony surfaces. Tendons are the collagen fibers that connect muscle to bone. Question 3 1 / 1 pts A conservative approach is recommended in the initial approach to the management of low back pain. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment plan for a 32-year-old obese male (BMI 33) diagnosed with an acute lumbar strain? Correct! Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs). Bedrest. Surgery. Epidural Steroid Injections (ESI). It has been proven that rest has little to no effect on the resolution of LBP. Patients should do whatever activities are tolerable. Almost 90% of cases resolve within 1 to 6 weeks thus the initial management should include non-pharmacologic (masage, heat, etc.), pharmacological (NSAIDs, short term use of muscle relaxants) and activity. Surgery and ESI are not indicated in the initial management of LBP. Question 4 1 / 1 pts A 10-year-old male presents to the clinic after jumping off a 2-foot wall, twisting his foot and ankle upon landing. His ankle x-ray demonstrates a fracture of the distal tibia, over the articular surface, through the epiphysis and physis. Based on the Salter-Harris classification of growth plate injuries, the clinician knows that this is a ______? Salter-Harris V fracture. Correct! Salter-Harris III fracture.