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pharmacology_ati_exam_questions_answers__1_Chapter 01: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse is writing a nursing diagnosis for a plan of care for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which statement reflects the correct format for a nursing diagnosis? a. Anxiety b. Anxiety related to new drug therapy c. Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as “I’m upset about having to test my blood sugars.” d. Anxiety related to new drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as “I’m upset about having to test my blood sugars.” ANS: D Formulation of nursing diagnoses is usually a three-step process. “Anxiety” is missing the “related to” and “as evidenced by” portions of defining characteristics. “Anxiety related to new drug therapy” is missing the “as evidenced by” portion of defining characteristics. The statement beginning “Anxiety related to anxious feelings” is incorrect because the “related to” section is simply a restatement of the problem “anxiety,” not a separate factor related to the . DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: General MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 7. When reviewing the mechanism of action of a specific drug, the nurse reads that the drug works by selective enzyme interaction. Which of these processes describes selective enzyme inte a. raction? The drug alters cell membrane permeability. b. The drug’s effectiveness within the cell walls of the target tissue is enhanced. c. The drug is attracted to a receptor on the cell wall, preventing an enzyme from binding to that receptor. d. The drug binds to an enzyme molecule and inhibits or enhances the enzyme’s action with the normal target cell. ANS: D With selective enzyme interaction, the drug attracts the enzymes to bind with the drug instead of allowing the enzymes to bind with their normal target cells. As a result, the target cells are protected from the action of the enzymes. This results in a drug effect. The actions described in the other options do not occur with selective enzyme interactions. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: General MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 8. When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein bound. Assuming that the patient’s albumin levels are normal, the nurse would expect which result, as compared to a medication that is not highly protein bound? a. Renal excretion will be faster. b. The drug will be metabolized quickly. c. The duration of action of the medication will be shorter. d. The duration of action of the medication will be longer. ANS: D Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins are characterized by longer duration of action. Protein binding does not make renal excretion faster, does not speed up drug metabolism, and does not cause the duration of action to be shorter. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 9. The patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet? a. Under the tongue b. On top of the tongue c. At the back of the throat d. In the space between the cheek and the gum ANS: A Drugs administered via the sublingual route are placed under the tongue. Drugs administered via the buccal route are placed in the space between the cheek and the gum; oral drugs are swallowed. The other options are incorrect. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 10. The nurse is administering medications to the patient who is in renal failure resulting from end- stage renal disease. The nurse is aware that patients with kidney failure would most likely have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase? a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Metabolism d. Excretion ANS: D The kidneys are the organs that are most responsible for drug excretion. Renal function does not affect the absorption and distribution of a drug. Renal function may affect metabolism of drugs to a small extent. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 11. A patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid medications around the clock to keep him comfortable as he nears the end of his life. Which term best describes this type of therapy? a. Palliative therapy b. Maintenance therapy c. Empiric therapy d. Supplemental therapy ANS: A The goal of palliative therapy is to make the patient as comfortable as possible. It is typically used in the end stages of illnesses when all attempts at curative therapy have failed. Maintenance therapy is used for the treatment of chronic illnesses such as hypertension. Empiric therapy is based on clinical probabilities and involves drug administration when a certain pathologic condition has an uncertain but high likelihood of occurrence based on the patient’s initial presenting symptoms. Supplemental (or replacement therapy) supplies the body with a substance needed to maintain normal function. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 12. The patient is complaining of a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest? a. A capsule b. A tablet c. An enteric-coated tablet d. A powder ANS: D Of the types of oral medications listed, the powder form would be absorbed the fastest, thus having a faster onset. The tablet, the capsule, and, finally, the enteric-coated tablet would be absorbed next, in that order. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 13. The nurse will be injecting a drug into the fatty tissue of the patient’s abdomen. Which route does this describe? a. Intradermal b. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular d. Transdermal ANS: B Injections into the fatty subcutaneous tissue under the dermal layer of skin are referred to as subcutaneous injections. Injections under the more superficial skin layers immediately underneath the epidermal layer of skin and into the dermal layer are known as intradermal injections. Injections into the muscle beneath the subcutaneous fatty tissue are referred to as intramuscular injections. Transdermal drugs are applied to the skin via an adhesive patch. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Remembering (Knowledge) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which drugs would be affected by the first-pass effect? (Select all that apply.) a. Morphine given by IV push injection b. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) elixir d. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) tablets e. Transdermal nicotine patches f. Esomeprazole (Nexium) capsules g. Penicillin given by IV piggyback infusion ANS: C, D, F Orally administered drugs (elixirs, tablets, capsules) undergo the first-pass effect because they are metabolized in the liver after being absorbed into the portal circulation from the small intestine. IV medications (IV push and IV piggyback) enter the bloodstream directly and do not go directly to the liver. Sublingual tablets and transdermal patches also enter the bloodstream without going directly to the liver, thus avoiding the first-pass effect. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: General MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies COMPLETION 1. A drug dose that delivers 250 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life. ANS: 125 mg A drug’s half-life is the time required for one half of an administered dose of a drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%. Therefore, one half of 250 mg equals 125 mg. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Chapter 03: Lifespan Considerations MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester of pregnancy for which reason? a. Decreased fetal surface area b. Increased placental surface area c. Enhanced blood flow to the fetus d. Increased amount of protein-bound drug in maternal circulation ANS: C Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester as a result of enhanced blood flow to the fetus. The other options are incorrect. Increased fetal surface area, not decreased, is a factor that affects drug transfer to the fetus. The placenta’s surface area does not increase during this time. Drug transfer is increased because of an increased amount of free drug, not protein- bound drug, in the mother’s circulation. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: General MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. The nurse is monitoring a patient who is in the 26th week of pregnancy and has developed gestational diabetes and pneumonia. She is given medications that pose a possible fetal risk, but the potential benefits may warrant the use of the medications in her situation. The nurse recognizes that these medications are in which U.S. Food and Drug Administration pregnancy safety category? a. Category X b. Category B c. Category C d. Category D ANS: D Pregnancy category D fits the description given. Category B indicates no risk to animal fetus; information for humans is not available. Category C indicates adverse effects reported in animal fetus; information for humans is not available. Category X consists of drugs that should not be used in pregnant women because of reports of fetal abnormalities and positive evidence of fetal risk in humans. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control 3. When discussing dosage calculation for pediatric patients with a clinical pharmacist, the nurse notes that which type of dosage calculation is used most commonly in pediatric calculations? a. West nomogram b. Clark rule c. Height-to-weight ratio d. Milligram per kilogram of body weight formula ANS: D The milligram per kilogram formula, based on body weight, is the most common method of calculating doses for pediatric patients. The other options are available methods but are not the most commonly used. Height-to-weight ratio is not used. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Remembering (Knowledge) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. The nurse is assessing a newly admitted 83-year-old patient and determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. Which statement most accurately illustrates polypharmacy? a. The patient is experiencing multiple illnesses. b. The patient uses one medication for an illness several times per day. c. The patient uses over-the-counter drugs for an illness. d. The patient uses multiple medications simultaneously. ANS: D Polypharmacy usually occurs when a patient has several illnesses and takes medications for each of them, possibly prescribed by different specialists who may be unaware of other treatments the patient is undergoing. The other options are incorrect. Polypharmacy addresses the medications taken, not just the illnesses. Polypharmacy means the patient is taking several different medications, not just one, and can include prescription drugs, over-the-counter medications, and herbal products. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 5. The nurse is aware that confusion, forgetfulness, and increased risk for falls are common responses in an elderly patient who is taking which type of drug? a. Laxatives b. Anticoagulants c. Sedatives d. Antidepressants ANS: C Sedatives and hypnotics often cause confusion, daytime sedation, ataxia, lethargy, forgetfulness, and increased risk for falls in the elderly. Laxatives, anticoagulants, and antidepressants may cause adverse effects in the elderly, but not the ones specified in the question. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control 6. For accurate medication administration to pediatric patients, the nurse must take into account which criteria? a. Organ maturity b. Renal output c. Body temperature

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lOMoAR cPSD| 13951022




ATI PHARMACOLOGY 2019 Verified
Answers Graded A CHAMBERLAIN

Wishing you a success A+

, lOMoAR cPSD| 13951022




ATI PHARMACOLOGY



1. A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse
should include that aspirin is contraindicated for children who have a viral infection due
to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?
a. Reye's syndrome
b. Visual disturbances
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Wilm's tumor
ANS: A
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure with an AV
fistula for hemodialysis and new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following
therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Reduces blood pressure
b. Inhibits clotting of fistula
c. Promotes RBC production
d. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
ANS: C
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and reports a headache. Which
of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
a. Ibuprofen (NSAIDS)
b. Naproxen (NSAIDS)
c. Aspirin (NSAIDS)
d. Acetaminophen (anlagesics)
ANS: D
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should
monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Insomnia
b. Hypotension
c. Bleeding
d. Constipation
ANS: C
5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The
nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as
contraindication to ceftriaxone?
a. Gentamicin
b. Clindamycin
c. Piperacillin
d. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethroprim
ANS: C



1

, lOMoAR cPSD| 13951022




ATI PHARMACOLOGY


6. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about metoclopramide. The
nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following conditions is a
contraindication to this medication?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Intestinal obstruction
c. Glaucoma
d. Low blood pressure
ANS: B
7. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat
schizophrenia. The client has a mask like facial expression and is experiencing
involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the
nurse anticipate administering?
a. Amantadine
b. Bupropion (aytpical antidepressant)
c. Phenelzine (MAOI)
d. Hydroxyzine (Antihistamine)
ANS: A
8. A nurse is administering subQ epinephrine for a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Hypotension
b. Hyperthermia
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Tachycardia
ANS: D
9. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has UTI and new prescription for
phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates the need for further teaching?
a. If the phenazopyridine upsets my stomach, I can take it with meals.
b. The phenazopyridine will relieve my discomfort, but the cipro will get rid of the
infections.
c. I need to drink2 liters of fluid per day while I am taking cipro.
d. I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color.
ANS: D
10. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime
to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following
adverse effects?
a. Ecchymosis
b. Decreased urine output
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Dizziness
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