TEST BANK FOR HUMAN DEVELOPMENT: A LIFE-SPAN VIEW 8TH EDITION ROBERT V. KAIL JOHN C. CAVANAUGH

[COMPANY NAME] [Company address] TEST BANK FOR HUMAN DEVELOPMENT: A LIFE-SPAN VIEW 8TH EDITION ROBERT V. KAIL JOHN C. CAVANAUGH TEST BANK FOR HUMAN DEVELOPMENT: A LIFE-SPAN VIEW 8TH EDITION ROBERT V. KAIL JOHN C. CAVANAUGH ISBN-10: 9 ISBN-13: 4831 Table Of Contents 1. The Study of Human Development. Part I: PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT, INFANCY, AND EARLY CHILDHOOD. 2. Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal Development, and Birth. 3. Tools for Exploring the World: Physical, Perceptual, and Motor Development. 4. The Emergence of Thought and Language: Cognitive Development in Infancy and Early Childhood. 5. Entering the Social World: Socioemotional Development in Infancy and Early Childhood. Part II: SCHOOL-AGE CHILDREN AND ADOLESCENTS. 6. Off to School: Cognitive and Physical Development in Middle Childhood. 7. Expanding Social Horizons: Socioemotional Development in Middle Childhood. 8. Rites of Passage: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence. 9. Moving Into the Adult Social World: Socioemotional Development in Adolescence. Part III: YOUNG AND MIDDLE ADULTHOOD. 10. Becoming an Adult: Physical, Cognitive, and Personality Development in Young Adulthood. 11. Being With Others: Forming Relationships in Young and Middle Adulthood. 12. Work, Leisure, and Retirement. 13. Making It in Midlife: The Biopsychosocial Challenges of Middle Adulthood. Part IV: LATE ADULTHOOD. 14. The Personal Context of Later Life: Physical, Cognitive, and Mental Health Issues. 15. Social Aspects of Later Life: Psychosocial, Retirement, Relationship, and Societal Issues. 16. The Final Passage: Dying and Bereavement. 1. The scientific study of human development can best be described as *a. multidisciplinary b. focused on groups rather than individuals c. non-theoretical d. emphasizing stability over change 2. Which term does not belong in this group? a. experiential b. nurture c. environmental *d. hereditary 3. Dr. Kim takes a strong nature position with regard to the origins of intellectual disabilities. Therefore, she would most likely hypothesize that her son’s intellectu al disability (formally known as mental retardation) is due to a. her parenting style *b. his genes c. his exposure to a toxic chemical prior to birth d. his exposure to Rubella prior to birth 4. The notion that development is best described in terms of a series of abrupt s hifts in behavior best fits with the approach. a. nature b. nurture c. continuity *d. discontinuity 5. Cleo, a director of a daycare, uses terms like “pre-K,” “K-3,” and the “upper-ele mentary.” These ideas are most compatible with a view. a. context-specificity b. hereditary c. continuity *d. discontinuity 6. Dr. Fletcher is attempting to determine whether adult criminals were rule-break ers throughout their childhood or whether they suddenly turned to a life of crime. Her research is most concerned with which issue of human development? a. nature versus nurture b. universal versus context-specific development c. biological versus sociocultural forces *d. continuity versus discontinuity 7. Mustafa is interested in determining whether children develop virtually the sa me way in Algeria as they do in other parts of the world. Mustafa’s research deals primarily with the issue of human development. a. psychological versus biological forces *b. universal versus context-specific development c. nature versus nurture d. continuity versus discontinuity 8. When Clarisse says, “It doesn’t matter if they are French, Swedish, or Chinese, kids are kids,” she is espousing a position concerning human development. a. discontinuous *b. universal c. nurture d. context-specific 9. Viviana notices that children seem to mature socially much faster in Costa Ric a than in the Canada. Viviana is most likely to support a position regarding human development. a. nature b. discontinuous *c. context-specific d. continuous 10. Lotte is listening to a lecture in which her professor states, “Genetic and cult ural factors are important, but they alone cannot explain the development of hum an beings.” Lotte’s professor seems to be supporting the *a. biopsychosocial framework b. position that development is continuous c. notion of universality d. concept of discontinuity 11. Because Dr. Bryant is interested in researching how people of different ages are affected by events, it would be most accurate to say that Dr. Bryant is most in terested in studying forces. a. psychological b. biological *c. life-cycle d. sociocultural 12. When asked why her sister Yvonne ended up in jail, Penny says, “She was al ways a mean, aggressive person. She really liked hurting people.” Penny is relying on forces to explain Yvonne’s development. a. sociocultural b. normative age-graded c. normative history-graded *d. psychological 13. Benoit is interested in studying the effects of various biological forces on hu man development. Which topic is probably of least interest to him? *a. cognition b. brain maturation c. menopause d. exercise 14. The field of gives us information about how the four developmental force s interact with each other. a. biology *b. neuroscience c. anthropology d. sociology 15. Which item does not constitute a “psychological force”? a. perception b. intelligence c. personality *d. heredity 16. Julianna is interested in studying how family relationships affect development. Julianna is probably most interested in studying influences. a. psychological *b. sociocultural c. non-normative d. biological 17. Daisy and Rose are identical twins who were separated at birth. Daisy was rai sed in the United States, whereas Rose spent her childhood in Austria. Which forc e would likely explain most of the differences between their behaviors as teens? a. psychological b. nature-based c. biological *d. sociocultural 18. Your friend David has decided to start studying human development because he hates studying biology. According to your text, will David find happiness in his new area of interest? a. Yes, because he can focus on psychological factors and ignore sociocul tural and biological factors. b. Yes, but only if he enjoys studying sociocultural factors. *c. No, because studying biological influences is a necessary component i n understanding development. d. No, because normative age-graded influences are all biological. 19. What is a problem encountered by researchers assessing the effects of socio cultural forces? a. the lack of genetic distinction between individuals from different racial b ackgrounds b. culture appears to have little impact on cognitive development *c. changing ethnic labels (e.g., black American to African American) d. the inability to apply results to the population being studied 20. Marcelia has been promoted and is moving her family to a new city in a differ ent part of the country. Though four-year-old Fernando is very happy and makes th e transition easily, 12-year-old Jorge is unhappy and has a very difficult time adjus ting to the move. Both children generally adapt well to change. Which single set of factors best explains the different responses of Fernando and Jorge to the move? a. biological factors b. sociocultural factors c. personality factors *d. life-cycle factors 21. When Alfonso says, “It would have been tough to be a father at age 21, but b eing one at age 28 is super,” he is noting the important role that factors playin human development. a. biological *b. life-cycle c. sociocultural d. psychological 22. Which statement best exemplifies the basic premise of life-cycle forces? a. Biological forces play a small role once a person reaches puberty. b. Unconscious desires are the basis for most human behavior. *c. Early experiences may influence behavior throughout one’s developme nt. d. The forces that influence human behavior are too complex to identify th rough empirical research. 23. Jamaal is a second-grade teacher who notices that his students behave diffe rently from the fourth-graders during recess. He comes up with several connected ideas to explain why the two groups behave differently. Jamaal ’s ideas would bes t be described as a(n) . a. experiment *b. theory c. study d. mesosystem 24. Psychodynamic theories place the least emphasis on the portion of the biopsychosocial framework. a. life-cycle b. psychological c. sociocultural *d. biological 25. When asked to explain why teenage gang membership is rising, Dr. Yale resp onds, “Generally speaking, these children are driven by conflicts between what th ey wish to do and what society wishes them to do.” It is most likely that Dr. Yale would be a proponent of theory. *a. psychodynamic b. social cognitive c. ecological d. cognitive-developmental 26. Who is most associated with psychosocial theory? *a. Erikson b. Bandura c. Watson d. Freud 27. The epigenetic principle is a key component of theory. a. social cognitive b. ecological c. information-processing *d. psychosocial 28. Nemo wishes to leave home and begin an adventure that will challenge his s kills as a person and lead to a better understanding of himself. According to Erik Erikson, Nemo is in which stage of psychosocial development? a. generativity vs. stagnation *b. identity vs. identity confusion c. autonomy vs. shame d. basic trust vs. mistrust 29. The argument that each psychosocial strength has its own special age period of specific importance is the cornerstone of theory of development. a. Bandura’s *b. Erikson’s c. Skinner’s d. Vygotsky’s 30. How would Erik Erikson respond to the statement, “A midlife crisis is a norma l part of the human life-cycle”? *a. He would agree. b. He would disagree and point out that there is no “normal” progression o f human development. c. He would disagree and point out that “crises” are not a normal part of h uman development. d. He would say nothing since he focused on development between birth a nd adolescence. 31. The basic premise of is that the consequences of a behavior determinethe likelihood of the behavior being repeated in the future. a. the life-span perspective b. the epigenetic principle c. universal development *d. operant conditioning 32. After completing his history assignment, Nico is excused from having to wash the dishes, a task he detests. Nico’s parents are attempting to use to increa se Nico’s studying. a. positive reinforcement b. punishment c. extinction *d. negative reinforcement 33. Lynne always wants to visit her grandparents because they give her new toys when she visits. The grandparents have her visiting behavior. *a. reinforced b. extinguished c. punished d. extinguished 34. In operant conditioning theory, reinforcement is to punishment as *a. increasing is to decreasing b. giving is to taking c. unwanted is to wanted d. good is to bad 35. Zhang is attempting to alter the behavior of his son by controlling the conseq uences of his son’s actions. Zhang is practicing a. social learning theory b. negative reinforcement *c. operant conditioning d. ecological theory 36. An effective punishment a. causes some physical pain b. follows a reinforcer *c. reduces the likelihood that a behavior will occur in the future d. eventually becomes ineffective 37. Morticia finds that whenever she talks to her daughter about her obnoxious b ehavior, the obnoxious behavior increases in frequency. Apparently, Morticia’s talk s are her daughter’s obnoxious behavior. a. punishing *b. reinforcing c. suppressing d. having no effect on 38. Dr. Gauche likes to make fun of student comments in class. She finds that e very time she does this, students make fewer comments the rest of the class peri od. Apparently, Dr. Gauche’s jokes are the students for talking in class. *a. punishing b. negatively reinforcing c. positively reinforcing d. imitating 39. Imitation is most closely related to the concept of a. positive reinforcement b. life-cycle forces c. selective optimization *d. observational learning 40. Even though Bonita was never reinforced directly for doing so, she increased the frequency of her studying after she saw her friend Hemma get a lot of attentio n when she studied. This is most likely an example of *a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. punishment d. self-efficacy 41. Melissa is doing a study in which lacrosse players are interviewed about their role on the team and perceived capabilities for playing in Saturday’s game. Meliss a seems to be assessing the of the lacrosse players. a. life-cycle forces b. exosystems c. internal maturational plans *d. self-efficacy 42. Alberto believes he can successfully ski down a steep mountain. Most likely Alberto has a. reached formal operations *b. high self-efficacy c. resolved the industry vs. inferiority stage d. been negatively reinforced 43. Dr. Link tries to help his students learn how to be independent learners by ha ving them watch how other students can be successful by researching answers to possible test questions on their smartphones. Dr. Link is using principles of to help his students. *a. social learning theory b. operant conditioning c. cognitive-developmental theory d. psychosocial theory 44. Who would most likely explain a child’s maladaptive behavior by saying, “They probably saw some TV character do that”? a. Blake, who is a behaviorist *b. Adam, who is a social learning theorist c. Alicia, who is a Freudian theorist d. Gwen, who is a Piagetian theorist 45. Dr. Sefky says, “Sure, reinforcement and punishment are important, but how people interpret reinforcement and punishment is even more important.” Given thi s statement, Dr. Sefky’s view is most likely to agree with a. operant conditioning *b. social cognitive theory c. psychosocial theory d. psychodynamic theory 46. Social cognitive theory and operant conditioning are similar in that they both a. view the individual as an active processor of information *b. believe that experience is important in determining behavior c. place a greater emphasis on nature than on nurture d. stress discontinuity 47. Whose theory of development is best exemplified by the idea that children co nstruct their own knowledge and that this constructed knowledge changes with ag e/experience? *a. Piaget b. Bronfenbrenner c. Erikson d. Skinner 48. Brandon’s developmental psychology teacher believes human development is best conceptualized as progressing discontinuously through several qualitatively d ifferent stages of thinking. His instructor is likely a(n) *a. Piagetian b. social learning theorist c. ecological theorist d. behaviorist 49. What is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of development? a. sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational b. preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational, sensorimotor *c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational d. preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational 50. When describing the development of his son Pitt, Brad says, “The best way to describe it is in terms of a slow computer with a small memory getting a faster pr ocessor and more storage space.” This type of description would suggest that Bra d adheres to a(n) approach to development. a. operant conditioning b. ecological theory c. Piagetian *d. information-processing 51. Rutger believes that, rather than progressing through a sequence of stages, mental processes gradually get more complex and efficient. Rutger is most likely a proponent of a. Piaget’s theory b. Kohlberg’s theory *c. information-processing theory d. Erikson’s theory 52. What type of theorist would most likely describe human cognitive developmen t using the analogy of “mental software”? *a. an information-processing theorist b. a Freudian theorist c. an operant conditioning theorist d. a social learning theorist 53. Dr. Bach is a developmental psychologist who is interested in Vygotsky’s the ory. What sort of forces are probably of most interest to Dr. Bach? a. biological b. psychological c. life-cycle *d. sociocultural 54. Who would have the least amount of interest in children’s thinking? a. an information-processing theorist *b. a Skinnerian theorist c. a Vygotskian theorist d. a Piagetian theorist 55. The biggest difference between Vygotsky’s approach to development and that of Piaget and the information-processing approach is that Vygotsky placed more e mphasis on *a. the impact of culture b. stages of development c. thinking d. unconscious thoughts 56. When Dr. R. Carson is asked to explain troubled adolescents, she says, “The only way to explain the problems of adolescents is to study them in relation to the ir parents and the culture that surrounds them.” Dr. R. Carson is most likely a pro ponent of theory. a. psychodynamic b. cognitive developmental *c. ecological d. social cognitive 57. Which theorist is best associated with an ecological approach to human deve lopment? a. Freud b. Piaget c. Erikson *d. Bronfenbrenner 58. Mary has only one child, three-year-old Shelly, and she has stayed home for most of Shelly’s life. From an ecological perspective, Mary is best thought of as p art of Shelly’s a. mesosystem b. exosystem c. macrosystem *d. microsystem 59. According to ecological theory, the people closest to a developing child repre sent his or her *a. microsystem b. macrosystem c. mesosystem d. exosystem 60. Louis discovers that the experiences he has in his developmental psychology class help him to deal with the children he works with at a daycare center. This rel ationship is best described by Bronfenbrenner’s notion of a(n) *a. mesosystem b. exosystem c. macrosystem d. microsystem 61. A researcher who wants to study how state welfare programs influence paren ting behaviors would be primarily studying a. microsystems *b. exosystems c. mesosystems d. operant conditioning 62. Police shootings have dramatically influenced race relations in the early 21st century. From an ecological perspective, this influence is best thought of as part o f the culture’s a. mesosystem b. exosystem *c. macrosystem d. microsystem 63. Tina is given a huge salary increase and is now able to get things for her chil dren that they have always needed and move into a nicer home. Bronfenbrenner w ould state that this increase in the mother’s salary is an example of the impact of the children’s *a. exosystem b. mesosystem c. macrosystem d. microsystem 64. Millie finds herself unable to adjust to her new job because she doesn’t see m to have the work skills necessary to keep her strict boss happy. Millie’s predica ment would probably best be explained by a. psychosocial theory b. Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory *c. the competence-environmental press theory d. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development 65. Whose theory is best associated with a life-span perspective emphasizing res earch on adult development? a. Bandura *b. Baltes c. Bronfenbrenner d. Piaget 66. Marcia is 80 years old and is learning how to speak French and play the guita r for the first time. This new skill development is a good example of a. multiple causation b. historical context *c. plasticity d. multidirectionality 67. Eddie’s knowledge of guitar playing has grown over the years, while at the sa me time his ability to play guitar has deteriorated. Eddie’s experience best exempl ifies a. multiple causation b. historical context c. plasticity *d. multidirectionality 68. Multidirectionality, plasticity, historical context, and multiple causation are all key features of the perspective. *a. life-span b. cognitive-developmental c. psychosocial d. ecological 69. The fact that a teen growing up when Pearl Harbor was attacked will develop i n a different manner from a teen growing up when the World Trade Center was att acked is best explained in terms of a. multidirectionality b. multiple causation c. plasticity *d. historical context 70. Lisa is getting ready to apply for graduate school. To focus on this goal, she i s resigning from her posts as editor of the campus newspaper and president of h er sorority. These changes in Lisa’s life are examples of a. compensation *b. elective selection c. loss-based selection d. self-efficacy 71. The selective optimization with compensation model is primarily associated w ith the perspective. a. cognitive-developmental b. ecological c. psychodynamic *d. life-span 72. Professor Linwood always makes a point of learning the names of all the stu dents in her class. She used to be able to do this in her head but has recently fou nd that she needs note cards to help her remember. This change in behavior is b est described as a. loss-based selection b. elective selection *c. compensation d. the epigenetic principle 73. Orlaith is interested in studying the impact of growing up during the Great Rec ession on the saving and spending habits of individuals. Orlaith’s perspective is b est described as a perspective. *a. life-course b. life-span c. social cognitive d. psychosocial 74. Harry wonders if the Cubs winning the World Series in 2016 will impact the c areer goals of individuals who were adolescents at the time of the Cubs victory. T his kind of question is one that best reflects a(n) perspective. a. cognitive-developmental *b. life-course c. social cognitive d. operant conditioning 75. Which research study would you most expect to see from a researcher with a life-course perspective? a. the effect of smoking on neurotransmitter systems and memory b. how memory processes change from infancy to old age *c. growing up in the 1960s and its influence on political activism in middl e adulthood d. sex differences in marital satisfaction 76. The fact that 45-year-old George is worried about how the election of the new U.S. president will impact his current job status is best associated with *a. individual timing of life events in relation to external historical events b. the synchronization of individual transitions with collective familial ones c. the impact of earlier life events on current conditions d. history determining the outcome of life 77. The notion of “balancing” work and home responsibilities is best associated with a. individual timing of life events in relation to external historical events *b. the synchronization of individual transitions with collective familial one s c. the impact of earlier life events on current conditions d. history determining the outcome of life 78. Patti studies the behavior of preschool children by watching them play at a lo cal daycare center. While doing this, she is careful to find a spot where she will b e completely unnoticed by the individuals she is observing. Patti is most likely usi ng a approach to studying the children. a. structured observation b. correlational c. self-report *d. naturalistic observation 79. Carrie is most interested in studying adolescent behavior occurring at a high school prom. Which method is most likely to help her accomplish this goal? a. structured observation *b. naturalistic observation c. self-report d. experiment 80. Which research method must always occur in a real-life setting? a. experiment b. structured observation *c. naturalistic observation d. systematic observation 81. Liat takes notes on the behaviors exhibited by college students attending a fr at party. This study would best be described as a. longitudinal *b. systematic observational c. experimental d. sequential 82. Dr. Piro Knesis stages a fire drill at the elementary school in order to study h ow children respond to potential emergency situations. Dr. Knesis’s method would best be described as a(n) *a. structured observation b. naturalistic observation c. self-report d. experiment 83. Dr. Rubeus is studying how teenagers think about high school by asking them to answer several questions related to their classroom experiences. It is most like ly that Dr. Rubeus’s research involves a(n) method. a. naturalistic observation b. structured observation c. experiment *d. self-report 84. Which method of measuring behavior is most likely to be used in combination with other behavioral measures? *a. physiological measures b. self-reports c. naturalistic observation d. sampling behavior with tasks 85. Which method of measuring behavior is most effective at directly studying bra in activity? *a. physiological measures b. self-reports c. naturalistic observation d. sampling behavior with tasks 86. Dr. Nuriama is interested in studying the way people spend their time when t hey are in their homes alone. Which method is Dr. Nuriama most likely to use for this study? a. physiological measures b. naturalistic observation c. structured observation *d. self-reports 87. Dr. Simpson’s students were rightfully upset when he used very accurate wei ght scales (assessing the poundage of each pupil) to determine their grades in a developmental psychology class. This is partially because his method of assessm ent lacked a. a sufficient sample size b. reliability *c. validity d. the ability to identify practice effects 88. Harold is upset with his grade on his developmental psychology test and says, “I bet if I would’ve taken that test at another time, I would have done much bette r.” Harold’s complaint deals most directly with the questionable of the test. a. validity b. sample *c. reliability d. population 89. Validity is to reliability as a. study is to experiment b. cause is to correlation c. positive is to negative *d. accuracy is to consistency 90. Which research finding supports the idea that a new intelligence test is valid? a. Individuals earn the same score on the test every time they take it. b. Individuals score higher on the test when they are older than when they were younger. *c. Scores on the new intelligence test correlate with scores on another v alid intelligence test. d. Most individuals score high on the new intelligence test. 91. Virtually all studies done in psychology rely on studying people representative of a larger group. The groups of people who participate in these studies are most commonly known as *a. samples b. populations c. mesosystems d. independent variables 92. Population is to sample as a. small is to large b. reliability is to validity c. micro is to macro *d. set is to subset 93. In a correlational study, variables are always studied *a. as they exist naturally b. after some manipulation c. during an experiment d. at the population level 94. Harvey is interested in doing a study to determine whether a relationship exis ts between participating in college athletics and self-efficacy for academic work. B ecause Harvey is not interested in determining a cause-and-effect relationship, he would be best advised to do a(n) study. a. cross-sectional *b. correlational c. experimental d. naturalistic observation 95. Based on a study that finds that self-esteem is negatively correlated with coll ege grades, which person would you predict would have the highest grades? a. Michael, who has very high self-esteem b. Davey, who has average self-esteem *c. Peter, who has very low self-esteem d. Lisa, who refuses to answer the study questions 96. You read a research article that concludes that the higher a student’s self-es teem, the worse he performs in school. This sort of relationship would best be ch aracterized as *a. a negative correlation b. no relationship c. positive correlation d. cause and effect 97. Which correlation coefficient value indicates the strongest relationship? a. -.23 b. .57 c. .15 *d. -.82 98. The value of a(n) can range from -1.0 to 1.0. *a. correlation coefficient b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. sample 99. Mario is going to do a correlational study dealing with playing video games an d intelligence. Because he is using this particular method, he will not be able to a. measure the variables quantitatively b. determine the direction of the relationship between these two variables c. determine the magnitude of the relationship between these two variable s *d. determine whether changes in one of these variables causes changes in the other 100. Shuntelle is interested in studying the relationship between self-esteem and school grades. She wants to be able to quantify this relationship but wants to avo id any ethical concerns regarding the manipulation of these variables. What sort o f method is the best option for Shuntelle? *a. correlational b. natural observation c. experiment d. physiological 101. Dr. Ann Daround is conducting a study to determine whether fidget spinning causes a reduction in stress. In this experiment, fidget spinning is the a. control group *b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. cohort effect 102. In an experiment designed to determine whether taking vitamin A before att ending a social event improves self-esteem, what is the dependent variable? a. vitamin A b. the social event *c. the level of self-esteem d. the age of the participants 103. A researcher has a hypothesis that hostility toward women is created by vie wing pornography. If the researcher does an experiment to test this, what would b e the independent variable? a. scores on a “hostility toward women” scale b. being placed in a control group *c. the viewing of pornography d. the sex of the subjects 104. You are doing a study to determine whether vaping nicotine prior to taking a psychology test affects performance on that test. What is the independent variabl e in your study? a. the psychology test b. the participants in your study *c. vaping nicotine d. It depends on where the study is conducted. 105. A publishing company does a study to determine whether using a study guid e for a textbook improves performance on psychology exams. In this study, grade s on the psychology exams would constitute the variable. a. correlational b. independent c. manipulated *d. dependent 106. Qualitative research differs from quantitative research because it a. is conducted in the laboratory *b. seeks to gain an understanding of what governs behavior c. is non-correlational d. relies heavily on statistical analysis 107. Dr. Feldman is studying sibling rivalry. Each of his participants has been ass essed every five years since 1970. Dr. Feldman’s overall research design is best classified as a. cross-sectional b. experimental *c. longitudinal d. sequential 108. Dr. Mitchell is very interested in how individual participants’ behaviors chang e over time. If she wants to study this, she’ll have to do a(n) study. a. naturalistic observation b. cross-sectional c. experimental *d. longitudinal 109. Which problem is least associated with longitudinal research? *a. It is difficult to generalize results to the larger population. b. Participants may improve on the tests by taking them multiple times. c. It is expensive to keep collecting data on a large number of participants. d. Participants may choose not to continue. 110. Michael studies developmental differences in extroversion by testing 9-, 19-, 39-, and 59-year-old subjects at the same time. Michael is performing a(n) s tudy. a. sequential b. longitudinal c. experimental *d. cross-sectional 111. The fact that Tatiana likes to watch reality television and her grandfather pre fers watching 1960s television westerns is probably best explained by a. age effects b. non-normative factors *c. cohort effects d. time-of-measurement effects 112. Smita studies two different cohorts over a 50-year period, testing each subj ect every five years. Smita is using a design. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional *c. sequential d. microgenetic 113. Greta wants to do a study on how self-efficacy changes over the life span. Her primary con cerns are economic – she needs to do the study in the way that will cost the least in terms of time and money. Given these concerns, she is probably going to be best served doing a(n) study. a. longitudinal *b. cross-sectional c. sequential d. experimental 114. The advantage of the design is that it allows a researcher to synthesizedata from numerous studies. a. longitudinal *b. meta-analysis c. cross-sectional d. qualitative 115. Kelly is doing research on the effect of birth order on personality. Rather tha n collecting data on a new set of subjects, she is analyzing hundreds of studies th at have already been done on this topic and is going to attempt to come up with a n overall estimate of what all these other studies have found. What sort of study i s Kelly doing? a. experiment *b. meta-analysis c. correlational d. longitudinal 116. Which statement is not consistent with ethical research? a. Subject responses should be confidential. *b. Never tell subjects if they’ve been deceived. c. Minimize risks to subjects. d. Give subjects the right to withdraw from the research without penalty. 117. According to the American Psychological Association, researchers must a. eliminate all risk to participants *b. minimize risk to participants c. use deception if there are risks to participants d. pay participants if they are put at risk 118. Results from individual research participants should be *a. confidential b. public c. coded by name d. ignored 119. After completing their study, researchers send a copy of their findings to a s cientific journal in hopes of having it published. This reflects which step of the res earch process? a. developing hypotheses b. analyzing the data *c. communicating research results d. applying the results of research 120. As a result of reading several research articles on the long-term effects of d aycare, a state legislature passes a new law mandating that all daycare providers modify their practices to be in concordance with this research. This action reflects *a. how research can affect social policy b. the benefits of doing meta-analytic research c. the importance of longitudinal studies d. why correlational research is superior in some ways to experimental res earch 121. Children’s judgments of the emotions depicted in photographs may be less accurate than they would be in real life because the photographs are a. faces of strangers *b. faces that are not moving c. black and white d. outdated 122. The universal and context-specific developmental issue concerns wh ether there is just one path of development or several. *a. True b. False 123. If you believe in continuity, you believe that development is best characterized as following a smooth progression. *a. True b. False 124. The influence of ethnic factors on your behavior would be consider ed a sociocultural force. *a. True b. False 125. Neuroscience is the study of the brain and the nervous system in t erms of brain-environmental relationships. a. True *b. False 126. The sequence of stages in Erikson’s theory is based on the epigene tic principle. *a. True b. False 127. Compared to punishment, reinforcement tends to result in quicker a nd longer-lasting learning. *a. True b. False 128. Piaget believed that children begin to construct knowledge in new ways at a few critical points in development. *a. True b. False 129. Information-processing theory rejects the notion of conceptualizin g humans as having mental hardware and software. a. True *b. False 130. Vygotsky’s key insight was to view development as an apprenticeshi p in which children develop as they work with skilled adults. *a. True b. False 131. When explaining an individual’s behavior, proponents of ecological theory would say that you have to consider factors outside of the indiv idual. *a. True b. False 132. Competence-environmental press theory emphasizes that to understan d people’s functioning, it is essential to understand the systems in wh ich they live. *a. True b. False 133. Plasticity refers to the fact that as we develop, some of our skil ls grow and others decline. a. True *b. False 134. According to the life-span perspective, human development can only be understood within the scope of a single framework. a. True *b. False 135. In a structured observation, a researcher creates a setting that i s likely to bring out the behavior of interest. *a. True b. False 136. Determining whether a form of measurement is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring is determining its reliability. a. True *b. False 137. A sample is a subset of the population of interest. *a. True b. False 138. The strength of correlational research lies in its ability to dete rmine cause. a. True *b. False 139. Qualitative research relies on numerical data and statistical test s as the bases for reporting results. a. True *b. False 140. An advantage of cross-sectional studies is that they cannot be inf luenced by cohort effects. a. True *b. False 141. Outcomes of developmental research can have important implications for social policy. *a. True b. False 142. A new developmental theory of personality emerges. This new theory states that ad ult personality is markedly different from personality in childhood, is completely determin ed by the environment, and develops the same across cultures. Describe the three recurr ing issues in human development and explain where this new theory stands in relation to these three issues. 143. Use the biopsychosocial framework to describe four factors that could be important in the development of parenting skills. 144. Two developmental psychologists are discussing the factors that are important in e xplaining one’s behavior. One is a proponent of operant conditioning and the other suppor ts a social learning approach. Select a famous person and describe one way these two p sychologists may agree and one way they may disagree in their explanation of the celebrit y’s behavior. 145. Define the four levels of the environment as described in Bronfenbrenner’s ecologic al theory. How do these levels relate to the biopsychosocial framework? 146. Jordy, a high school history teacher, is 55 years old and having a hard time balanci ng the demands of his recent promotion to half-time assistant principal and half-time cla ssroom teacher. Describe the three key features of the selective optimization with compe nsation (SOC) model. Explain how the key features could apply to Jordy being successful i n his new position at the high school. 147. You and a partner are given an assignment to conduct a study using systematic ob servation of children playing. You want to conduct the study using naturalistic observation, however your partner wants to conduct the study using structured observation. Write a p osition statement that supports the use of naturalistic observation for the assignment an d argues against the use of structured observation. 148. A researcher is going to do a longitudinal study of cognitive development in elemen tary school children. What problems may this researcher have that could be avoided if sh e were to do a cross-sectional study instead? 149. A student researcher comes to you for advice regarding ethical guidelines for her st udy. Describe four guidelines common in professional ethical codes that you think would be important for this student to know. 150. Saleh has decided to do a correlational study on the relationship between the amo unt of time spent playing video games and body weight. How might this research be cond ucted? What are the major disadvantages of this type of research approach? 1. The threadlike structures in the nucleus of a cell that contain genetic material are call ed *a. chromosomes. b. germ discs. c. ectoderms. d. phenotypes. 2. The first pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes and the pair are c alled sex chromosomes. a. 2; 3rd b. 10; 11th *c. 22; 23rd d. 46; 47th 3. Gene is approached by a mad geneticist who says he will pay Gene either $100 for e ach pair of his autosomes or $500 for each pair of his sex chromosomes. Assuming Gen e wants to make as much money as possible, which offer should he take? *a. $100 for each pair of autosomes b. $500 for each pair of sex chromosomes c. Either one, because Gene will make the same amount with both offers d. Neither one, because humans have neither autosomes nor sex chromosomes 4. When looking through a microscope at an entire set of human male chromosomes, h ow would you be able to differentiate an autosome pair from a sex chromosome pair? a. The sex chromosome pair would be about 10 times larger than the autosome pair. b. The circular-shaped cells would be the autosomes and the square shapes wo uld be the sex chromosomes. c. There would be three cells in the autosome “pair” and two cells in the sex chr omosome “pair.” *d. The shape of the sex chromosomes would differ, whereas each autosome pa ir would look identical. 5. A sperm cell contains a total of 22 a. genes. b. chromosomes. *c. autosomes. d. sex cells. 6. What combination would result in a boy? a. A 17th pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y *b. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y c. A 17th pair of chromosomes with two Xs d. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with two Xs 7. ThThe functional units of heredity are *a. genes. b. neurotransmitters produced in the brain. c. phenotypes. d. basic chemical compounds that form the single helix of a DNA molecule. 8. Human DNA is composed of a total of different nucleotide bases. *a. 4 b. 23 c. 444 d. 30,000 9. Genes provide the cell with a specific set of instructions. a. hormonal *b. biochemical c. in vitro d. bioelectric 10. The average child has approximately genes. a. 25 *b. 25,000 c. 25,000,000 d. 25,000,000,000 11. Kyoko is 5 feet, 11 inches tall, plays tennis, and is an all-around nice person. This i s a description of Kyoko’s a. allele. b. genotype. c. homozygosity. *d. phenotype. 12. Genotype is to phenotype as a. homozygous is to heterozygous. b. nurture is to nature. c. DNA is to deoxyribonucleic acid. *d. chromosome pattern is to physical, behavioral, and psychological features. 13. Which process can best be explained by alleles? a. The fact that phenotypes produce genotypes b. The formation of identical twins through the splitting of a fertilized egg *c. The instructions for hair color come from two sources on the chromosome d. The teratogenic effects associated with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) 14. Linda has one allele for curly hair and another for straight hair. Linda’s alleles are a. polyzygotic. b. dizygotic. c. homozygous. *d. heterozygous. 15. How would you create an individual who will definitely have blue eyes? *a. Make sure he has a pair of homozygous chromosomes for blue eyes. b. Make sure he has a pair of heterozygous chromosomes for eye color. c. Make sure he has a pair of alleles for eye color. d. Make sure he has one recessive gene for blue eyes. 16. Kirk is heterozygous for cheek dimples but is born with big dimples in both cheeks. Apparently, the allele for cheek dimples is *a. dominant. b. sex-linked. c. recessive. d. polygenetic. 17. If tallness is dominant and designated as “T,” and shortness is recessive and desig nated as “s,” who would likely be short? a. Blake, who is “sT” b. Adam, who is “Ts” *c. Alicia, who is “ss” d. Miley, who is “TT” 18. Which best exemplifies the concept of incomplete dominance? a. An individual with two alleles for baldness who has long hair b. An individual with two alleles for shyness who is shy *c. An individual with one allele for obesity and another for thinness who is of av erage weight d. An individual with a single allele for aggression who is violent 19. Which statement concerning the sickle-cell trait is true? a. Individuals with the trait have the dominant phenotype but possess the recess ive genotype. *b. Individuals with the trait have both a dominant and recessive allele for the di sorder. c. Individuals with the trait are genetically predisposed to the disorder but canno t display any symptoms. d. Individuals with the trait tend to have the most severe form of the disease. 20. Dr. Fry has just been informed that his son has sickle-cell trait. As a knowledgeable physician, Dr. Fry would realize that his son’s body is most likely to experience a. excess levels of body fat. *b. serious oxygen deprivation. c. decreased lung capacity. d. blindness. 21. Janaka’s two-year-old daughter is intellectually disordered (formerly known as menta lly retarded) due, in part, to a diet that included fish, bread, and dairy products. The most likely diagnosis for Janaka’s daughter is that she has a. Turner’s syndrome. b. Huntington’s disease. c. Tay Sachs disease. *d. Phenylketonuria (PKU). 22. Huntington’s disease is an unusual genetic disorder in that it is a fatal disease caus ed by dominant alleles that *a. impact late enough in life so that the individual can reproduce. b. are controllable through diet. c. both must come from the mother. d. strike only males. 23. Which physical characteristic is most indicative of an individual with Down syndrome? a. An enlarged head *b. A fold of skin over each eyelid c. A long neck d. A larger nose than same-age peers 24. As a geneticist, you found that afetus has 47 chromosomes. What would be the mo st likely conclusion drawn from this information? *a. The child has Down syndrome b. The child has sickle-cell anemia c. The child has phenylketonuria (PKU) d. This is a normal number of chromosomes 25. Because of his accurate knowledge of genetics and disorders, Benson knows that hi s newborn son has no chance of having *a. Turner’s syndrome. b. Kleinfelter’s syndrome. c. Huntington’s disease. d. Down syndrome. 26. As a behavioral geneticist, Juan would most likely be studying a. the maze-learning behavior of rats. b. the evolution of eyesight over the life span. *c. the inheritance of behavioral and psychological traits. d. the physiological structure of a gene. 27. Which statement best exemplifies the basic premise of behavioral genetics? a. “Your personality is all in your genes” b. “Your personality is all in your environment” c. “People are either very open to new experiences or avoid new experiences at all costs” *d. “Openness to new experience is not an either/or proposition, but represents a wide range of reactions” 28. If a physician informed you that your speech disorder was the result of problems on chromosomes 4, 7, and 15, you would rightly conclude that the disorder is always classifi able as a. recessive. *b. polygenetic. c. dominant. d. sex-linked. 29. John and Wayne have the exact same genes. This indicates that they must be a. dizygotic twins. *b. monozygotic twins. c. heterozygous. d. co-dominant. 30. As dizygotic twins, Maya and Naomi a. are genetically identical. b. must have come from the same fertilized egg. c. share all phenotypes. *d. share about half of their genes. 31. José, who was adopted at birth, is found to have personality characteristics more si milar to his biological mom than to his adoptive mom. How should you interpret this data? a. Personality appears to be a polygenetic characteristic. b. Personality characteristics are learned. *c. Personality characteristics are influenced by genes. d. Personality characteristics appear to be recessive. 32. Which result would not support the idea that genes play a significant role in behavior? *a. Finding dizygotic twins to be more similar than monozygotic twins b. Finding children to be more similar to their biological parents than to their ado ptive parents c. Finding similarities between biological siblings d. Finding monozygotic twins to be more similar than pairs of unrelated individual s 33. The concept that genotypes are not the only things that control traits involves the fa ct that a. dizygotic twins are virtually genetically identical. *b. each genotype can produce a variety of phenotypes. c. recessive genes are more commonly expressed than dominant genes. d. the environment has little impact on behavior. 34. After creating a child’s DNA profile, behavioral geneticists can then look to see *a. if the genotype is associated with behavior phenotypes. b. if the DNA links the child to a certain geographic location. c. if the child is going to be cared for by adoptive parents. d. if the child ranks high or low eugenically. 35. Heredity and environment *a. interact dynamically throughout development. b. act independently throughout development. c. interact dynamically in childhood and independently in adulthood. d. act independently in childhood and interact dynamically in adulthood. 36. As a behavioral geneticist, Professor Klink is most likely to calculate the extent to w hich depression is inherited using a coefficient. a. nonshared b. DNA c. polygenetic *d. heritability 37. A heritability coefficient of means about 50 percent of the difference between p eople on a specific characteristic is the result of heredity. *a. 5 b. 5 c. 50 d. 500 38. occurs when an individual intentionally seeks out an environment that ma tches characteristics driven by his or her genes. a. Passive gene-environment interactions b. Incomplete dominance *c. Niche-picking d. Polygenetic inheritance 39. Which individual with a genetic predisposition toward being extroverted is demonstra ting successful niche-picking? *a. Wink, who is a game-show host b. Wilbur, who is a horse trainer c. Sebastian, who is a hermit who lives in a cave by himself d. Dexter, who spends a lot of time studying in the library 40. Nonshared environmental influences involve forces that make siblings a. act in virtually identical ways. b. homozygous. c. dizygotic twins. *d. different from one another. 41. Jack and Jill are twins. Because he is a boy, Jack’s parents encourage him to run. H owever, they discourage Jill from engaging in athletic activity. As a result, Jack is much fa ster at running up a hill than Jill. The difference in Jack and Jill’s behavior is best explaine d by *a. nonshared environmental influences. b. active gene-environment relations. c. polygenetic effects. d. niche-picking. 42. Which period is not considered part of prenatal development? a. Period of the fetus b. Period of the zygote *c. Period of the neonate d. Period of the embryo 43. Prenatal development begins a. with sperm production. b. with ovulation. *c. at conception. d. at implantation into the uterus. 44. The period of the lasts for approximately two weeks. a. embryo *b. zygote c. fetus d. neonate 45. The uniting of the egg and sperm (conception) typically takes place in the a. uterus. b. testes. *c. fallopian tube. d. ovary. 46. If Agnieszka found out that she was conceived through in vitro fertilization, she woul d know for certain that *a. she was conceived in a Petri dish. b. she was conceived inside a fallopian tube. c. her biological parents were not the same as the parents who reared her. d. the woman who carried her as a baby was not the woman who reared her. 47. Which event occurs following in vitro fertilization? *a. A fertilized egg is placed directly into the uterus. b. A sperm is injected directly into the fallopian tube. c. A fertilized egg is directly placed in the ovary. d. A single sperm is injected directly into a fertilized egg. 48. Which statement concerning preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) is false? a. It is usually used with couples known to be at risk for genetic disorders. *b. It cannot be used to determine if a child-to-be is male or female. c. If parents are not pleased with the test results, they can have a fertilized egg discarded. d. It can be used to determine a child-to-be’s hair color. 49. Whose behavior best exemplifies eugenics? a. Dr. Green, who uses an in vitro fertilization technique *b. Dr. Black, who allows only certain individuals to mate c. Dr. White, who studies the effects of thalidomide on prenatal development d. Dr. Brown, who closely monitors the nutrition of expectant mothers 50. A developing human that is traveling from a fallopian tube to the uterus would most accurately be described as a(n) a. embryo. b. fetus. *c. zygote. d. amnion. 51. What began as a single fertilized egg has just separated into two distinct eggs. This indicates the formation of twins that has occurred during the period of development. a. fraternal; zygotic b. fraternal; embryonic *c. identical; zygotic d. identical; embryonic 52. The point at which a zygote burrows into the uterine wall is referred to as a. fertilization. *b. implantation. c. niche-picking. d. dilation. 53. A physician has just informed pregnant Moesha that the human organism developin g inside of her has just begun to show differentiation of its cells. As a knowledgeable stu dent, you would know that such an organism is technically called a(n) a. embryo. *b. zygote. c. fetus. d. neonate. 54. Mi Lei is pregnant and her body is currently experiencing the event that triggers hor monal changes that will prevent further menstruation. This event is called *a. implantation. b. conception. c. dilation. d. effacement. 55. The is the cluster of cells in the center of the zygote that will eventually develop into the baby. a. Amnion b. stem cell *c. germ disc d. placenta 56. The is the structure through which a mother and an embryo exchange waste and nutrients. a. amnion b. stem cell c. germ disc *d. placenta 57. The developing human organism that has just become completely embedded in the wall of the uterus is called the a. amnion. b. fetus. c. zygote. *d. embryo. 58. At five weeks after conception, a developing human is most accurately called a(n) *a. embryo. b. zygote. c. fetus. d. neonate. 59. Hair and the nervous system develop during the embryonic period from cells contain ed in the layer. a. mesoderm b. endoderm c. placenta *d. ectoderm 60. Damage to cells in the embryo’s layer would be most likely to result in the deve lopment of a defective digestive system. *a. endoderm b. placenta c. ectoderm d. mesoderm 61. Dr. Swift tells Taylor that her developing embryo is showing distortions in the develo pment of its circulatory system. As a knowledgeable student of human development, Tayl or should realize that the problem is within cells of the layer. a. placenta *b. mesoderm c. ectoderm d. endoderm 62. Ectoderm is to endoderm as a. heterozygous is to homozygous. b. fraternal is to identical. *c. outer is to inner. d. bone is to muscle. 63. While observing a special monitor, a physician tells an expectant mother, “As you ca n see, the legs and arms have just begun to emerge.” From this description, you should r ealize that the two are looking at a(n) a. zygote. b. fetus. *c. embryo. d. germ disc. 64. The sac in which the embryo resides is called the a. ectoderm. *b. amnion. c. germ disc. d. placenta. 65. One key purpose of the amniotic fluid is to a. provide the embryo with nutrients. b. stimulate development of neurotransmitters. c. screen the flow of blood between mother and embryo. *d. 66. The houses the blood vessels that join the embryo and its mother. *a. umbilical cord b. amnion c. germ disc d. mesoderm maintain a constant temperature for the embryo. 67. The placenta a. directly connects the bloodstream of the embryo to the bloodstream of the mo ther. b. contains amniotic fluid. c. helps the fetus to maintain a constant temperature. *d. allows for an exchange of nutrients and waste. 68. The fact that the embryonic head develops before the body illustrates the princi ple. *a. cephalocaudal b. incomplete dominance c. proximodistal d. niche-picking 69. A doctor could best illustrate the proximodistal principle by discussing the fact that a. male fetuses develop faster than female fetuses. b. identical twins tend to be smaller than fraternal twins. c. the outside portion of the amniotic sac is thicker than the inside portion. *d. a baby can control its shoulder before it can control its fingers. 70. During prenatal development, the arm develops before the fingers. This most illustra tes the principle. a. Premack b. coefficient c. cephalocaudal *d. proximodistal 71. Which organism can truthfully state, “It is during my time that all body parts and orga ns are first put into place?” a. The neonate b. The zygote c. The fetus *d. The embryo 72. Marsha’s doctor informs her that her child is just entering the longest period of pren atal development. About how long has Marsha been carrying her unborn child? a. 1 day b. 3 weeks *c. 9 weeks d. 28 weeks 73. Which event is characteristic of the period of the fetus? a. The first beat of the heart b. The first neural activity in the neocortex *c. The significant growth in the cerebral cortex d. The attachment of the umbilical cord to the placenta 74. The thick, greasy substance that covers the fetus around five to six months after co nception is called a. placenta. *b. vernix. c. amnion. d. endoderm. 75. Currently, the earliest “age of viability” occurs around weeks after conception. a. 14 *b. 22 c. 30 d. 38 76. Just after the birth of her son Nelly, mom Kelly is informed that little Nelly’s neural t ube did not properly close during his prenatal development. This would mean that Nelly wi ll be diagnosed with *a. spina bifida. b. muscular dystrophy. c. cerebral palsy. d. sickle-cell anemia. 77. A knowledgeable nutritionist would tell a pregnant mother that, in order to reduce th e risk of having a baby born with spina bifida, mom needs to make sure that she is inges ting an adequate amount of a. vitamin A. b. iron. c. vitamin E. *d. folic acid. 78. Maternal stress is most likely to negatively impact a developing embryo/fetus when that stress is a. intermittent and extreme. b. intermittent and moderate. *c. prolonged and extreme. d. chronic and moderate. 79. The main reason for why teenage mothers tend to give birth to less healthy infants t han mothers in their 20s is that they *a. tend not to receive good prenatal care. b. take too many vitamins. c. have more genetically defective eggs. d. are more likely to smoke while pregnant. 80. Halley is 40 years old and she and her daughter Berry, 20, are both currently pregna nt. Which statement with regard to these two mothers is most accurate? a. Berry has a greater risk of giving birth to a baby with sickle-cell anemia. b. Halley is twice as fertile as Berry. c. Berry’s odds of having a baby with Down syndrome are three times higher than Halley’s. *d. Halley has a greater risk of having a miscarriage. 81. A teratogen is any agent that *a. results in abnormal prenatal development. b. enhances the flow of oxygen across the placental barrier. c. decreases the chances of having a child with a genetic disorder. d. inhibits the impact of drugs on the developing embryo. 82. Whose mother most likely took thalidomide while pregnant? a. Dean, who has a heart defect *b. Martin, who has deformed arms and legs c. Jerry, who is deaf d. Lewis, who is severely intellectually disordered 83. How many of the following are potential teratogens: aspirin, nicotine, cocaine, and c affeine? a. one b. two c. three *d. four 84. What effect is not associated with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)? a. Slow growth b. Slowed intellectual growth *c. Blindness d. Misshapen face 85. Bryant’s teacher notices that Bryant has unusual facial features (e.g., short nose an d wide-set eyes) and shows signs of mental retardation. Due to her training in developme ntal psychology, Bryant’s teacher realizes that Bryant’s mom likely while she was pre gnant. *a. consumed alcohol b. injected heroin c. smoked marijuana d. consumed an excessive amount of caffeine 86. A woman who consumes alcohol has the greatest risk of giving birth to a baby with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). a. lightly and sporadically b. moderately and sporadically c. lightly and consistently *d. moderately and consistently 87. Both AIDS and genital herpes *a. can be passed along to an infant as it passes through the birth canal. b. typically result in blindness. c. cannot be transmitted to a fetus through the placenta. d. can be eliminated by maternal inoculation. 88. Which statement concerning teratogens is false? a. They impact different genotypes differently. b. They impact specific aspects of development. c. Their effects may not emerge until later in life. *d. Their effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is expo sed. 89. The key lesson learned by the fact that thalidomide showed no impact when tested on prenatal rabbits but led to birth defects in prenatal humans is that *a. teratogens impact different genotypes differently. b. teratogens impact specific aspects of development. c. teratogen effects may not emerge until later in life. d. teratogen effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is e xposed. 90. What was the most critical lesson about teratogens learned from studies on the use of the drug diethylstilbestrol (DES) by pregnant women? a. Sometimes what appear to be teratogens actually are harmless drugs. b. Infants in the late fetal period appear to be the most at risk for impact from dr ug-related teratogens. *c. Sometimes the effects of teratogens are not apparent until long after exposu re. d. Females appear to be at much greater risk from teratogens. 91. Exposure to a teratogen during the period is most likely to result in a spontane ous abortion. a. implantation *b. zygotic c. embryonic d. fetal 92. As there is a history of hereditary disease in the families of Tim and Faith, they have arranged a meeting with a specialist at which a family tree concerning the odds of them h aving a child with a birth defect will be constructed. This event would most accurately be described as a. amniocentesis. b. chorionic villus sampling. c. teratogenic. *d. genetic counseling. 93. Whitney is very concerned about the prebirth position of the child she is carrying. Wh ich technique would be the best for determining whether Whitney’s concerns are warrante d? a. Genetic counseling *b. Ultrasound c. Chorionic villus sampling d. Amniocentesis 94. Which prenatal assessment technique results in a picture of the fetus? a. Genetic screening *b. Ultrasound c. Chorionic villus sampling d. Amniocentesis 95. The sample taken during an amniocentesis comes from a. the lining of the uterus. b. inside the body of the fetus. *c. the fluid surrounding the fetus. d. the umbilical cord. 96. Regan is a medical student who is learning a procedure in which fetal cells are sam pled from the mother’s bloodstream. What technique is he most likely learning? a. Amniocentesis *b. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT) c. Chorionic villus sampling d. Ultrasound 97. Mia and her doctor need to know as quickly as possible (hopefully within 24 hours) whether the child she has been carrying for only nine weeks possesses any genetic abnor malities. Which technique is Mia’s doctor most likely to employ? *a. Chorionic villus sampling b. Ultrasound c. Amniocentesis d. Genetic counseling 98. Troy is very interested in the field of fetal therapy. Given this, he would most likely b e fascinated by a book titled a. Afterbirth Care and You. b. The Benefits of Healthy Eating Before Pregnancy. *c. Fixing Birth Defects Before Birth. d. The Importance of Childhood Inoculations. 99. Physicians are currently able to correct spina bifida at around the seventh or eighth month of pregnancy using a. genetic engineering. *b. fetal surgery. c. chorionic villus sampling. d. ultrasound. 100. The experimental CRISPR process, in which the genome is edited by replacing allel es, is an example of work in which field? a. Amnio engineering. *b. Genetic engineering c. Audio engineering d. Niche engineering 101. Because it involves prolonged physical effort, the process of childbirth is often refe rred to as involving stages of *a. labor. b. parturition. c. travail. d. pursuit. 102. By the time Lexi arrived at the hospital to deliver her child, the child had entered th e vaginal opening. This means that Debbie was in the stage of labor. a. first *b. second c. third d. fourth 103. When her physician mentions the term “crowning,” Angelina, who is g