Community Nursing - EXAM 2 (Evolve)Complete Questions And Answers

The nurse working in the community is aware that there are different models for studying the epidemiology of a health condition in a population. One model of investigation of the interrelationships and characteristics of disease is the epidemiologic triangle. This model analyzes what three elements? A) Incidence, prevalence, and etiology B) Agent, host, and environment C) Person, place, and time D) Virus, bacteria, and fungus B) Agent, host, and environment The epidemiologic triangle considers the extent of the host's exposure to the agent, the virulence of the agent, and the host's genetic or immunologic susceptibility to the agent. Environmental conditions at the time of exposure are also considered. Examination of these three elements allows assessment of the problem, determination of protective factors, and evaluation of the vulnerability of the host to disease. The person-place-time model organized epidemiologists' investigations of the disease pattern in the community. Answers A and D do not represent an epidemiologic model. When chronic disease became a more important cause of death in developed countries, different epidemiologic models were developed to study the many factors involved in the development of these health conditions. Which of the following is an example of such a model? A) Person-place-time model B) Epidemiologic triangle C) Web of causation D) Wheel model C) Web of causation Chronic disease is marked by a complexity of relationships among causal factors. The web of causation model illustrates the interrelationships. The person-place-time model organized epidemiologists' investigations of the disease pattern in the community. The epidemiologic triangle considers the extent of the host's exposure to the agent, the virulence of the agent, and the host's genetic or immunological susceptibility to the agent. The wheel model is an example of a model that stresses the multiplicity of host and environmental interactions. In the 1850s, a researcher studied a cholera epidemic among people living in different sections of London. The researcher who used epidemiologic methods to study the epidemic and used rates as an epidemiologic tool was: A) Joseph Lister. B) William Farr. C) John Snow. D) Edward Jenner. C) John Snow. John Snow is recognized as the researcher who applied epidemiologic methods in the investigation of a cholera epidemic in London in the 1850s. Joseph Lister is considered the pioneer of antiseptic surgery. William Farr was a 19th century British epidemiologist who is regarded as a founder of medical statistics. Edward Jenner developed the smallpox vaccine. A community health nurse participating in planning programs for the coming year considers incidence rates to better understand the needs of the community. Which statement below is the most accurate explanation of incidence rates? A) New cases of a disease or condition in a community over a period of time are included in incidence rates. B) The number of all cases of a specific disease or condition in a population at a given point in time relative to the population at the same point in time is included in incidence rates. C) Incidence rate refers to the number of new cases of a disease in those exposed to the disease. D) The term incidence rate refers to the percentage of deaths in a specific period of time from a specific cause. A) New cases of a disease or condition in a community over a period of time are included in incidence rates. Incidence rates describe the occurrence of new cases of a disease or condition in a community during a period of time relative to the size of the population at risk for that disease or condition during that same time period. In calculating this rate, the numerator is the number of new cases during the specific period of time, and the denominator consists only of those who are at risk for developing the disease or condition during the specific period of time. A prevalence rate is the number of all cases of a specific disease or condition in a population at a given point in time relative to the population at the same point in time. Attack rates document the number of new cases of a disease in those exposed to the disease. The percentage of deaths in a specific period of time from a specific cause refers to the mortality rate. An epidemic is occurring in a public health nurse's community, and the nurse is working with the epidemiologist and other health professionals seeking to identify the causative agent. What phrase best describes such efforts? A) Cohort study B) Descriptive epidemiology C) Point prevalence study D) Analytic epidemiology D) Analytic epidemiology Analytic epidemiology may be defined as close examination of identified possible causes of disease using advanced epidemiologic methods. Cohort studies obtain information about the cause of disease by establishing a relationship between the presumed causal factors and the effect. The study of the amount and distribution of disease constitutes descriptive epidemiology. When prevalence rates describe the number of people with the disease at a specific point in time, they are sometimes called point prevalences. A community nurse is reviewing health statistics to gain a better understanding of a population's health needs. Crude rates are available for several health occurrences. What statement accurately describes crude rates? A) In calculating a crude rate, the numerator is the size of the population at risk. B) In calculating a crude rate, the average population size may be used as denominator. C) The denominator in a crude rate represents the population at risk for the event. D) Crude rates are used frequently because they avoid bias in interpretation. B) In calculating a crude rate, the average population size may be used as denominator. Crude rates are calculated by using the number of events as the numerator. The denominator used may be the average population size or the population size at midyear and not the population at risk. Crude rates are subject to certain biases in interpretation. The percentage of deaths resulting from a specific cause provides the nurse with information about areas in which public health programs might make significant contributions in reducing deaths. Select the statistic often used for this purpose. A) Proportionate mortality rate B) Crude death rate C) Age-adjusted death rate D) Standardized mortality rate A) Proportionate mortality rate Proportionate mortality rate is calculated using the number of deaths resulting from a specific cause in a specific time period as the numerator and the total number of deaths in the same time period as the denominator. In crude death rates, the numerator is the number of deaths, and the denominator is the average population size or the population size at midyear multiplied by a constant. Age adjustment or standardization reduces bias when there is a difference between the age distributions of two populations. The health literature accessed by the community health nurse often addresses the probability of an adverse event. What term refers to the likelihood that healthy people exposed to a specific factor will experience a specific health condition? A) Prevalence B) Rates C) Risk D) Incidence C) Risk The term risk refers to the probability of an adverse event. Prevalence is the number of all cases of a specific disease or condition in a population. Rates are arithmetic expressions that help practitioners consider a count of an event relative to the size of the population from which it is extracted. Incidence describes the occurrence of new cases of a disease or condition in a community over a period of time. Through epidemiologic investigations, effective prevention measures are often identified. When the nurse is engaged in providing prevention for the community before disease has developed, the prevention activities meet the definition for what level of prevention? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Pathogenic A) Primary Primary prevention occurs when intervention activities take place before disease development. Immunization is an example of primary prevention that provides specific protection. Secondary prevention occurs after pathogenesis, namely screening and physical examinations that are aimed at early diagnosis. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and limitation of disability. Pathogenic does not describe a type of prevention. The public health nurse is working with a specific population and is preparing to participate in a descriptive epidemiology study. Which of the statements apply to descriptive epidemiology? (Select all that apply.) A) Descriptive epidemiology seeks to answer questions about the amount of disease in a given population. B) Descriptive epidemiology seeks to answer questions about the cause of disease in a given population. C) Descriptive epidemiology seeks to answer questions about the cure for disease in a given population. D) Descriptive epidemiology seeks to answer questions about the distribution of disease in a given population. A) Descriptive epidemiology seeks to answer questions about the amount of disease in a given population. D) Descriptive epidemiology seeks to answer questions about the distribution of disease in a given population. The study of the amount and distribution of disease constitutes descriptive epidemiology. Patterns identified through descriptive epidemiology may indicate possible causes. When these possible causes are investigated with different and more advanced epidemiologic methods, this is analytic epidemiology. Katie, a 2-year-old child, is brought to the doctor's office after 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon completion of the medical history, the mother tells the nurse that several of the other children at the daycare who played with the same toys as Katie have the same symptoms. The mode of transmission for the pathogen more likely was which of the following? A) Vector B) Direct C) Indirect D) Airborne C) Indirect The stem of the question indicates that the children played with the same toys. This would indicate the indirect mode of transmission. The other modes of transmission do occur through the sharing of toys. Four-month-old Lucy is in for immunizations at the local health department. The Vaccine Information Sheet is given to Lucy's mother, and informed consent is obtained. However, the mother then states, "Lucy did have a temperature around 99.1 degrees the night of her last immunizations." After this statement, the nurse should do which of the following? A) Consult the child's pediatrician. B) Delay the immunizations. C) Do not give the immunizations because of the contraindication. D) Give the immunizations. D) Give the immunizations. A low-grade fever is not a contraindication to immunizations. The nurse should give the immunizations. It is not necessary to contact the child's pediatrician. Vaccination should be postponed in cases of moderate or severe febrile illness to avoid any confusion between a vaccine side effect and an unknown underlying cause. Women have a higher risk of contracting a sexually transmitted disease (STD) than men because: A) women usually have more sexual partners. B) women are less likely to use protection methods against STDs. C) the anatomical structure of women promotes transmission of STDs. D) treatment for STDs in women is usually ineffective. C) the anatomical structure of women promotes transmission of STDs. Women are at higher risk for contracting STDs than men because they have anatomical differences that enhance transmission of disease and make diagnosis difficult. The other statements are not true. Investigating all contacts of a person infected with a sexually transmitted disease is an example of what? A) Primary prevention B) Secondary prevention C) Tertiary prevention D) Initial prevention B) Secondary prevention Secondary prevention includes the investigation of contacts to sexually transmitted disease cases. Secondary prevention includes activities to ensure early detection of infection and effective treatment of persons who are infected. Not only does this prevent progression of the infectious disease, but it also prevents transmission of the pathogen to others. Primary prevention of communicable diseases involves measures to prevent transmission of an infectious agent and to prevent pathology in the person exposed to an infection. Tertiary prevention includes activities involved in caring for persons with an infectious disease to ensure that they are cured or that their quality of life is maintained. Which statement indicates that further teaching is needed for a patient involved in family planning? A) "I can't get human papilloma virus (HPV) from my boyfriend because he doesn't have genital warts." B) "I need to use condoms to prevent transmission of sexually transmitted diseases." C) "Even though I have no signs or symptoms, I still may have Chlamydia." D) "I can give my unborn baby warts during childbirth." A) "I can't get human papilloma virus (HPV) from my boyfriend because he doesn't have genital warts." Option 1 indicates the patient needs more teaching. HPV is viral, and the virus may shed or transmitted with or without the presence of warts. The other statements are true. Transmission of an infectious disease can be efficiently controlled by: A) breaking all links in the transmission chain. B) destroying all reservoirs of infectious agents. C) breaking only one link in the transmission chain. D) maintaining high levels of herd immunity. C) breaking only one link in the transmission chain. Breaking just one link of the chain can control transmission of an infectious agent. Destroying all reservoirs of infectious agents and maintaining high levels of herd immunity are two of several ways to break a link in the chain of transmission. Which of the following is classified as a vector of disease? A) Humans B) Door handles C) Water and food D) Mosquitoes D) Mosquitoes Vectors can be animals or arthropods and can transmit disease through biological and mechanical routes. The other options are not vectors. A pathogen lives and multiplies in a __________ and transfers from one host to another by a __________. A) host, susceptible portal of entry B) reservoir, mode of transmission C) infectious agent, portal of exit D) mode of transmission, reservoir B) reservoir, mode of transmission A pathogen lives and multiplies in the reservoir and transfers from one host to another by a mode of transmission. Seven cases of hepatitis A are diagnosed in a community over a period of 2 weeks. An investigation results in a determination that all of the infected individuals ate at a local restaurant. Which of the following statements explains the possible connection between hepatitis A and a restaurant? A) The route of transmission for hepatitis A is fecal-oral. B) A food worker likely coughed on the customers. C) A food worker may have a bleeding wound. D) Hepatitis A is transmitted where people congregate. A) The route of transmission for hepatitis A is fecal-oral. Hepatitis A is transmitted by fecal-oral route. Coughing or bleeding would not transmit hepatitis A. Option D does not have enough information to form a conclusion about hepatitis A transmission. Which of the following factors causes primary vaccine failure? (Select all that apply.) A) Inefficient storage B) An intramuscular vaccine injection given subcutaneously C) Waning immunity in immunocompromised patients D) Light-sensitive vaccines exposed to light E) Seroconversion A) Inefficient storage B) An intramuscular vaccine injection given subcutaneously D) Light-sensitive vaccines exposed to light E) Seroconversion Primary vaccine failure is the failure of a vaccine to stimulate any immune response. It can be caused by improper storage that renders the vaccines ineffective, an improper administration route, or light-sensitive vaccines exposed to light. Additionally, some immunized persons never seroconvert, either because of failure of their own immune system or for some other unknown reason. Secondary vaccine failure is the waning of immunity after an initial immune response. As a school nurse, you know the leading reason cited as the cause of school violence is: A) use of violence to handle disputes. B) an unhappy home life. C) overly protective parental situations. D) poor communication with authority figures. A) use of violence to handle disputes. Adolescents and children increasingly use violence to settle disputes. Children are often not taught peaceful ways of resolving differences and learn by what they observe at home, on television, and in movies. Consequently, schools have become a common site for violence. The reasons for violence are complicated and multilayered, but the most common reason cited is use of violence to handle disputes. Chronic stress characterizes the lives of people living with domestic violence. As the community health nurse, you recognize which of the following as a long-term effect of violence? A) Spontaneous disclosure of abuse to health care provider B) Not complaining of physical symptoms C) Having disturbed eating patterns, but sleeping well D) Suffering chronic fatigue and tension D) Suffering chronic fatigue and tension When subject to repeated abuse, the victim experiences a variety of responses, including shock, denial, confusion, withdrawal, psychological numbing, and fear. He or she lives in anticipatory terror and experiences chronic fatigue and tension, disturbed sleeping and eating patterns, and vague gastrointestinal and genitourinary complaints. The other options are not symptoms of chronic violence. Child maltreatment cases are most frequently attributed to: A) sexual abuse. B) physical abuse. C) psychological abuse. D) neglect. D) neglect. Seventy-one percent of all child maltreatment cases are classified as neglect. Approximately 9% of child abuse cases are sexual abuse. Physical abuse accounts for 16% of all child maltreatment cases. Emotional abuse accounts for 7% of child maltreatment cases. Which of the following clients is at highest risk for elder abuse? A) A 75-year-old nursing home client who is alert and has osteoporosis B) A 70-year-old client being with dementia cared for at home C) A 65-year-old client who has just had a hip replacement D) A 72-year-old client on a rehabilitation unit with bilateral above-the-knee amputations B) A 70-year-old client being with dementia cared for at home The most likely victims of elder abuse are individuals 70 years of age and older who are in poor physical or mental health and dependent on others for physical or financial support; these clients are often confused and depressed. As a visiting community health nurse, you must take precautions to avoid unsafe situations. To avoid putting yourself in danger, you would do which of the following? A) If you enter a house where a violent act is occurring, call 911 and wait inside for the police to arrive. B) Expect the client to control angry family members. C) Repeat the reason for your visit and stay and continue your task. D) Do not enter a home if you hear sounds of fighting. D) Do not enter a home if you hear sounds of fighting. When approaching a home, as a community health nurse, you should notice the environment, animals, fences, activities, possible indicators of crime, and places you could go for assistance if necessary. Walk with confidence and maintain a professional attitude. Listen for signs of fighting before knocking. If you hear sounds of fighting, leave. Do not enter a home if you suspect an unsafe situation. Which of the following statements about homicide in the United States is false? A) Most homicides are caused by stabbings. B) Homicide is the third leading cause of death for 1- to 4-year-old children. C) Blacks are more likely to be the victims of homicide than whites. D) Over 50% of homicide victims are killed by someone they knew. A) Most homicides are caused by stabbings. Most homicides are caused by firearms. The other statements are true. Nurses, including public health nurses, are at increased risk for workplace violence. Risk factors for violence in the workplace include all of the following except: A) working in pairs. B) access to medications. C) increased number of mentally ill patients. D) inadequate security. A) working in pairs. Risk factors for violence in the workplace include increasing number of acute and chronically mentally ill patients, working alone, availability of drugs at worksite, low staffing levels, poorly lit parking areas and corridors, long waits for service, inadequate security, increasing number of substance abusers, and access to firearms. Which of the following individuals should be evaluated for intimate partner violence (IPV)? (Select all that apply.) A) The 24-year-old white woman with low self-esteem B) The 33 year-old black divorced single mother C) The 18-year-old Hispanic gay man with multiple sexual partners D) The 50-year-old Asian man who is addicted to methamphetamine E) The 48-year-old black woman who was recently hospitalized for depression A) The 24-year-old white woman with low self-esteem C) The 18-year-old Hispanic gay man with multiple sexual partners D) The 50-year-old Asian man who is addicted to methamphetamine E) The 48-year-old black woman who was recently hospitalized for depression IPV crosses all ethnic, racial, socioeconomic, and educational lines. Risk factors for victims of IPV include low self-esteem, poverty, risky sexual behavior, eating disorders or depression, substance abuse, and trust and relationship issues. Which of the following assessment findings by the community health nurse would suggest that an elderly client may be the survivor of physical abuse by a caregiver? (Select all that apply.) A) The client has a laceration on her forehead that was sutured. B) The client has a flat affect. C) The client has bruises on her forearms in various stages of healing. D) The client withdraws from soft touch. E) The client is not sexually active but has a diagnosis of Chlamydia. A) The client has a laceration on her forehead that was sutured. C) The client has bruises on her forearms in various stages of healing. E) The client is not sexually active but has a diagnosis of Chlamydia. Signs of physical abuse include bruises, lacerations, fractures, dislocations, untreated injuries in various stages of healing, and STDs in sexually inactive clients. The other options are not indications of physical abuse The school nurse is interviewing a student who has been assaulted by another student. Both students proclaim to be gang members. The nurse understands the reasons most youth give for joining a gang include the following: (Select all that apply.) A) financial gain. B) sense of belonging. C) peer pressure. D) relative is in a gang. E) need for respect. B) sense of belonging. C) peer pressure. E) need for respect. Reasons that young people give for joining gangs include the belief that gangs will protect them, peer pressure, the need for respect, and a sense of belonging. Which of the following describes a NA-TECH (natural technological) type of disaster? A) A flood covering crops and recreational areas of a geographic area B) A terrorism attack causing major interruption of communication technologies C) A tornado resulting in flood and destruction of electrical systems for a community D) A nuclear accident at a power plant causing evacuation of people in an urban community C) A tornado resulting in flood and destruction of electrical systems for a community A NA-TECH disaster is a natural disaster that creates or results in a widespread technological problem. A flood covering crops and recreational areas of a geographic area does not mention a technological problem, and a terrorism attack and a nuclear accident are not natural disasters. A family of five people presented to a hospital after the flooding of their urban home. These family members are classified as which of the following? A) Poverty victims B) Displaced persons C) Indirect victims D) Mass casualties B) Displaced persons Displaced persons are those who have to evacuate their home, school, or business as a result of a disaster. An indirect victim may be a family member or friend of the victim or a first responder. A mass casualty event is one in which 100 or more individuals are involved. Poverty is not considered a disaster classification. Which agency has a mission to support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation everyone works together to build, sustain, and improve the capacity to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate all? A) American Red Cross (ARC) B) National Institute for Health (NIH) C) Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) C) Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) FEMA's mission is to support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation everyone works together to build, sustain, and improve the capacity to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate all. The other agencies may be peripherally involved in national disasters but it is not their primary focus. You teach a community disaster preparedness class on how to find shelter during and after a disaster situation. This is an example of what kind of prevention? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Disaster A) Primary Primary prevention occurs in the nondisaster and predisaster stages. Actions during these stages includes developing local, state, and federal disaster plans; conducting drill tests; training volunteers and health care providers; and providing educational programs. Secondary measures are those taken after the disaster has occurred and tertiary measures are aimed at rehabilitation. Disaster prevention is a broad term covering all types. What element of a community disaster plan investigates the citizen's reliance on telephone systems or cell phones during disasters? A) Authority B) Logistical C) Rescue D) Communication D) Communication Communication is one of the biggest problems during a disaster. The reliance on telephone systems or cell phones should not be the only plan for communication during a disaster. Authority focuses on the people in charge, logistical includes focuses on storage of equipment and location of key responders, and search and rescue focuses on the search and rescue of victims. The nurse at the disaster site is using the SMART triage system. What color triage tag would be provided to an ambulatory individual with a superficial cut on the left elbow and bruise to the right hand? A) Red B) Yellow C) Black D) Green D) Green Green is for the wounded or individuals with minor injuries who are able to walk and to wait several hours before receiving medical treatment. Red is for those with life-threatening injuries but have a high probability of survival, yellow is for those with systemic but non-life-threatening complications, and black is for the deceased or those with non-survivable injuries Which phase of the community response to disaster includes medical personnel contributing long hours of volunteer work helping unfamiliar people after a disaster? A) Honeymoon phase B) Heroic phase C) Reconstruction phase D) Disillusionment phase B) Heroic phase The heroic phase of a community's reaction to a disaster involves people feeling the need to rush to help people survive the disaster. Medical personnel may volunteer to work long hours without sleep and in dangerous conditions to care for patients. During the honeymoon phase, people who have survived the disaster get together to talk about their experiences. People begin to look to the future during the reconstruction phase and during the disillusionment phase people recognize that many things are different, and much needs to be done to adjust to the current situation. Chemical warfare agents such as pulmonary agents and cyanides are classified as which of the following? A) Weapons of mass destruction B) Computer-based attack weapons C) Recovery agents D) Prevention medications A) Weapons of mass destruction Weapons of mass destruction refer to any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious bodily injury through release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals or their precursors. Chemical warfare agents are classified as nerve agents, vesicants, pulmonary agents, and cyanides. Which of the following is the purpose of the staging area in a disaster plan? A) A triage area outside the hospital, supplying first aid and transport to medical facilities B) A stage for entertainment to cheer up disaster victims C) To provide sheltered area for displaced victims to sleep, eat, and bathe D) To act as command station for disaster responders to report to and get assignments D) To act as command station for disaster responders to report to and get assignments The staging area is the onsite command station. Dispatch responders should report to this area and check-in. This allows everyone to be accounted for and to gather assignments. The other options are not appropriate uses for the staging area in a disaster. The community health nurse is working in an emergency shelter with displaced families. Which of the following clients have risk factors for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? (Select all that apply.) A) An 18-year-old client with a previous gunshot wound B) A 50-year-old client who saw people die in the disaster C) A 23-year-old client experiencing extreme fear D) A 60-year-old client who had little social support before the event E) A 35-year-old client with a history of schizophrenia A) An 18-year-old client with a previous gunshot wound B) A 50-year-old client who saw people die in the disaster C) A 23-year-old client experiencing extreme fear E) A 35-year-old client with a history of schizophrenia Risks for PTSD include living through dangerous events or traumas; having a history of mental illness; getting hurt; seeing people hurt or killed; feeling horror, helplessness, or extreme fear; having little or no social support after the event; and dealing with extra stress after the event, such as loss of a loved one, pain and injury, or loss of a job or home. Based on the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) definitions of homelessness, which one of the following individuals would be considered homeless? A) An individual whose residence lacks access to public water and electricity B) An individual who has a permanent nighttime residence in the housing for mentally ill people C) An individual imprisoned or detained under an act of Congress or state law D) An individual who spends most nights at public or private places not designed for regular sleeping accommodations D) An individual who spends most nights at public or private places not designed for regular sleeping accommodations HUD defines homelessness in four categories: (1) literally homeless, (2) imminent risk of homelessness, (3) homeless under other federal statutes, and (4) fleeing/attempting to flee domestic violence. An individual who spends most nights at public or private places not designed for regular sleeping accommodations is considered literally homeless. Literally homeless is defined as individuals and families who lack a fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence and includes a subset for an individual who resided in an emergency shelter or a place not meant for human habitation and who is exiting an institution where he or she temporarily resided. An individual whose residence lacks access to public water and electricity, an individual who has a permanent nighttime residence in the housing for mentally ill people, and an individual imprisoned or detained under an act of Congress or state law are not considered homeless under the HUD definition The Brown family is being evicted from their home and will be moving into a homeless shelter in 3 days. Under the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) definition, the Brown family is: A) literally homeless. B) in imminent risk of homelessness. C) homeless under other federal statutes. D) fleeing or attempting to flee domestic violence. B) in imminent risk of homelessness. Imminent risk of homelessness defines those who will imminently lose their primary nighttime residence. The literally homeless have no fixed, regular, or adequate nighttime residence. Unaccompanied youth and families with children who are defined as homeless under other federal statues but do not fit into the other HUD defined categories of homeless may be defined as homeless under this HUD definition. Finally, individuals and families who are fleeing or attempting to flee domestic violence or other life-threatening conditions that relate to violence against the individual or family are defined as homeless. What is the purpose of the Homeless Information Management System (HIMS)? A) Provides means to feed homeless people B) Obtains national data on homeless individuals C) Serves as a screening tool to obtain any history of criminal activity D) Provides homeless individuals with educational materials B) Obtains national data on homeless individuals The intent of the HIMS is to obtain national data, including the number of and demographic information on the homeless population. Providing means to feed homeless people, serving as a screening tool to obtain any history of criminal activity, and providing homeless individuals with educational materials are not functions of the HIMS.