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Exam (elaborations)

WGU PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FROM THE FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE #3

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WGU PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FROM THE FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE #3 WGU PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FROM THE FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE #3 Anabolism The phase of metabolism where simple substances are made into complex ones. Catabolism Breakdown of substances into energy Epithelial and connective tissues what tissues most often develop tumors Papilloma What type of benign tumor is a wart? (Papilloma, Lipoma, Myoma, Chondroma) Lipoma What benign tumor begins in the fatty tissue? (Papilloma, Lipoma, Myoma, Chondroma) Myoma What benign tumor is also called a fibroid? (Papilloma, Lipoma, Myoma, Chondroma) Chondroma What benign tumor is of cartilage cells? (Papilloma, Lipoma, Myoma, Chondroma) Sarcoma What type of tumor can be found anywhere and arises from connective tissue? Fevers and night sweats What are early signs of lymphoma? radiation therapy Planting seeds into a malignant prostate and irradiating to reduce damage to healthy tissue is called: vesicle Skin lesion described as a small fluid filled elevation of the skin (eg blister) [vesicle, pustule, macule, papule] pustule Skin lesion described as an elevation of the skin containing white blood cells and cell debris [vesicle, pustule, macule, papule] macule Skin lesion described as a spot not raised or depressed (eg freckle) [vesicle, pustule, macule, papule] papule Skin lesion described as a firm raised area of skin (eg pimple] [vesicle, pustule, macule, papule] excoriation Skin lesions described as a scratch into the skin. laceration Skin trauma- rough, jagged wound caused by skin tearing: fissure Skin trauma- crack in the skin ulcer skin trauma - sore with disintegration and death of affected tissue superficial burn Burn involving only the epidermal layer of the skin. Blisters and pain at the burn site. How do superficial partial thickness burns present? shingles Painful vesicular lesions caused by varicella. normal treatment is antiviral medications and corticosteroids to decrease pain. superficial Tissue destruction involving only the epidermal layer of the skin is called: Pruritus and urticarial What are two signs of allergic skin reactions? They are all autoimmune diseases involving the skin What do Pemphigus, scleroderma and lupus erythematosus have in common? Disturb equilibrium What can damage to the semicircular canals in the ears do? Placing a myringotomy tube in the ear How can otitis media be prevented? Presbycusis What is age related hearing loss called? Speaking in clear low pitched tones What can alleviate age -related hearing loss (Presbycusis)? arthrocentesis, laparoscopic repairs, and fixation of screws What can treatment of joint disorders include? Gout Form of arthritis described as a higher level of uric acid crystals accumulating in joint Septic arthritis Form of arthritis that may result from an invasive procedure, organisms carried to the joint by the blood stream. Osteoarthritis Form of arthritis that may be the results of aging and repeated trauma most often in weight-bearing joints. Rheumatoid arthritis Form of arthritis described as an inflammation and overgrowth of synovial fluid causing severe pain; joints stiffen and become useless Myasthenia gravis What can be described as chronic muscular fatigue caused by defect at the neuromuscular junction? By taking antacid medications, and using medications that decrease production of hydrochloric acid. How can gastroesophageal reflux disease be treated? Chronic pancreatitis What can be characterized with severe pain and blood tests that show elevated serum amylase? Pancreatitis What impacts the digestive process by leading to enzyme imbalances? Testing blood serology How is viral hepatitis identified? Bowel fucntion What does chronic hepatitis often exhibit changes in? an antigen-antibody reaction What could arise if an Rh negative patient experiences a second exposure to Rh positive blood? Hemophilia A bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of a clotting factor. Leukemia A neoplastic disease characterized by a large increase in white blood cells. Thalassemia A group of hereditary disorders causing impaired hemoglobin synthesis. Aplastic anemia A bone marrow failure characterized by a decreased red blood cell production. Vitamin K What vitamin is required for effective blood clotting? Diet, prescribed diuretics, regular exercise What are three recommendations for the treatment of hypertension? Shock What can described as confusion, anxiety, and hypotension? Atrophy What is described as a decrease in the size of a muscle from disuse? Strains What is described as pain and stiffness caused by overuse? Sprains What is described as pain and swelling caused by the tearing of ligaments? Muscular distrophy What is described as the deterioration of muscles that have intact nerve function? Cramps What are described as strong, painful muscle contractions? Shoulder joint dislocation What is described as acutely painful in the arm and chest area and often results in the affected arm being longer than the mate? Helicobacter pylori What causes a gastrointestinal disorder known as a peptic ulcer? Inflammation of the gallbladder What is characterized by abdominal pain and elevated bilirubin? Amylase What digests starch? Lipase What digests lipids? Trypsin What digests proteins? Nucleases What digests nucleic acids? serology and serum chemistry How can hepatitis be diagnosed? Blood transfusions What might both leukemia and pernicious anemia require? Jaundice and loss of appetite What are two signs of hepatitis? Anemia What directly impairs the delivery of oxygen to body tissues? Thrombosis (blood clots) What are characterized by pain and swelling, warmth and redness around site or location and are typically diagnosed by an US or MRI? Calcium-channel blockers What helps to control hypertension by inhibiting calcium ions from entering cardiac muscle cells? Age, gender, heredity, living conditions, social habits and preexisting conditions What are epidemics defined by? Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy What are two treatments for frequent otitis media an chronic sore throat? Elephantiasis, splenomegaly, and infectious mononucleosis What are three pathological responses of the lymphatic system? Chemotherapy and bone marrow transplant What treatment plan has produced the best survival rates for multiple myeloma? An autoimmune hypersensitivity What can self-antigens trigger? ECG readings, troponin levels, and creatine kinase levels What are three ways used to diagnose myocardial infarctions? Shortness of breath What is caused by increased blood flow backing up into the pulmonary circulation? CRP What lab test can diagnose Atherosclerosis? Congestive heart failure What are increased fatigue, shortness of breath, and edema of extremities signs of? Renin What is a probable cause of lower extremity edema and elevated blood pressure? Hypotension What can be exemplified by frequent fainting, low blood pressure, and low body temperature? Kussmaul What is a deep rapid respiration characteristic of acidosis as seen in diabetic patients? Hyperpnea What is an abnormal increase in the depth and rate of breathing? Dyspnea What is a subjective feeling of difficult or labored breathing? A loud, barking cough with audible wheezing at night. How is croup characterized? External oxygen What can often improve and prolong the quality of life for those with CPOD? An electroencephalogram (EEG) What is used to record a human's brain waves to diagnose neurologic diseases? Meningitis What can be characterized by a headache, stiff neck, nausea, and vomiting? Analgesics What can renal colic be treated by? Peripheral neuropathy What is a manifestation of uncontrolled diabetes and alcoholism and shows itself in pain and numbness in the extremities? Sodium retention What can be a cause of edema and hypertension for a patient with chronic renal failure? Parkinson's disease What is a nervous system disease treated by dopamine replacement therapy? Lithotripsy What is a surgical procedure aimed at shattering renal calculi? White blood cells What in the urine is indicative of pyuria (uti)? Hemodialysis What is the recommended treatment if a patient is suffering from chronic renal failure, vomiting, and fatigue? Toxins such as urea and nitrogenous waste from the blood. What does hemodialysis remove? It can strain the kidneys and lead to organ disfunction What effect can low cardiac output have? Diabetes mellitus What is defined as a disease process in which there is a deficiency of insulin hormone? Keytones What are abnormal constituents of urine and indicate diabetes or starvation? A1C and fasting blood glucose How is type 2 diabetes best tested? Lethargy, irritability, difficulty eating, and dry hair and skin. How is Hypothyroidism characterized? Erythropoietin What is a treatment of anemia in someone with chronic renal failure? Thyroxine and triodothryrone deficiencies What might a child with impaired cognitive function have? Calcium What is released from the bone due to increased production of the parathyroid hormone? Medications to suppress thyroid function. When a patient presents with exophthalmos, strained appearance to the face, extreme nervousness and a goiter, what medications might be necessary? Skeletal fractures Hyperparathyroidism is often accompanied by ___ By hx and physical examination and extreme pain. How can testicular torsion best be diagnosed? Culture of the penis drainage (ewww) How is gonorrhea in males diagnosed? When urinary function is threatened? When is benign prostatic hypertrophy treated by laser and ultrasound and transurethral prostatectomy? Weight, menstrual history, and degree of athleticism What can inhibit a female athlete's ability to conceive? Menopause ___ is described as a lack of menses for 6 months. Placenta previa, gestational diabetes, and gestational hypertension What are three disorders that may occur during pregnancy? trichomoniasis Vaginal secretions of yellow or green frothy discharge characterizes what? Eclampsia and toxemia What are two disorders experienced in pregnancy and diagnosed by hypertension and proteinuria?

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