ATI TEAS 6 Practice Test Q&A for the Test of Essential Academic Skills (6th Ed)Two different practice exam test

  Reading 1. Xavier propagated his belief that dragons were real to his friends gathered around the campfire. Which of the following words could most logically replace the underlined word without altering the intent of the sentence? a. Shouted b. Expressed c. Persuaded d. Whispered 2. Which of the following statements least supports the argument that the American economy is healthy? a. The United States' Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which is the measure of all the goods and services produced in a country, increased by two percent last year. b. Unemployment is the lowest it's been in over a decade due to a spike in job creation. c. Average household income just hit a historical high point for the twentieth consecutive quarter. d. Last year, the output of the United States’ manufacturing sector decreased despite repeated massive investments by both the private and public sectors. The next three questions are based on the following table. The Dewey Decimal System is a library classification system. The Dewey Decimal Classes 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography 3. Teddy has been assigned to write a history paper about the United States during the Cold War. His teacher advised him to read some of the works of Noam Chomsky, an American linguist, philosopher, social scientist, cognitive scientist, historian, social critic, and political activist. Teddy was not sure where to begin, so he consulted the Dewey Decimal classes. While not all inclusive, what choice of three classes would likely be the most useful? a. 100, 300, 700 b. 100, 300, 800 c. 100, 400, 900 d. 200, 300, 900 4. While researching Chomsky's many theories and arguments, Teddy became interested in post-World War II anarchism, a social science theory asserting the political philosophy that rejects a compulsory government. He wants to find the most appropriate works related to the subject. Which section of the library is the most likely to contain the relevant books? a. 000 b. 200 c. 300 d. 900 5. Also during his research, Teddy discovered information about Chomsky’s Jewish heritage, and he wants to research traditional Judaism as practiced in the early twentieth century. Which section of the library would most likely contain the most relevant information? a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 900 6. Samuel teaches at a high school in one of the biggest cities in the United States. His students come from diverse family backgrounds. Samuel observes that the best students in his class are from homes where parental supervision is minimal. The parents of the bottom five students are the most involved, by a large margin. There are 24 students in his class. Samuel is going to write an academic paper based on his students' family backgrounds and academic performance. The paper will argue that parental involvement is not an important factor in academic success. Which of the following statements best describes Samuel's sample size? a. The sample is biased because he has firsthand experience and personal knowledge of its participants. b. The sample contains too few members to make meaningful claims applicable to a large group. c. The sample contains too many members to understand the context and specifics of any given student's situation. d. The sample is unbiased and appropriately sized to draw conclusions on the role of parental supervision in education. The next question is based on the following passage. Annabelle Rice started having trouble sleeping. Her biological clock was suddenly amiss and she began to lead a nocturnal schedule. She thought her insomnia was due to spending nights writing a horror story, but then she realized that even the idea of going outside into the bright world scared her to bits. She concluded she was now suffering from heliophobia. 7. Which of the following most accurately describes the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence above? a. Fear of dreams b. Fear of sunlight c. Fear of strangers d. Anxiety spectrum disorder The next question is based on the following directions. Follow these instructions in chronological order to transform the word into something new. 1. Start with the word LOATHING. 2. Eliminate the first and last letter in the starting word. 3. Eliminate all the vowels, except I, from the word. 4. Eliminate the letter H from the word. 8. What new word has been spelled? a. TON b. THIN c. TIN d. TAN 9. Which of these descriptions gives the most detailed and objective support for the claim that drinking and driving is unsafe? a. A dramatized television commercial reenacting a fatal drinking and driving accident, including heart-wrenching testimonials from loved ones b. The Department of Transportation's press release noting the additional drinking and driving special patrol units that will be on the road during the holiday season c. Congressional written testimony on the number of drinking and driving incidents across the country and their relationship to underage drinking statistics, according to experts d. A highway bulletin warning drivers of penalties associated with drinking and driving The next question is based on the following passage. A famous children’s author recently published a historical fiction novel under a pseudonym; however, it did not sell as many copies as her children’s books. In her earlier years, she had majored in history and earned a graduate degree in Antebellum American History, which is the time frame of her new novel. Critics praised this newest work far more than the children's series that made her famous. In fact, her new novel was nominated for the prestigious Albert J. Beveridge Award, but still isn't selling like her children’s books, which fly off the shelves because of her name alone. 10. Which one of the following statements might be accurately inferred based on the above passage? a. The famous children’s author produced an inferior book under her pseudonym. b. The famous children’s author is the foremost expert on Antebellum America. c. The famous children’s author did not receive the bump in publicity for her historical novel that it would have received if it were written under her given name. d. People generally prefer to read children's series than historical fiction. The next four questions are based on the following passage. Smoking is Terrible Smoking tobacco products is terribly destructive. A single cigarette contains over 4,000 chemicals, including 43 known carcinogens and 400 deadly toxins. Some of the most dangerous ingredients include tar, carbon monoxide, formaldehyde, ammonia, arsenic, and DDT. Smoking can cause numerous types of cancer including throat, mouth, nasal cavity, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, kidney, bladder, and cervical. Cigarettes contain a drug called nicotine, one of the most addictive substances known to man. Addiction is defined as a compulsion to seek the substance despite negative consequences. According to the National Institute of Drug Abuse, nearly 35 million smokers expressed a desire to quit smoking in 2015; however, more than 85 percent of those addicts will not achieve their goal. Almost all smokers regret picking up that first cigarette. You would be wise to learn from their mistake if you have not yet started smoking. According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 16 million people in the United States presently suffer from a smoking-related condition and nearly nine million suffer from a serious smoking-related illness. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), tobacco products cause nearly six million deaths per year. This number is projected to rise to over eight million deaths by 2030. Smokers, on average, die ten years earlier than their nonsmoking peers. In the United States, local, state, and federal governments typically tax tobacco products, which leads to high prices. Nicotine addicts sometimes pay more for a pack of cigarettes than for a few gallons of gas. Additionally, smokers tend to stink. The smell of smoke is all-consuming and creates a pervasive nastiness. Smokers also risk staining their teeth and fingers with yellow residue from the tar. Smoking is deadly, expensive, and socially unappealing. Clearly, smoking is not worth the risks. 11. Which of the following best describes the passage? a. Narrative b. Persuasive c. Expository d. Technical 12. Which of the following statements most accurately summarizes the passage? a. Tobacco is less healthy than many alternatives. b. Tobacco is deadly, expensive, and socially unappealing, and smokers would be much better off kicking the addiction. c. In the United States, local, state, and federal governments typically tax tobacco products, which leads to high prices. d. Tobacco products shorten smokers' lives by ten years and kill more than six million people per year. 13. The author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements? a. Smokers should only quit cold turkey and avoid all nicotine cessation devices. b. Other substances are more addictive than tobacco. c. Smokers should quit for whatever reason that gets them to stop smoking. d. People who want to continue smoking should advocate for a reduction in tobacco product taxes. 14. Which of the following represents an opinion statement on the part of the author? a. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), tobacco products cause nearly six million deaths per year. b. Nicotine addicts sometimes pay more for a pack of cigarettes than a few gallons of gas. c. They also risk staining their teeth and fingers with yellow residue from the tar. d. Additionally, smokers tend to stink. The smell of smoke is all- consuming and creates a pervasive nastiness. The next question is based on the following passage. In 2015, 28 countries, including Estonia, Portugal, Slovenia, and Latvia, scored significantly higher than the United States on standardized high school math tests. In the 1960s, the United States consistently ranked first in the world. Today, the United States spends more than $800 billion dollars on education, which exceeds the next highest country by more than $600 billion dollars. The United States also leads the world in spending per school-aged child by an enormous margin. 15. If these statements above are factual, which of the following statements must be correct? a. Outspending other countries on education has benefits beyond standardized math tests. b. The United States' education system is corrupt and broken. c. The standardized math tests are not representative of American academic prowess. d. Spending more money does not guarantee success on standardized math tests. 16. At the top of an encyclopedia's page are the following two guide terms: kingcraft and klieg light. Which one of the following words will be found on this page? a. Kleptomania b. Knead c. Kinesthesia d. Kickback 17. Which of the following is a primary source? a. A critic's summary and review of a new book on the life of Abraham Lincoln b. A peer-reviewed scientific journal's table of contents c. A report containing the data, summary, and conclusions of a recent gene splicing study d. A news article quoting recent groundbreaking research into curing cancer The next question is based on the following passage. Cynthia keeps to a strict vegetarian diet, which is part of her religion. She absolutely cannot have any meat or fish dishes. This is more than a preference; her body has never developed the enzymes to process meat or fish, so she becomes violently ill if she accidentally eats any of the offending foods. Cynthia is attending a full day event at her college next week. When at an event that serves meals, she always likes to bring a platter of vegetarian food for herself and to share with other attendees who have similar dietary restrictions. She requested a menu in advance to determine when her platter might be most useful to vegetarians. Here is the menu: Breakfast: Hazelnut coffee or English breakfast tea, French toast, eggs, and bacon strips Lunch: Assorted sandwiches (vegetarian options available), French fries, and baked beans Cocktail hour: Alcoholic beverages, fruit, and cheese Dinner: Roasted pork loin, seared trout, and bacon-bit topped macaroni and cheese 18. If Cynthia wants to pick the meal where there would be the least options for her and fellow vegetarians, during what meal should she bring the platter? a. Breakfast b. Lunch c. Cocktail hour d. Dinner The next three questions are based on the following passage. George Washington emerged out of the American Revolution as an unlikely champion of liberty. On June 14, 1775, the Second Continental Congress created the Continental Army, and John Adams, serving in the Congress, nominated Washington to be its first commander. Washington fought under the British during the French and Indian War, and his experience and prestige proved instrumental to the American war effort. Washington provided invaluable leadership, training, and strategy during the Revolutionary War. He emerged from the war as the embodiment of liberty and freedom from tyranny. After vanquishing the heavily favored British forces, Washington could have pronounced himself as the autocratic leader of the former colonies without any opposition, but he famously refused and returned to his Mount Vernon plantation. His restraint proved his commitment to the fledgling state's republicanism. Washington was later unanimously elected as the first American president. But it is Washington's farewell address that cemented his legacy as a visionary worthy of study. In 1796, President Washington issued his farewell address by public letter. Washington enlisted his good friend, Alexander Hamilton, in drafting his most famous address. The letter expressed Washington's faith in the Constitution and rule of law. He encouraged his fellow Americans to put aside partisan differences and establish a national union. Washington warned Americans against meddling in foreign affairs and entering military alliances. Additionally, he stated his opposition to national political parties, which he considered partisan and counterproductive. Americans would be wise to remember Washington's farewell, especially during presidential elections when politics hits a fever pitch. They might want to question the political institutions that were not planned by the Founding Fathers, such as the nomination process and political parties themselves. 19. Which of the following statements is logically based on the information contained in the passage above? a. George Washington's background as a wealthy landholder directly led to his faith in equality, liberty, and democracy. b. George Washington would have opposed America's involvement in the Second World War. c. George Washington would not have been able to write as great a farewell address without the assistance of Alexander Hamilton. d. George Washington would probably not approve of modern political parties. 20. Which of the following statements is the best description of the author's purpose in writing this passage about George Washington? a. To inform American voters about a Founding Father's sage advice on a contemporary issue and explain its applicability to modern times b. To introduce George Washington to readers as a historical figure worthy of study c. To note that George Washington was more than a famous military hero d. To convince readers that George Washington is a hero of republicanism and liberty 21. In which of the following materials would the author be the most likely to include this passage? a. A history textbook b. An obituary c. A fictional story d. A newspaper editorial The next question is based on the following conversation between a scientist and a politician. Scientist: Last year was the warmest ever recorded in the last 134 years. During that time period, the ten warmest years have all occurred since 2000. This correlates directly with the recent increases in carbon dioxide as large countries like China, India, and Brazil continue developing and industrializing. No longer do just a handful of countries burn massive amounts of carbon-based fossil fuels; it is quickly becoming the case throughout the whole world as technology and industry spread. Politician: Yes, but there is no causal link between increases in carbon emissions and increasing temperatures. The link is tenuous and nothing close to certain. We need to wait for all of the data before drawing hasty conclusions. For all we know, the temperature increase could be entirely natural. I believe the temperatures also rose dramatically during the dinosaurs' time, and I do not think they were burning any fossil fuels back then. 22. What is one point on which the scientist and politician agree? a. Burning fossil fuels causes global temperatures to rise. b. Global temperatures are increasing. c. Countries must revisit their energy policies before it's too late. d. Earth's climate naturally goes through warming and cooling periods. 23. Raul is going to Egypt next month. He has been looking forward to this vacation all year. Since childhood, Raul has been fascinated with pyramids, especially the Great Pyramid of Giza, which is the oldest of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. According to religious custom, Egyptian royalty is buried in the tombs located within the pyramid's great labyrinths. Since it has been many years since Raul read about the pyramid's history, he wants to read a book describing how and why the Egyptians built the Great Pyramid thousands of years ago. Which of the following guides would be the best for Raul? a. A Beginner's Guide to Giza, a short book describing the city's best historical sites, published by the Egyptian Tourism Bureau (2015) b. The Life of Zahi Hawass, the autobiography of one of Egypt's most famous archaeologists who was one of the first explorers at Giza (2014) c. A History of Hieroglyphics, an in-depth look at how archaeologists first broke the ancient code, published by the University of Giza's famed history department (2013) d. Who Built the Great Pyramids?, a short summary of the latest research and theories on the ancient Egyptians' religious beliefs and archaeological skills, written by a team of leading experts in the field (2015) The next five questions are based on the following passage. Christopher Columbus is often credited for discovering America. This is incorrect. First, it is impossible to "discover" something where people already live; however, Christopher Columbus did explore places in the New World that were previously untouched by Europe, so the term “explorer” would be more accurate. Another correction must be made, as well: Christopher Columbus was not the first European explorer to reach the present day Americas! Rather, it was Leif Erikson who first came to the New World and contacted the natives, nearly five hundred years before Christopher Columbus. Leif Erikson, the son of Erik the Red (a famous Viking outlaw and explorer in his own right), was born in either 970 or 980, depending on which historian you seek. His own family, though, did not raise Leif, which was a Viking tradition. Instead, one of Erik's prisoners taught Leif reading and writing, languages, sailing, and weaponry. At age 12, Leif was considered a man and returned to his family. He killed a man during a dispute shortly after his return, and the council banished the Erikson clan to Greenland. In 999, Leif left Greenland and traveled to Norway where he would serve as a guard to King Olaf Tryggvason. It was there that he became a convert to Christianity. Leif later tried to return home with the intention of taking supplies and spreading Christianity to Greenland, however his ship was blown off course and he arrived in a strange new land: present day Newfoundland, Canada. When he finally returned to his adopted homeland Greenland, Leif consulted with a merchant who had also seen the shores of this previously unknown land we now know as Canada. The son of the legendary Viking explorer then gathered a crew of 35 men and set sail. Leif became the first European to touch foot in the New World as he explored present-day Baffin Island and Labrador, Canada. His crew called the land Vinland since it was plentiful with grapes. During their time in present-day Newfoundland, Leif's expedition made contact with the natives whom they referred to as Skraelings (which translates to "wretched ones" in Norse). There are several secondhand accounts of their meetings. Some contemporaries described trade between the peoples. Other accounts describe clashes where the Skraelings defeated the Viking explorers with long spears, while still others claim the Vikings dominated the natives. Regardless of the circumstances, it seems that the Vikings made contact of some kind. This happened around 1000, nearly five hundred years before Columbus famously sailed the ocean blue. Eventually, in 1003, Leif set sail for home and arrived at Greenland with a ship full of timber. In 1020, seventeen years later, the legendary Viking died. Many believe that Leif Erikson should receive more credit for his contributions in exploring the New World. 24. Which of the following best describes how the author generally presents the information? a. Chronological order b. Comparison-contrast c. Cause-effect d. Conclusion-premises 25. Which of the following is an opinion, rather than historical fact, expressed by the author? a. Leif Erikson was definitely the son of Erik the Red; however, historians debate the year of his birth. b. Leif Erikson's crew called the land Vinland since it was plentiful with grapes. c. Leif Erikson deserves more credit for his contributions in exploring the New World. d. Leif Erikson explored the Americas nearly five hundred years before Christopher Columbus. 26. Which of the following most accurately describes the author's main conclusion? a. Leif Erikson is a legendary Viking explorer. b. Leif Erikson deserves more credit for exploring America hundreds of years before Columbus. c. Spreading Christianity motivated Leif Erikson's expeditions more than any other factor. d. Leif Erikson contacted the natives nearly five hundred years before Columbus. 27. Which of the following best describes the author’s intent in the passage? a. To entertain b. To inform c. To alert d. To suggest 28. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the passage? a. The Vikings disliked exploring the New World. b. Leif Erikson's banishment from Iceland led to his exploration of present- day Canada. c. Leif Erikson never shared his stories of exploration with the King of Norway. d. Historians have difficulty definitively pinpointing events in the Vikings' history. The next five questions are based on the chart following a brief introduction to the topic. The American Civil War was fought from 1861 to 1865. It is the only civil war in American history. While the South's secession was the initiating event of the war, the conflict grew out of several issues like slavery and differing interpretations of individual state rights. General Robert E. Lee led the Confederate Army for the South for the duration of the conflict (although other generals held command positions over individual battles, as you will see below). The North employed a variety of lead generals, but Ulysses S. Grant finished the war as the victorious general. There were more American casualties in the Civil War than any other military conflict in American history. Civil War Casualties by Battle (approximate) Battle Date Union General Confederate General Union Casualties Confederate Casualties Gettysburg July 1863 George Meade Robert E. Lee 23,049 28,063 Chancellorsville May 1863 Joseph Hooker Robert E. Lee 17,304 13,460 Shiloh April 1862 Ulysses S. Grant Albert Sydney Johnston 13,047 10,669 Cold Harbor May 1864 Ulysses S. Grant Robert E. Lee 12,737 4,595 Atlanta July 1864 William T. Sherman John Bell Hood 3,722 5,500 29. In which of the following battles were there more Confederate casualties than Union casualties? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh 30. Which one of the following battles occurred first? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh 31. Robert E. Lee did not lead the Confederate forces in which one of the following battles? a. Atlanta b. Chancellorsville c. Cold Harbor d. Gettysburg 32. In which of the following battles did the Union casualties exceed the Confederate casualties by the greatest number? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh 33. The total number of American casualties suffered at the battle of Gettysburg is about double the total number of casualties suffered at which one of the following battles? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh The next two questions are based on the graphic that follows a brief introduction to the topic. The United States Constitution directs Congress to conduct a census of the population to determine the country's population and demographic information. The United States Census Bureau carries out the survey. In 1790, then Secretary of State Thomas Jefferson conducted the first census, and the most recent U.S. census was in 2010. The next U.S. census will be the first to be issued primarily through the Internet. 34. In which of the following years was the United States population less than it was in 1930? a. 1950 b. 1970 c. 1910 d. 1990 35. In what year did the population increase the most during a twenty-year interval? a. From 1930 to 1950 b. From 1950 to 1970 c. From 1970 to 1990 d. From 1990 to 2010 The next question is based on the following outline. Chapter 5: Outdoor Activities 1. Hiking a. Gear b. First Aid 2. Camping a. Tents & Gear b. Camping Activities 3. Cycling a. Safety b. Finding Cycling Trails 4. Canoeing a. Equipment b. Tips for Maneuvering 36. What aspect of this outline is inconsistent? a. Hiking, which starts with an H, is included with activities that all start with C. b. There is no information about gear/equipment for cycling c. Rock climbing is not included in the outline. d. There is no section for hiking tips. The next three questions are based on the graphic following a brief introduction to the topic. A food chain is a diagram used by biologists to better understand ecosystems. It represents the interrelationships between different plants and animals. The energy is derived from the sun and converted into stored energy by plants through photosynthesis, which travels up the food chain. The energy returns to the ecosystem after the organisms die and decompose back into the Earth. This process is an endless cycle. In food chains, living organisms are grouped into categories called primary producers and consumers, which come in multiple tiers. For example, secondary consumers feed on primary consumers, while tertiary consumers feed on secondary consumers. Apex predators are the animals at the top of the food chain. They are the highest category consumer in an ecosystem, and apex predators do not have natural predators. 37. Which of the following animals eats primary producers according to the food chain diagram? a. Cobra b. Gazelle c. Wild dog d. Aardvark 38. Which of the following animals has no natural predators according to the food chain diagram? a. Vulture b. Cobra c. Mongoose d. Aardvark 39. Which of the following is something that the mongoose would eat? a. Shrub b. Aardvark c. Vulture d. Mouse The next four questions are based on the timeline of the life of Alexander Graham Bell. 40. Which of the following is the event that occurred fourth on the timeline? a. Helped found National Geographic Society b. Developed a metal detector c. Moved to Canada d. Started a school for the deaf 41. Of the pairings in the answer choices, which has the longest gap between the two events? a. Moved to Canada and Became friends with Helen Keller b. Became friends with Helen Keller and Died in Canada c. Started school for the deaf and Developed a metal detector d. Born in Scotland and Started school for the deaf 42. Which one of the following statements is accurate based on the timeline? a. Bell did nothing significant after he helped found the National Geographic Society. b. Bell started a school for the deaf in Canada. c. Bell lived in at least two countries. d. Developing a metal detector allowed Bell to meet Helen Keller. 43. Which one of the following events occurred most recently? a. Bell’s invention of the telephone b. Bell’s founding of the school. c. Bell’s birth d. Bell’s move to Canada 44. Which of the following statements would make the best conclusion to an essay about civil rights activist Rosa Parks? a. On December 1, 1955, Rosa Parks refused to give up her bus seat to a white passenger, setting in motion the Montgomery bus boycott. b. Rosa Parks was a hero to many, and came to symbolize the way that ordinary people could bring about real change in the Civil Rights Movement. c. Rosa Parks died in 2005 in Detroit, having moved from Montgomery shortly after the bus boycott. d. Rosa Parks’ arrest was an early part of the Civil Rights Movement, and helped lead to the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. 45. The following exchange occurred after the Baseball Coach's team suffered a heartbreaking loss in the final inning. Reporter: The team clearly did not rise to the challenge. I'm sure that getting zero hits in twenty at-bats with runners in scoring position hurt the team's chances at winning the game. What are your thoughts on this devastating loss? Baseball Coach: Hitting with runners in scoring position was not the reason we lost this game. We made numerous errors in the field, and our pitchers gave out too many free passes. Also, we did not even need a hit with runners in scoring position. Many of those at-bats could have driven in the run by simply making contact. Our team did not deserve to win the game. Which of the following best describes the main point of dispute between the reporter and baseball coach? a. Whether the loss was heartbreaking. b. Whether getting zero hits in twenty at-bats with runners in scoring position caused the loss. c. Numerous errors in the field and pitchers giving too many free passes caused the loss. d. Whether the team deserved to win the game. 46. Read the following poem. Which option best expresses the symbolic meaning of the “road” and the overall theme? Two roads diverged in a yellow wood, And sorry I could not travel both And be one traveler, long I stood And looked down one as far as I could To where it bent in the undergrowth; Then took the other, as just as fair, And having perhaps the better claim, Because it was grassy and wanted wear; Though as for that the passing there Had worn them really about the same, And both that morning equally lay In leaves no step had trodden black. Oh, I kept the first for another day! Yet knowing how way leads on to way, I doubted if I should ever come back. I shall be telling this with a sigh Somewhere ages and ages hence: Two roads diverged in a wood, and I— I took the one less traveled by, And that has made all the difference—Robert Frost, “The Road Not Taken” a. A divergent spot where the traveler had to choose the correct path to his destination b. A choice between good and evil that the traveler needs to make c. The traveler’s struggle between his lost love and his future prospects d. Life’s journey and the choices with which humans are faced 47. Kimmy is a world famous actress. Millions of people downloaded her leaked movie co-starring her previous boyfriend. Kimmy earns millions through her television show and marketing appearances. There's little wonder that paparazzi track her every move. What is the argument's primary purpose? a. Kimmy does not deserve her fame. b. Kimmy starred in an extremely popular movie. c. Kimmy earns millions of dollars through her television show and marketing appearances. d. Kimmy is a highly compensated and extremely popular television and movie actress. 48. Dwight works at a mid-sized regional tech company. He approaches all tasks with unmatched enthusiasm and leads the company in annual sales. The top salesman is always the best employee. Therefore, Dwight is the best employee. Which of the following most accurately describes how the argument proceeds? a. The argument proceeds by first stating a conclusion and then offering several premises to justify that conclusion. b. The argument proceeds by stating a universal rule and then proceeds to show how this situation is the exception. c. The argument proceeds by stating several facts that serve as the basis for the conclusion at the end of the argument. d. The argument proceeds by stating several facts, offering a universal rule, and then drawing a conclusion by applying the facts to the rule. Questions 49-51 are based upon the following passage: This excerpt is adaptation from “The ‘Hatchery’ of the Sun-Fish”--- Scientific American, #711 I have thought that an example of the intelligence (instinct?) of a class of fish which has come under my observation during my excursions into the Adirondack region of New York State might possibly be of interest to your readers, especially as I am not aware that any one except myself has noticed it, or, at least, has given it publicity. The female sun-fish (called, I believe, in England, the roach or bream) makes a "hatchery" for her eggs in this wise. Selecting a spot near the banks of the numerous lakes in which this region abounds, and where the water is about 4 inches deep, and still, she builds, with her tail and snout, a circular embankment 3 inches in height and 2 thick. The circle, which is as perfect a one as could be formed with mathematical instruments, is usually a foot and a half in diameter; and at one side of this circular wall an opening is left by the fish of just sufficient width to admit her body. The mother sun-fish, having now built or provided her "hatchery," deposits her spawn within the circular inclosure, and mounts guard at the entrance until the fry are hatched out and are sufficiently large to take charge of themselves. As the embankment, moreover, is built up to the surface of the water, no enemy can very easily obtain an entrance within the inclosure from the top; while there being only one entrance, the fish is able, with comparative ease, to keep out all intruders. I have, as I say, noticed this beautiful instinct of the sun-fish for the perpetuity of her species more particularly in the lakes of this region; but doubtless the same habit is common to these fish in other waters. 49. What is the purpose of this passage? a. To show the effects of fish hatcheries on the Adirondack region b. To persuade the audience to study Ichthyology (fish science) c. To depict the sequence of mating among sun-fish d. To enlighten the audience on the habits of sun-fish and their hatcheries 50. What does the word wise in this passage most closely mean? a. Knowledge b. Manner c. Shrewd d. Ignorance 51. What is the definition of the word fry as it appears in the following passage? The mother sun-fish, having now built or provided her "hatchery," deposits her spawn within the circular inclosure, and mounts guard at the entrance until the fry are hatched out and are sufficiently large to take charge of themselves. a. Fish at the stage of development where they are capable of feeding themselves. b. Fish eggs that have been fertilized. c. A place where larvae is kept out of danger from other predators. d. A dish where fish is placed in oil and fried until golden brown. 52. Read the following passage: Last week, we adopted a dog from the local animal shelter, after looking for our perfect pet for several months. We wanted a dog that was not too old, but also past the puppy stage, so that training would be less time-intensive and to give an older animal a home. Robin, as she’s called, was a perfect match and we filled out our application and upon approval, were permitted to bring her home. Her physical exam and lab work all confirmed she was healthy. We went to the pet store and bought all sorts of bedding, food, toys, and treats to outfit our house as a dog-friendly and fun place. The shelter told us she liked dry food only, which is a relief because wet food is expensive and pretty off- putting. We even got fencing and installed a dog run in the backyard for Robin to roam unattended. Then we took her to the vet to make sure she was healthy. Next week, she starts the dog obedience class that we enrolled her in with a discount coupon from the shelter. It will be a good opportunity to bond with her and establish commands and dominance. When we took her to the park the afternoon after we adopted her, it was clear that she is a sociable and friendly dog, easily playing cohesively with dogs of all sizes and dispositions. Which of the following is out of sequence in the story? a. Last week, we adopted a dog from the local animal shelter, after looking for our perfect pet for several months. b. Robin, as she’s called, was a perfect match and we filled out our application and upon approval, were permitted to bring her home. c. Her physical exam and lab work all confirmed she was healthy. d. Next week, she starts the dog obedience class that we enrolled her in with a discount coupon from the shelter. 53. You are a high school math teacher and one of your students, Marcus, emailed asking to come see you after the latest exam. His email said he was disappointed and surprised with his grade and wanted to inquire about extra credit work to recoup points he lost on the exam. You decided to look over the details of his performance in your course to find any potential causes for his poor marks and to offer him informed tips to improve for the next exam. Thankfully, you keep detailed records to tracks each student’s grades. You have four pieces of information to evaluate before he comes in to meet with you: a graph of his scores on the four exams he’s taken so far, a graph of the number of absences he’s had each week thus far in the course, a graph of the percentage of homework assignments he’s completed each week, and an email from his basketball coach. From: William Cooper, Boys Varsity Basketball Coach To: All academic teachers Re: Marco Marco will be competing in the Northeast Regional Basketball tournament next week and will be absent from classes Tuesday through Friday. The student athletes will be responsible for obtaining their assignments and making arrangements to complete any missed material. If you have any questions, please don’t hesitate to reach out to me. While I understand that this is not ideal so close to final exams, but this is the first time our Ravens have made it so far in the tournament and we are excited to see how well they will perform. Thanks, Coach William Cooper Which of the given information sources provides a possible explanation for a Marco’s recent poor exam grade? a. The email from his basketball coach about the tournament b. The graph of his exam marks c. The graph of his class absences each week d. The graph of the percentage of homework assignments completed Mathematics 1. Which of the following numbers has the greatest value? a. 1.4378 b. 1.07548 c. 1.43592 d. 0.89409 2. The value of 6 x 12 is the same as: a. 2 x 4 x 4 x 2 b. 7 x 4 x 3 c. 6 x 6 x 3 d. 3 x 3 x 4 x 2 3. This chart indicates how many sales of CDs, vinyl records, and MP3 downloads occurred over the last year. Approximately what percentage of the total sales was from CDs? a. 55% b. 25% c. 40% d. 5% 4. After a 20% sale discount, Frank purchased a new refrigerator for $850. How much did he save from the original price? a. $170 b. $212.50 c. $105.75 d. $200 5. Which of the following is largest? a. 0.45 b. 0.096 c. 0.3 d. 0.313 6. What is the value of b in this equation? 5b – 4 = 2b + 17 a. 13 b. 24 c. 7 d. 21 7. A school has 15 teachers and 20 teaching assistants. They have 200 students. What is the ratio of faculty to students? a. 3:20 b. 4:17 c. 3:2 d. 7:40 8. Express the solution to the following problem in decimal form: a. 0.042 b. 84% c. 0.84 d. 0.42 9. A student gets an 85% on a test with 20 questions. How many answers did the student solve correctly? a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18 10. If Sarah reads at an average rate of 21 pages in four nights, how long will it take her to read 140 pages? a. 6 nights b. 26 nights c. 8 nights d. 27 nights 11. Alan currently weighs 200 pounds, but he wants to lose weight to get down to 175 pounds. What is this difference in kilograms? (1 pound is approximately equal to 0.45 kilograms.) a. 9 kg b. 11.25 kg c. 78.75 kg d. 90 kg 12. Johnny earns $2334.50 from his job each month. He pays $1437 for monthly expenses. Johnny is planning a vacation in 3 months’ time that he estimates will cost $1750 total. How much will Johnny have left over from three months’ of saving once he pays for his vacation? a. $948.50 b. $584.50 c. $852.50 d. $942.50 13. What is rounded to the nearest integer? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 14. Solve the following: 4 x 7 + (25 – 21)Z a. 512 b. 36 c. 60.5 d. 22 15. The total perimeter of a rectangle is 36 cm. If the length of each side is 12 cm, what is the width? a. 3 cm b. 12 cm c. 6 cm d. 8 cm 16. Dwayne has received the following scores on his math tests: 78, 92, 83, 97. What score must Dwayne get on his next math test to have an overall average of at least 90? a. 89 b. 98 c. 95 d. 100 17. What is the overall median of Dwayne’s current scores: 78, 92, 83, 97? a. 19 b. 85 c. 83 d. 87.5 18. Solve the following: a. 30 b. 21 c. 15 d. 13 19. In Jim’s school, there are 3 girls for every 2 boys. There are 650 students in total. Using this information, how many students are girls? a. 260 b. 130 c. 65 d. 390 20. What is the solution to 4 x 7 + (25 – 21)Z ? a. 512 b. 36 c. 60.5 d. 22 21. Kimberley earns $10 an hour babysitting, and after 10 p.m., she earns $12 an hour, with the amount paid being rounded to the nearest hour accordingly. On her last job, she worked from 5:30 p.m. to 11 p.m. In total, how much did Kimberley earn on her last job? a. $45 b. $57 c. $62 d. $42 22. Solve this equation: b. 3 c. d. 23. Arrange the following numbers from least to greatest value: 0.85, a. b. c. d. 24. Keith’s bakery had 252 customers go through its doors last week. This week, that number increased to 378. Express this increase as a percentage. a. 26% b. 50% c. 35% d. 12% 25. If , then a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 26. Simplify the following fraction: a. b. c. d. 27. The following graph compares the various test scores of the top three students in each of these teacher’s classes. Based on the graph, which teacher’s students had the lowest range of test scores? a. Mr. Lennon b. Mr. O’Shea c. Mr. Taylor d. Ms. Daley 28. Bernard can make $80 per day. If he needs to make $300 and only works full days, how many days will this take? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 29. Using the following diagram, calculate the total circumference, rounding to the nearest decimal place: a. 25.0 cm b. 15.7 cm c. 78.5 cm d. 31.4 cm 30. Which measure for the center of a small sample set would be most affected by outliers? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. None of the above 31. A line that travels from the bottom-left of a graph to the upper-right of the graph indicates what kind of relationship between a predictor and a dependent variable? a. Positive b. Negative c. Exponential d. Logarithmic 32. How many kilometers is 4382 feet? a. 1.336 kilometers b. 14,376 kilometers c. 1.437 kilometers d. 13,336 kilometers 33. Which of the following is the best description of the relationship between Y and X? a. The data has normal distribution. b. X and Y have a negative relationship. c. No relationship d. X and Y have a positive relationship. 34. What is the slope of this line? a. 2 b. c. d. 35. What is the perimeter of the figure below? Note that the solid outer line is the perimeter. a. 48.565 in b. 36.565 in c. 39.78 in d. 39.565 in 36. Which of the following equations best represents the problem below? The width of a rectangle is 2 centimeters less than the length. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 44 centimeters, then what are the dimensions of the rectangle? a. b. c. d. ( Science 1. Which statement about white blood cells is true? a. B cells are responsible for antibody production. b. White blood cells are made in the white/yellow cartilage before they enter the bloodstream. c. Platelets, a special class of white blood cell, function to clot blood and stop bleeding. d. The majority of white blood cells only activate during the age of puberty, which explains why children and the elderly are particularly susceptible to disease. 2. Which locations in the digestive system are sites of chemical digestion? I. Mouth II. Stomach III. Small Intestine a. II only b. III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III 3. Which of the following are functions of the urinary system? I. Synthesizing calcitriol and secreting erythropoietin II. Regulating the concentrations of sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, and other ions III. Reabsorbing or secreting hydrogen ions and bicarbonate IV. Detecting reductions in blood volume and pressure a. I, II, and III b. II and III c. II, III, and IV d. All of the above 4. Which of the following structures is unique to eukaryotic cells? a. Cell walls b. Nucleuses c. Cell membranes d. Vacuoles 5. Which is the cellular organelle used for digestion to recycle materials? a. The Golgi apparatus b. The lysosome c. The centrioles d. The mitochondria 6. A rock has a mass of 14.3 grams (g) and a volume of 5.4 cm3 , what is its density? a. 8.90 g/cm3 b. 0.38 g/cm3 c. 77.22 g/cm3 d. 2.65 g/cm3 7. Why do arteries have valves? a. They have valves to maintain high blood pressure so that capillaries diffuse nutrients properly. b. Their valves are designed to prevent backflow due to their low blood pressure. c. They have valves due to a leftover trait from evolution that, like the appendix, are useless. d. They do not have valves, but veins do. 8. If the pressure in the pulmonary artery is increased above normal, which chamber of the heart will be affected first? a. The right atrium b. The left atrium c. The right ventricle d. The left ventricle 9. What is the purpose of sodium bicarbonate when released into the lumen of the small intestine? a. It works to chemically digest fats in the chyme. b. It decreases the pH of the chyme so as to prevent harm to the intestine. c. It works to chemically digest proteins in the chyme. d. It increases the pH of the chyme so as to prevent harm to the intestine. 10. Which of the following describes a reflex arc? a. The storage and recall of memory b. The maintenance of visual and auditory acuity c. The autoregulation of heart rate and blood pressure d. A stimulus and response controlled by the spinal cord 11. Describe the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA. a. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA continuously after initially attaching to a primase. b. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA discontinuously in pieces called Okazaki fragments after initially attaching to primases. c. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA discontinuously in pieces called Okazaki fragments after initially attaching to RNA primers. d. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA discontinuously in pieces called Okazaki fragments which are joined together in the end by a DNA helicase. 12. Using anatomical terms, what is the relationship of the sternum relative to the deltoid? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Superficial d. Posterior 13. Ligaments connect what? a. Muscle to muscle b. Bone to bone c. Bone to muscle d. Muscle to tendon 14. Identify the correct sequence of the 3 primary body planes as numbered 1, 2, and 3 in the above image. a. Plane 1 is coronal, plane 2 is sagittal, and plane 3 is transverse. b. Plane 1 is sagittal, plane 2 is coronal, and plane 3 is medial. c. Plane 1 is coronal, plane 2 is sagittal, and plane 3 is medial. d. Plane 1 is sagittal, plane 2 is coronal, and plane 3 is transverse. 15. Which of the following is NOT a major function of the respiratory system in humans? a. It provides a large surface area for gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. b. It helps regulate the blood’s pH. c. It helps cushion the heart against jarring motions. d. It is responsible for vocalization. 16. Which of the following is NOT a function of the forebrain? a. To regulate blood pressure and heart rate b. To perceive and interpret emotional responses like fear and anger c. To perceive and interpret visual input from the eyes d. To integrate voluntary movement 17. What is the major difference between somatic and germline mutations? a. Somatic mutations usually benefit the individual while germline mutations usually harm them. b. Since germline mutations only affect one cell, they are less noticeable than the rapidly dividing somatic cells. c. Somatic mutations are not expressed for several generations, but germline mutations are expressed immediately. d. Germline mutations are usually inherited while somatic mutations will affect only the individual. 18. A child complains of heavy breathing even when relaxing. They are an otherwise healthy child with no history of respiratory problems. What might be the issue? a. Asthma b. Blood clot c. Hyperventilation d. Exercising too hard 19. Find the lowest coefficients that will balance the following combustion equation. a. 1:5:5:2 b. 4:10:20:8 c. 2:9:10:4 d. 2:5:10:4 C2H10+ O2 H2O+ CO2 20. What is the purpose of a catalyst? a. To increase a reaction rate by increasing the activation energy b. To increase a reaction’s rate by increasing the temperature c. To increase a reaction’s rate by decreasing the activation energy d. To increase a reaction’s rate by decreasing the temperature 21. Most catalysts found in biological systems are which of the following? a. Special lipids called cofactors. b. Special proteins called enzymes. c. Special lipids called enzymes. d. Special proteins called cofactors. 22. Which statement is true about the pH of a solution? a. A solution cannot have a pH less than 1. b. The more hydroxide ions in the solution, the higher the pH. c. If an acid has a pH of greater than 2, it is considered a weak base. d. A solution with a pH of 2 has ten times the amount of hydrogen ions than a solution with a power of 1. 23. Salts like sodium iodide (NaI) and potassium chloride (KCl) use what type of bond? a. Ionic bonds b. Disulfide bridges c. Covalent bonds d. London dispersion forces 24. Which of the following is unique to covalent bonds? a. Most covalent bonds are formed between the elements H, F, N, and O. b. Covalent bonds are dependent on forming dipoles. c. Bonding electrons are shared between two or more atoms. d. Molecules with covalent bonds tend to have a crystalline solid structure. 25. Which of the following describes a typical gas? a. Indefinite shape and indefinite volume b. Indefinite shape and definite volume c. Definite shape and definite volume d. Definite shape and indefinite volume 26. Which of the following areas of the body has the most sweat glands? a. Upper back b. Arms c. Feet d. Palms 27. A patient’s body is not properly filtering blood. Which of the following body parts is most likely malfunctioning? a. Medulla B. Heart C. Nephrons D. Renal cortex 28. A pediatrician notes that an infant’s cartilage is disappearing and being replaced by bone. What process has the doctor observed? a. Mineralization b. Ossification c. Osteoporosis d. Calcification 29. The epidermis is composed of what type of cells? a. Osteoclasts b. Connective c. Dendritic d. Epithelial 30. Which of the following is directly transcribed from DNA and represents the first step in protein building? a. siRNA b. rRNA c. mRNA d. tRNA 31. What information does a genotype give that a phenotype does not? a. The genotype necessarily includes the proteins coded for by its alleles. b. The genotype will always show an organism’s recessive alleles. c. The genotype must include the organism’s physical characteristics. d. The genotype shows what an organism’s parents looked like. 32. Which statement is supported by the Punnett square above, if “T” = Tall and “t” = short? a. Both parents are homozygous tall. b. 100% of the offspring will be tall because both parents are tall. c. There is a 25% chance that an offspring will be short. d. The short allele will soon die out. 33. Which of the following is a chief difference between evaporation and boiling? a. Liquids boil only at the surface while they evaporate equally throughout the liquid. b. Evaporating substances change from gas to liquid while boiling substances change from liquid to gas. c. Evaporation happens in nature while boiling is a manmade phenomenon. d. Evaporation can happen below a liquid’s boiling point. 34. Which of the following CANNOT be found in a human cell’s genes? a. Sequences of amino acids to be transcribed into mRNA b. Lethal recessive traits like sickle cell anemia c. Mutated DNA d. DNA that codes for proteins the cell doesn’t use 35. Which of the following is a special property of water? a. Water easily flows through phospholipid bilayers. b. A water molecule’s oxygen atom allows fish to breathe. c. Water is highly cohesive which explains its high melting point. d. Water can self-hydrolyze and decompose into hydrogen and oxygen. 36. What is an isotope? For any given element, it is an atom with which of the following? a. a different atomic number. b. a different number of protons. c. a different number of electrons. d. a different mass number. 37. What is the electrical charge of the nucleus? a. A nucleus always has a positive charge. b. A stable nucleus has a positive charge, but a radioactive nucleus may have no charge and instead be neutral. c. A nucleus always has no charge and is instead neutral. d. A stable nucleus has no charge and is instead neutral, but a radioactive nucleus may have a charge. 38. A student believes that there is an inverse relationship between sugar consumption and test scores. To test this hypothesis, he recruits several people to eat sugar, wait one hour, and take a short aptitude test afterwards. The student will compile the participants' sugar intake levels and test scores. How should the student conduct the experiment? a. One round of testing, where each participant consumes a different level of sugar. b. Two rounds of testing: The first, where each participant consumes a different level of sugar, and the second, where each participant consumes the same level as they did in Round 1. c. Two rounds of testing: The first, where each participant consumes the same level of sugar as each other, and the second, where each participant consumes the same level of sugar as each other but at higher levels than in Round 1. d. One round of testing, where each participant consumes the same level of sugar. 39. Which of the following creates sperm? a. Prostate gland b. Seminal vesicles c. Scrotum d. Seminiferous tubules 40. A researcher is exploring factors that contribute to the GPA of college students. While the sample is small, the researcher is trying to determine what the data shows. What can be reasoned from the table below? Student Maintains a Calendar? Takes Notes? GPA A sometimes often 3.1 B never always 3.9 C never never 2.0 D sometimes often 2.7 a. No college students consistently maintain a calendar of events. b. There is an inverse correlation between maintaining a calendar and GPA, and there is a positive correlation between taking notes and GPA. c. There is a positive correlation between maintaining a calendar and GPA, and there is no correlation between taking notes and GPA. d. There is no correlation between maintaining a calendar and GPA, and there is a positive correlation between taking notes and GPA. 41. Four different groups of the same species of peas are grown and exposed to differing levels of sunlight, water, and fertilizer as documented in the table below. The data in the water and fertilizer columns indicates how many times the peas are watered or fertilized per week, respectively. Group 2 is the only group that withered. What is a reasonable explanation for this occurrence? Group Sunlight Water Fertilizer 1 partial sun 4 mL/hr 1 2 full sun 7 mL/hr 1 3 no sun 14 mL/hr 2 4 partial sun 3 mL/hr 2 a. Insects gnawed away the stem of the plant. b. The roots rotted due to poor drainage. c. The soil type had nutrition deficiencies. d. This species of peas does not thrive in full sunlight. 42. Which of the following functions corresponds to the parasympathetic nervous system? a. It stimulates the fight-or-flight response. b. It increases heart rate. c. It stimulates digestion. d. It increases bronchiole dilation. 43. According to the periodic table, which of the following elements is the least reactive? a. Fluorine b. Silicon c. Neon d. Gallium 44. The Human Genome Project is a worldwide research project launched in 1990 to map the entire human genome. Although the Project was faced with the monumental challenge of analyzing tons and tons of data, its objective was completed in 2003 and ahead of its deadline by two years. Which of the following inventions likely had the greatest impact on this project? a. The sonogram b. X-ray diffraction c. The microprocessor d. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) 45. Which of the following inventions likely had the greatest improvement on the ability to combat nutrition deficiencies in developing countries? a. Food products fortified with dietary vitamins and minerals b. Integrated statistical models of fish populations c. Advances so that microscopes can use thicker tissue samples d. Refrigerated train cars for transportation of food 46. Which of the following is the gland that helps regulate calcium levels? a. Osteotoid gland b. Pineal gland c. Parathyroid glands d. Thymus gland 47. Anya was paid by Company X to analyze dwindling honeybee populations of the Southwest. After measuring hive populations over several months, she noticed no patterns in the geographic distributions of the deaths after comparisons with local maps of interest. This supported her hypothesis, so she took samples of the honey and the bees from the hives and performed dozens of dissections to confirm her suspicions. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis upon which this research was performed? a. Honeybees are being killed off and their hives destroyed by other extremely aggressive species of bees from the South. b. Honeybees are contracting parasites in large droves. c. Honeybees are so sensitive to certain pesticides that they die on contact. d. Honeybees die in larger numbers around cell phone towers. 48. Explain the Law of Conservation of Mass as it applies to this reaction: 2H2 + O2 2H2O. a. Electrons are lost. b. The hydrogen loses mass. c. New oxygen atoms are formed. d. There is no decrease or increase of matter 49. Which of the following is the best unit to measure the amount of blood in the human body? a. Ounces b. Liters c. Milliliters d. Pounds 50. Which of the following systems does not include a transportation system throughout the body? a. Cardiovascular system b. Endocrine system c. Immune system d. Nervous system 51. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between the primary and secondary immune response? a. In the secondary response, macrophages migrate to the lymph nodes to present the foreign microorganism to helped T lymphocytes. b. The humeral immunity that characterizes the primary response is coordinated by T lymphocytes. c. The primary response is quicker and more powerful than the secondary response. d. Suppressor T cells activate in the secondary response to prevent an overactive immune response. 52. Eosinophils are best described as which of the following? a. A type of granulocyte that secretes histamine, which stimulates the inflammatory response. b. The most abundant type of white blood cell and they secrete substances that are toxic to pathogens. c. A type of granulocyte found under mucous membranes and defends against multicellular parasites. d. A type of circulating granulocyte that is aggressive and has high phagocytic activity. 53. Which of the following correctly matches a category of protein with a physiologic example? a. Keratin is a structural protein b. Antigens are hormonal proteins c. Channel proteins are marker proteins d. Actin is a transport protein English and Language Usage 1. Which of the following sentences has an error in capitalization? a. The East Coast has experienced very unpredictable weather this year. b. My Uncle owns a home in Florida, where he lives in the winter. c. I am taking English Composition II on campus this fall. d. There are several nice beaches we can visit on our trip to the Jersey Shore this summer. 2. Julia Robinson, an avid photographer in her spare time, was able to capture stunning shots of the local wildlife on her last business trip to Australia. Which of the following is an adjective in the preceding sentence? a. Time b. Capture c. Avid d. Photographer 3. Which of the following sentences uses correct punctuation? a. Carole is not currently working; her focus is on her children at the moment. b. Carole is not currently working and her focus is on her children at the moment. c. Carole is not currently working, her focus is on her children at the moment. d. Carole is not currently working her focus is on her children at the moment. 4. Which of these examples is a compound sentence? a. Alex and Shane spent the morning coloring and later took a walk down to the park. b. After coloring all morning, Alex and Shane spent the afternoon at the park. c. Alex and Shane spent the morning coloring, and then they took a walk down to the park. d. After coloring all morning and spending part of the day at the park, Alex and Shane took a nap. 5. Which of these examples shows incorrect use of subject-verb agreement? a. Neither of the cars are parked on the street. b. Both of my kids are going to camp this summer. c. Any of your friends are welcome to join us on the trip in November. d. Each of the clothing options is appropriate for the job interview. 6. When it gets warm in the spring, and like to go fishing at Cobbs Creek. Which of the following word pairs should be used in the blanks above? a. me, him b. he, I c. him, I d. he, me 7. Which example shows correct comma usage for dates? a. The due date for the final paper in the course is Monday, May 16, 2016. b. The due date for the final paper in the course is Monday, May 16 2016. c. The due date for the final project in the course is Monday, May, 16, 2016. d. The due date for the final project in the course is Monday May 16, 2016. 8. Which of the following uses correct spelling? a. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take dicsipline and perserverance, but she was up to the challenge. b. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take discipline and perseverence, but she was up to the challenge. c. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take disiplin and perservearance, but she was up to the challenge. d. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take discipline and perseverance, but she was up to the challenge. 9. At last night’s company function, in honor of Mr. Robertson’s retirement, several employees spoke kindly about his career achievements. In the preceding sentence, what part of speech is the word function? a. Adjective b. Adverb c. Verb d. Noun 10. Which of the examples uses the correct plural form? a. Tomatos b. Analysis c. Cacti d. Criterion 11. Which of the following examples uses correct punctuation? a. The moderator asked the candidates, “Is each of you prepared to discuss your positi