NURSING 2058 NUTRITION EXAM1

NURSING 2058 NUTRITION EXAM1. EXAM 1: STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 1: NUTRITION & HEALTH 1. The major focus of nutritional recommendations in this century has shifted to: a. prevention and control of chronic diseases. b. improved sanitation and public health. c. prevention and control of infectious diseases. d. development of healthful foods using food technology. 2. A physical science that contributes to understanding how nutrition relates to health and well- being is: a. anatomy. b. biochemistry. c. physics. d. pharmacology. 3. The body of scientific knowledge related to nutritional requirements of human growth, maintenance, activity, and reproduction is known as: a. physiology. b. nutrition science. c. biochemistry. d. dietetics. 4. The professional primarily responsible for application of nutrition science in clinical practice settings is the: a. nurse. b. physician. c. public health nutritionist. d. registered dietitian. 5. The primary responsibility for nutrition care of people in the community belongs to the: a. community physician. b. public health nurse. c. public health nutritionist. d. registered dietitian. 6. The best source of nutrients is provided by: a. specific food combinations. b. a variety of foods. c. individual foods. d. a variety of food supplements. 7. Macronutrients include: a. minerals. b. proteins. c. vitamins. d. enzymes. 8. Micronutrients include: a. fats. b. proteins. c. vitamins. d. carbohydrates. 9. The sum of all chemical processes inside living cells of the body that sustain life and health is known as: a. physiology. b. digestion. c. metabolism. d. nutrition. 10. A primary function of macronutrients in the body is to: a. supply energy. b. regulate metabolic processes. c. maintain homeostasis. d. control cellular activity. 11. Nutrients interact in the body to regulate metabolic processes, to build and repair tissue, and to: a. provide energy. b. control cellular wastes. c. control hormone levels. d. regulate absorption. 12. Individual nutrients are characterized by their ability to: a. work alone. b. fulfill specific metabolic roles. c. influence weight loss. d. improve mental status. 13. The nutrient group that provides the primary source of energy for the body is: a. carbohydrates. b. fats. c. proteins. d. vitamins. 14. The primary function of carbohydrates as a food source is to: a. regulate metabolic processes. b. build body tissue. c. supply energy. d. provide bulk. 15. The main body storage form of carbohydrates is: a. glycogen. b. starch. c. fat. d. glucose. 16. The number of kilocalories (kcalories or kcal) provided by a food that contains 30 g of carbohydrate is: a. 90. b. 120. c. 180. d. 270. Carbohydrate contains 4 kcal per gram; therefore, 30 g carbohydrate contains 30 × 4 = 120 kcal. 17. The percentage of the total daily caloric intake for healthy persons that should be supplied by carbohydrate is: a. 10% to 35%. b. 20% to 35%. c. 40% to 55%. d. 45% to 65%. 18. It has been generally accepted that the percentage of total daily kcalories supplied by fats should be no more than: a. 10% to 15%. b. 10% to 35%. c. 20% to 35%. d. 40% to 55%. 19. The number of kcalories provided by a food that contains 22 g of fat is: a. 88. b. 132. c. 154. d. 198. Fat contains 9 kcal per gram; therefore, the number of kcal in 22 g of fat is 22 × 9 = 198 kcal. 20. The primary function of protein in the body is to: a. supply energy. b. regulate metabolic processes. c. control muscle contractions. d. build tissue. 21. The number of kcalories provided by 15 g of protein is: a. 15. b. 45. c. 60. d. 135. Protein contains 4 kcal per gram; therefore, the number of kcal in 15 g protein is 15 × 4 = 60 kcal. 22. For a healthy person, the percentage of daily kcalories supplied by protein should be: a. 5% to 10%. b. 10% to 35%. c. more than 25%. d. more than 35%. 23. In addition to protein, nutrients that contribute to building and repair of tissue include: a. vitamins. b. carbohydrates. c. fats. d. enzymes. 24. The types of acids that form the basic building blocks of protein are acids. a. fatty b. amino c. nucleic d. omega fatty 25. In addition to calcium, the major minerals needed to build and maintain bone tissue include: a. potassium. b. iron. c. phosphorus. d. fluoride. 26. The mineral that helps control enzyme actions in cell mitochondria that produce and store high-energy compounds is: a. iron. b. cobalt. c. hemoglobin. d. vitamin B12. 27. The nutrients involved in metabolic regulation and control include minerals, vitamins, and: a. amino acids. b. carbohydrates. c. fats. d. water. 28. An observation that provides evidence that a person has good nutritional status is: a. small muscle mass. b. normal weight-to-height ratio. c. smooth tongue. d. fragile skin. 29. Individuals with optimal nutritional status differ from those with marginal nutritional status in their: a. nutrient reserves. b. clinical signs. c. body weight. d. risk for mental illness. 30. In addition to poor eating habits, a factor that often contributes to marginal nutritional status is: a. dependence on caffeine. b. acute illness. c. low income. d. size of family unit. 31. Signs of malnutrition can appear when: a. nutrient reserves are depleted. b. nutrient intake exceeds daily needs. c. energy intake is restricted. d. caloric expenditure increases. 32. An age group that is very vulnerable to malnutrition is: a. infants. b. teenagers. c. young adults. d. middle-age adults. 33. The function of Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) is to designate nutrient recommendations for: a. different ethnic groups. b. all individuals. c. most people. d. most healthy people. 34. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is: a. a replacement for Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs). b. a safe level of intake for people of all ages. c. a potentially toxic level of intake of a nutrient. d. the highest amount of a nutrient that can be safely consumed. 35. An example of government nutrition policy is: a. MyPlate Food Guidance System. b. Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010. c. Healthy People 2020. d. Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs). 36. MyPlate food guidance is based on: a. percentage of kcalories from each macronutrient. b. Exchange Lists for Meal Planning. c. appropriate amounts of food from each food group. d. amounts of macronutrients and micronutrients. 37. Foodborne illness may be caused by contamination of food with: a. pesticides. b. genetically modified ingredients. c. microorganisms. d. food additives. 38. It is important to understand standard serving sizes of foods because: a. it is easy to eat too much of some nutrients when choosing healthful foods. b. serving sizes have generally decreased over the past few decades. c. most people have difficulty estimating the amount of food they eat. d. food portions need to be weighed to check serving sizes accurately. 39. Major nutrients supplied by foods in the Vegetables group of MyPlate include: a. potassium and vitamin A. b. iron and vitamin C. c. calcium and vitamin B12. d. sodium and vitamin E. 40. A food choice equivalent to one serving from the Grains group of MyPlate is: a. one slice of bread. b. 2 cups of rice. c. 3 cups of spaghetti. d. 4 oz of ready-to-eat cereal. 41. A food choice equivalent to one serving from the Protein group of MyPlate is: a. 1 Tbsp peanut butter. b. 3 oz fish. c. 2 oz cheese. d. cup cooked dry beans or peas. 42. Exchange Lists for Meal Planning was devised by the American Dietetic Association in collaboration with: a. the American Cancer Society. b. the American Diabetes Association. c. the American Heart Association. d. the Culinary Institute of America. 43. Exchange Lists for Meal Planning groups foods that are equivalent in their: a. weight. b. serving size. c. micronutrient content. d. macronutrient content. 44. Exchange Lists for Meal Planning was originally intended as a meal-planning tool for people who have: a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. hypertension. d. heart disease. 45. In the most recent edition of Choose Your Foods: Exchange List for Diabetes, the three groups into which foods are arranged are: a. fruits and vegetables, breads, and meats. b. fats, starches and sugars, and meat and milk. c. fruits and vegetables, meat and milk, and starches. d. carbohydrates, meat and meat substitutes, and fats. 46. The Dietary Guidelines are published and revised by the U.S. Department of Agriculture in association with the: a. Department of Health and Human Services. b. National Institutes of Health. c. National Academy of Sciences. d. Food and Nutrition Board. 47. A major focus of the 2010 Dietary Guidelines is: a. generally healthy segments of the population. b. the unhealthy American public. c. vulnerable population segments. d. ethnically diverse eating styles. 48. Dietary guidelines are most useful for: a. limiting portion sizes. b. designing a personal food plan. c. making smart food choices. d. avoiding excessive nutrient intakes. Dietary guidelines include recommendations to limit portion sizes and provide general advice that can help with designing a personal food plan, and can help consumers avoid excessive nutrient intakes. However, their main use is to help consumers make wise food choices. 49. One useful outcome of keeping a record of everything you eat and drink for a day is: a. precise estimates of portion sizes. b. determination of appropriate energy intake. c. estimation of supplement needs. d. increased awareness of personal food patterns. CHAPTER 2: DIGESTION, ABSORPTION & METABOLISM 1. The actions involved in the process of digestion are: a. thermal and chemical. b. chemical and segmental. c. muscular and chemical. d. mechanical and thermal. 2. The muscle layer on the outside of the intestinal wall is called the: a. serosa. b. mucosa. c. submucosa. d. muscularis mucosae. 3. Types of muscular movement that occur in the intestine are: a. longitudinal and circular. b. expulsion and traction. c. tonus and clonus. d. intermittent and continuous. 4. The rhythmic contractions that propel food through the intestinal tract are called: a. segmentation. b. peristalsis. c. cardiospasm. d. pendular movements. 5. After ingested food is mixed and churned with gastric secretions, the resulting semifluid mass is called: a. a bolus. b. chyme. c. rennin. d. glycogen. 6. The interrelated network of nerves within the gastrointestinal wall that regulates its muscular action is known as the: a. gastric nerve plexus. b. biliary nerve plexus. c. intramural nerve plexus. d. intestinal nerve plexus. 7. The release of gastric secretions is stimulated by nerve and hormonal stimuli and the: a. ingestion of water. b. swallowing reflex. c. presence of food in the stomach. d. closing of the pyloric sphincter. 8. The lining of the stomach and intestine is protected from self-digestion by: a. pepsinogen. b. bile. c. mucus. d. fat. 9. The action of biting, chewing, and breaking up ingested food into smaller particles is called: a. peristalsis. b. segmentation. c. metabolism. d. mastication. 10. The factor most likely to stimulate digestive secretions is: a. smelling or seeing food. b. grocery shopping. c. fasting. d. exercise. 11. An enzyme secreted by the salivary glands is: a. pepsin. b. trypsin. c. sucrase. d. amylase. 12. The parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands are found in the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. pancreas. d. duodenum. 13. Regurgitation or reflux of acidic stomach contents back into the esophagus is known as: a. hiatal hernia. b. diverticulitis. c. gastroenteritis. d. gastroesophageal reflux disease. 14. The rate of gastric emptying depends on the: a. time of day food is consumed. b. composition of food consumed. c. rate of food consumption. d. frequency of eating. 15. Digestion of protein by pepsin in the stomach requires a pH between: a. 1.8 and 3.5. b. 4.8 and 7.0. c. 6.8 and 8.5. d. 7.8 and 10.0. 16. The hormone that prevents excessive gastric activity is: a. gastrin. b. enterogastrone. c. secretin. d. cholecystokinin. 17. The substance that activates pepsinogen to pepsin is: a. bile. b. gastrin. c. secretin. d. hydrochloric acid. 18. Mucus is produced by the salivary glands and the: a. intestinal glands. b. esophageal glands. c. pineal gland. d. islets of Langerhans. 19. The hormone secretin stimulates production of a buffering solution for the duodenum by the: a. stomach. b. liver. c. pancreas. d. oxyntic cells. 20. The substance that acts as an emulsifier and helps absorb digested fat is: a. bile. b. trypsin. c. lipase. d. cholecystokinin (CCK). 21. The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to contract is: a. secretin. b. cholecystokinin (CCK). c. gastrin. d. gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP). 22. The stimulus for the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) is the: a. presence of food in the stomach. b. presence of fat in the duodenum. c. entry of acid chyme into the ileum. d. entry of bile into the gallbladder. 23. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is produced in the: a. duodenum. b. stomach. c. pancreas. d. liver. 24. The small, fingerlike projections into the intestinal lumen are called: a. villi. b. goblets. c. lacteals. d. polyps. 25. Absorption of most nutrients occurs in the: a. large intestine. b. small intestine. c. stomach. d. mouth. 26. Probiotics are: a. indigestible carbohydrates that promote growth of health-promoting bacteria. b. antibiotics that prevent growth of harmful bacteria. c. nutritional supplements of health- promoting bacteria. d. commercial fiber supplements that have a laxative effect. 27. The end products of digestion of macronutrients include fatty acids, amino acids, and: a. monosaccharides. b. polysaccharides. c. enzymes. d. cholesterol. 28. The pathogenic bacterium associated with peptic ulcer disease and gastric cancer is: a. Lactobacillus. b. Bifidobacterium. c. H. pylori. d. E. coli. 29. In addition to active transport, a process involved in absorbing food in the small intestine is: a. pinocytosis. b. excretion. c. phagocytosis. d. electrochemical diffusion. 30. After absorption, the end products of carbohydrate and protein digestion enter the: a. enterohepatic circulation. b. gastrointestinal circulation. c. common bile duct. d. portal blood system. 31. Chylomicrons are: a. formed in the hepatic system. b. composed of triglycerides and cholesterol only. c. absorbed in the large intestine. d. cleared from the blood by lipoprotein lipase. 32. The primary nutritional function of the large intestine is: a. absorption of fats. b. excretion of waste products. c. excretion of bacteria. d. absorption of water. 33. The valve that controls the passage of chyme from the small intestine into the cecum is called the: a. ileocecal valve. b. pyloric valve. c. cardiac valve. d. hepatic valve. 34. Bacteria found in the colon are important because they: a. synthesize important vitamins. b. complete the process of absorption. c. synthesize some minerals. d. finish the process of digestion. 35. Gas formation in the colon is the result of: a. ingesting refined foods. b. ingesting too much water. c. swallowing air while eating. d. bacterial action on organic compounds. 36. Feces are composed mainly of bacteria, mucosal cells, mucus, and: a. bile. b. enzymes. c. fiber. d. chyme. 37. The process of converting glycogen to glucose is called: a. glucogenesis. b. glycogenolysis. c. glyconeogenesis. d. gluconeogenesis. 38. The production of glucose from protein, lactate, or glycerol is called: a. glycolysis. b. gluconeogenesis. c. glycogenolysis. d. glucogenesis. 39. Gluconeogenesis occurs in the: a. muscles. b. pancreas. c. liver. d. spleen. 40. The component of fat that can be used to make glucose (by gluconeogenesis) is: a. glycogen. b. fatty acids. c. glycerol. d. monoglyceride. 41. A major function of glucose is to: a. produce energy. b. transport oxygen to cells. c. convert fat to glycogen. d. maintain body weight. 42. Metabolic and hormonal responses are triggered to restore blood glucose to normal when blood glucose level decreases to: a. 70 mg/dL. b. 85 mg/dL. c. 90 mg/dL. d. 100 mg/dL. The normal range for blood glucose level is 70 to 140 mg/dL. A decrease in blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL will trigger an increase in hormones that increase blood glucose level (glucagon, somatostatin, steroid hormones, epinephrine, growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, and/or thyroxine) and a decrease in insulin levels to increase blood glucose levels to within this range. 43. The substance that serves as a vehicle for fat transport in the bloodstream is: a. fatty acids. b. glycerol. c. lipoproteins. d. amino acids. 44. The hormone that acts to lower blood sugar levels is: a. insulin. b. glucagon. c. thyroxine. d. epinephrine. 45. The hormone that breaks down liver glycogen to glucose during fasting or sleep is: a. thyroxine. b. glucagon. c. cortisone. d. insulin. 46. Hormones that increase the release of free fatty acids include: a. insulin and glucagon. b. cortisol and thyroxine. c. somatostatin and gastrin. d. lipoprotein lipase and secretin. 47. The hormone that conserves fat is: a. cortisone. b. glucagon. c. insulin. d. epinephrine. 48. Synthesis of protein is governed by: a. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in the cell nucleus. b. daily variations in protein intake. c. blood glucose levels. d. metabolism in the liver. 49. A hormone that has an anabolic effect is: a. parathyroid hormone. b. cortisone. c. gonadotropins. d. epinephrine. 50. During the process of deamination, the nitrogen portion of amino acids is converted to: a. ammonia. b. protein. c. purines. d. glycogen. CHAPTER 3: CARBOHYDATES 1. One of the major reasons why carbohydrates play a major role in nutrition is because they: a. are widely available. b. are absorbed in the stomach. c. provide a ready source of vitamins and minerals. d. can be eaten without special preparation. Carbohydrates provide a staple part of the food supply throughout the world. Foods such as rice, pasta, bread, and potatoes provide an affordable and abundant source of energy. The preferred source of carbohydrate in any area depends on climate, culture, and economics. Carbohydrates are absorbed in the small intestine, not the stomach. Starch- based and whole grain carbohydrate foods often provide vitamins and minerals, but refined foods and those high in sugar may not. Some carbohydrate foods can be eaten without special preparation (e.g., bread or crackers), but others require cooking (e.g., potatoes, rice, and pasta). 2. Ingredients necessary for photosynthesis to occur include carbon dioxide, water, and: a. glucose. b. nitrogen. c. chlorophyll. d. hydrogen. 3. Carbohydrates are composed of a combination of carbon, hydrogen, and: a. oxygen. b. nitrogen. c. water. d. glucose. 4. The process of photosynthesis is responsible for the synthesis of: a. carbohydrates. b. proteins. c. fats. d. vitamins. 5. The sugar to which all other sugars are converted during human metabolism is: a. sucrose. b. fructose. c. glucose. d. maltose. 6. The body organ that synthesizes lactose is the: a. liver. b. breast. c. kidney. d. pancreas. The body produces lactose only during lactation. Breastfeeding mothers produce lactose in the breast as part of milk production. 7. The preferred fuel of the cells lining the colon is: a. short-chain fatty acids. b. long-chain fatty acids. c. amino acids. d. glucose. 8. People with phenylketonuria should avoid foods made with the nonnutritive sweetener: a. acesulfame-K. b. aspartame. c. saccharin. d. sucralose. People with phenylketonuria are unable to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Amounts in excess of their body’s need accumulate in their blood, leading to brain damage. They need to eat only the amount of phenylalanine needed for their body to make essential proteins. Aspartame contains phenylalanine, and so people with phenylketonuria should avoid foods made with this sweetener. 9. A mineral that helps strengthen tooth enamel and prevent dental caries is: a. calcium. b. phosphorus. c. fluoride. d. zinc. 10. The type of fiber that is not a carbohydrate is: a. gums. b. lignin. c. pectin. d. cellulose. 11. An example of a food that contains functional fiber is: a. applesauce. b. oat bran muffin. c. jam made with pectin. d. carrot and raisin salad. All of these foods contain fiber. Functional fiber is fiber that is added, rather than naturally present in a food. The addition of pectin to jam allows the jam to set but also adds functional fiber. 12. Of the following sugars, the one that tastes the sweetest is: a. glucose. b. sucrose. c. galactose. d. fructose. 13. Fructose is the sugar found in: a. bread. b. gelatin desserts. c. sugar-coated cereals. d. honey and fruit. 14. A monosaccharide that only occurs naturally in foods in combination with another sugar as a disaccharide is: a. fructose. b. galactose. c. sucrose. d. maltose. 15. A person with lactose intolerance should be most careful to limit his or her intake of: a. milk. b. yogurt. c. cheese. d. corn syrup. Milk contains lactose. Much of the lactose is fermented to form lactic acid when milk is made into yogurt and so yogurt contains relatively little lactose. Cheese is made by curdling milk to separate the curds and whey. The whey contains the lactose and is drained off. The curds are used to make cheese and are low in lactose. Corn syrup does not contain lactose. 16. Sucrose consists of a combination of glucose and: a. maltose. b. fructose. c. galactose. d. lactose. 17. With respect to its effect on colon microflora, fiber is considered a: a. prebiotic. b. probiotic. c. functional food. d. protective agent. Prebiotics are substances that promote and provide food substrates for beneficial bacteria in the colon. Fiber is one of these substances. Probiotics actually contain beneficial bacteria. Functional foods are specific foods that contain nutrients or other substances that have health benefits. Foods that contain fiber may be examples of functional foods, but fiber itself is not. Fiber does have protective effects in the colon, but this is not a recognized term. 18. The most important monosaccharides in human nutrition include glucose, fructose, and: a. lactose. b. galactose. c. maltose. d. sucrose. 19. An example of a disaccharide is: a. glucose. b. fructose. c. galactose. d. maltose. 20. The most prevalent dietary disaccharide is: a. lactose. b. fructose. c. sucrose. d. galactose. 21. Sugar alcohols are likely to be found in: a. fermented foods. b. low-calorie foods. c. fruits and vegetables. d. fiber supplements. Sugar alcohols are added to foods such as chewing gum to provide sweetness with fewer calories and without promoting dental caries. They are not produced in foods by natural fermentation, found naturally in fruits and vegetables, or added to fiber supplements. 22. Foods that are major sources of starch include: a. fruits. b. meats. c. legumes. d. milk. Fruits contain sugar, but not starch. Meats contain only minimal amounts of any type of carbohydrate. Milk contains lactose, a sugar, but no starch. Legumes contain abundant amounts of starch. 23. Starch that is not digested in the small intestine is known as: a. refined. b. functional. c. raw. d. resistant. 24. In the colon, resistant starch is digested by: a. bacterial fermentation. b. pancreatic amylase. c. hydrochloric acid. d. villi and microvilli. 25. According to the 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, daily intake of added sugar should be no more than: a. 2 tsp. b. 5 tsp. c. 8 tsp. d. 12 tsp. 26. Storage sites for glycogen in the human body include the liver and the: a. heart. b. muscles. c. intestine. d. pancreas. 27. The type of carbohydrate that helps maintain normal blood glucose levels during fasting periods is: a. glucose. b. galactose. c. dextrins. d. glycogen. 28. To prevent symptoms of fatigue, dehydration, and energy loss, the daily recommended minimum intake of carbohydrate should be: a. 130 g. b. 230 g. c. 330 g. d. 430 g. 29. Dextrins are: a. polysaccharides. b. end products of starch digestion. c. formed in the liver. d. rapidly excreted. 30. Oligosaccharides: a. contain 3 to 10 monosaccharides. b. contain large portions of partially digested starch. c. are used as nonnutritive sweeteners. d. are used for weight management. 31. An oligosaccharide that may be fermented to produce gas in the intestinal tract is: a. raffinose. b. dextrin. c. maltose. d. starch. 32. Whole-wheat bread, popcorn, baked beans, bananas, and pears are good sources of: a. cellulose. b. gums. c. collagen. d. psyllium. 33. Fiber’s capacity to hold water is related to its ability to decrease development of: a. kidney stones. b. diverticula. c. high blood cholesterol levels. d. type 2 diabetes. 34. An example of a protective factor found in functional foods is: a. phytochemicals. b. resistant starch. c. functional fiber. d. oligosaccharides. 35. Total fiber intake consists of: a. resistant starch and dietary fiber. b. dietary fiber and functional fiber. c. animal fiber and vegetable fiber. d. oligosaccharides and plant fiber. 36. Fiber can lower blood levels of: a. cholesterol. b. triglycerides. c. sodium. d. calcium. 37. The new Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for fiber: a. is higher for men than women. b. is higher for older people than younger people. c. is the same for all adults. d. requires that adults use fiber supplements. 38. Good food sources of fiber include: a. whole grains. b. meats. c. canned fruits. d. tomato juice. Whole grains include the outer covering of the grain, which is rich in fiber. Animal foods, such as meat, do not contain fiber. Canned fruits are lower in fiber than fresh fruits because they do not include the peel and some fiber is lost in processing. Fruit and vegetable juices contain little fiber because the fibrous part of the plant is left behind. 39. Foods high in fiber slow the rise in blood glucose following a meal because they: a. are poorly digested. b. are high in phytochemicals. c. have a low glycemic index. d. have a high glycemic index. 40. Sufficient dietary carbohydrate intake prevents formation of excess: a. ketones. b. ammonia. c. urea. d. fat. 41. Popular low-carbohydrate diets may place an extra burden on: a. the heart. b. the kidneys. c. muscles. d. the pancreas. Diets low in carbohydrate tend to be high in protein. Extra protein has to be broken down by the liver and excreted by the kidneys. 42. The mechanism that is essential for the absorption of monosaccharides is: a. phosphorylation. b. active transport. c. passive diffusion. d. facilitated diffusion. 43. An organ in the body that requires glucose as fuel is the: a. kidney. b. liver. c. brain. d. heart. 44. The enzyme produced by the parotid gland is: a. salivary amylase. b. sucrase. c. maltase. d. lactase. 45. Carbohydrate is stored in the body in the form of: a. starch. b. polysaccharide. c. glycogen. d. glucagon. 46. The sum of the physical and chemical processes that take place in a living organism to maintain life and produce energy is called: a. metabolism. b. digestion. c. phosphorylation. d. hydrolysis. 47. When monosaccharides are absorbed into the intestinal bloodstream, they enter the: a. general circulation for transport to the cells. b. portal circulation for transport to the liver. c. pulmonary circulation for transport to the heart. d. lymphatic circulation for transport to the cells. 48. The body organ responsible for the metabolic processing of glucose is the: a. large intestine. b. gallbladder. c. pancreas. d. liver. CHAPTER 4: LIPIDS 1. Fatty acids are the preferred energy source for the: a. brain. b. muscles. c. heart. d. lungs. 2. One reason fat is important in the diet is because it: a. supplies a constant source of vitamins. b. speeds up the digestive process. c. provides satiety. d. stimulates the release of important digestive enzymes. 3. Excess intake of dietary fat is: a. converted into glucose. b. converted into cholesterol. c. stored in blood vessels. d. stored in adipose tissue. 4. The number of kilocalories (kcalories or kcal) provided by 35 g of fat is: a. 140. b. 245. c. 315. d. 360. Fat provides 9 kcal per gram; therefore, 35 g of fat provides 35  9 kcal = 315 kcal. 5. The greatest number of kcalories would be provided by eating 30 g of: a. carbohydrates. b. fat. c. protein. d. micronutrients. Fat provides 9 kcal per gram, more than twice as much as carbohydrate and protein, which each provide 4 kcal per gram. Micronutrients have important metabolic functions but do not provide energy. 6. If a client consumed 50 g of fat as part of a total 1500-kcal intake, the percentage of total kcalories from fat would be: a. 13%. b. 20%. c. 30%. d. 42%. 50 g of fat at 9 kcal per gram provides 50  9 kcal = 450 kcal. The percentage of kcal from fat is 450/1500  100% = 30%. 7. An oil high in saturated fatty acids is: a. corn oil. b. coconut oil. c. fish oil. d. olive oil. 8. When two or more double bonds in a fatty acid remain unfilled, the resulting fatty acid is classified as: a. monounsaturated. b. polyunsaturated. c. essential. d. saturated. 9. One characteristic of an essential fatty acid is that it: a. comes from an animal source. b. comes from a plant source. c. is not manufactured by the body. d. is manufactured by the body. 10. A chemical feature that distinguishes a saturated fatty acid from an unsaturated fatty acid is the: a. arrangement of carbon molecules. b. number of oxygen molecules. c. food source. d. number of double bonds. 11. One of the functions of essential fatty acids is to: a. improve skin integrity. b. control lipid digestion. c. reduce blood clotting time. d. form chylomicrons. 12. Prostaglandins have a local action similar to that of: a. enzymes. b. neurotransmitters. c. hormones. d. lipoproteins. 13. Many infant formulas now contain added arachidonic and docosahexaenoic acids because: a. infants who drink formula rather than breast milk need more of these fatty acids. b. these fatty acids are destroyed during processing of infant formula. c. infants may not be able to produce enough of these for optimum development. d. these fatty acids help preserve other nutrients in the infant formula. 14. The best food sources of essential fatty acids are: a. vegetable oils. b. tropical oils. c. hydrogenated oils. d. nuts. 15. The chain length of fatty acids that are most water soluble and most easily absorbed into the bloodstream is: a. very long. b. long. c. medium. d. short. 16. The n-3 fatty acids are of current interest because of their relation to prevention of: a. liver disease. b. respiratory infections. c. cardiovascular disease. d. urinary tract infections. 17. A triglyceride is composed of glycerol and: a. fatty acids. b. amino acids. c. polysaccharides. d. cholesterol. 18. A characteristic of saturated fats is that they are: a. mostly found in animal products. b. liquid at room temperature. c. composed of many double bonds. d. found primarily in vegetable products. 19. An example of a sandwich high in saturated fatty acids is: a. tuna salad. b. grilled cheese. c. turkey and sprouts. d. peanut butter and jelly. Dairy fats such as cheese are high in saturated fatty acids. Tuna salad may be high in fat, especially if it is made with mayonnaise, but mayonnaise is made from vegetable oil, so the fat is unsaturated. Peanuts and peanut butter are high in unsaturated fatty acids. Turkey would contain small amounts of saturated fatty acids, but it is low in fat overall. 20. “Hidden” fats are found in: a. rice. b. muffins. c. bacon. d. baked potatoes. Rice and baked potatoes are very low in fat. Bacon is a high-fat food, but the fat is visible. Muffins may be high in fat, but this is not obvious because the fat is “hidden.” 21. The effect of trans fatty acids on blood cholesterol is similar to that of: a. cis fatty acids. b. saturated fatty acids. c. monounsaturated fatty acids. d. polyunsaturated fatty acids. 22. Liquid oils can be changed to a solid fat by a process called: a. emulsification. b. hydrogenation. c. homogenization. d. oxidation. 23. The form of fatty acids in naturally occurring fats is generally: a. trans. b. polyunsaturated. c. cis. d. saturated. 24. The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for fat recommends that the percentage of total kcalories from fat should fall between: a. 10% and 20%. b. 20% and 25% c. 20% and 35%. d. 30% and 45%. 25. Lipids are carried in the bloodstream in: a. micelles. b. glycolipids. c. lecithin. d. lipoproteins. 26. An important function of cholesterol is to: a. form bile salts. b. break down cell membranes. c. metabolize carbohydrates. d. produce vitamin A. 27. The endogenous supply of cholesterol is synthesized mainly in the: a. large intestine. b. liver. c. muscles. d. pancreas. 28. A saturated fat that contains no cholesterol is: a. butter. b. coconut oil. c. eggs. d. fish. Cholesterol is found only in foods of animal origin. Plant foods contain no cholesterol. 29. The maximum recommended daily intake of cholesterol is: a. 100 mg. b. 200 mg. c. 300 mg. d. 400 mg. 30. A high blood cholesterol level appears to be associated with the development of: a. chronic kidney disease. b. coronary heart disease. c. Alzheimer’s disease. d. Addison’s disease. 31. Most fat replacers are made from: a. proteins. b. carbohydrates. c. cholesterol. d. monoglycerides. 32. Plasma lipoproteins contain varying amounts of: a. ascorbic acid. b. triglycerides. c. lecithin. d. glucose. 33. Cholesterol absorption may be decreased by intake of: a. vitamin K. b. plant sterols. c. trans fats. d. phospholipids. 34. The lipoprotein that increases the risk of cardiovascular disease is: a. low-density lipoprotein (LDL). b. high-density lipoprotein (HDL). c. very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL). d. chylomicrons. 35. The lipoprotein that carries fat from a meal just consumed to the liver is: a. very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL). b. low-density lipoprotein (LDL). c. chylomicrons. d. high-density lipoprotein (HDL). 36. The major portion of the chemical digestion of lipids occurs in the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. 37. The hormone responsible for stimulating the gallbladder to contract and release bile is: a. gastric lipase. b. cholecystokinin. c. vitamin D. d. enterokinin. 38. A compound that is necessary for emulsification of fat in the body is: a. bile salts. b. cholecystokinin. c. chyme. d. trypsin. 39. An important function of bile is to: a. separate fatty acids from glycerol. b. activate the intestinal lipases. c. break the fat into globules. d. neutralize gastric lipase. 40. Pancreatic lipase digests triglycerides by: a. reducing the surface tension. b. removing the glycerol. c. breaking off one fatty acid at a time. d. removing the cholesterol. 41. The digestive enzyme lecithinase acts in the small intestine to digest: a. cholesterol. b. lipids. c. fatty acids. d. lecithin. 42. Digestion of fats is completed in the: a. duodenum. b. intestinal wall. c. liver. d. enterohepatic circulation. 43. The lipoprotein that helps slow the progression of atherosclerosis is: a. very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL). b. low-density lipoprotein (LDL). c. chylomicron. d. high-density lipoprotein (HDL). 44. Diets that contain less than 10% of kcalories as fat are not recommended because: a. intake of carbohydrates would be too high. b. this would require excessive use of fat replacers. c. the diet would not provide satiety. d. intake of essential fatty acids would be too low. 45. The substance that allows lipoproteins to carry lipids in the blood is: a. phospholipid. b. cholesterol. c. chylomicrons. d. glycerol. CHAPTER 5: PROTIENS 1. The primary function of protein in the diet is to: a. supply energy. b. synthesize vitamins. c. build and repair tissue. d. store glycogen. 2. Proteins are built from simpler organic compounds called: a. amines. b. amino acids. c. fatty acids. d. carboxyl groups. 3. The element nitrogen can be found only in: a. carbohydrates. b. fats. c. protein. d. minerals. 4. The chemical structure that forms the base component of an amino acid is the: a. carboxyl group. b. carbon chain. c. radicals. d. amino group. 5. One of the simplest amino acids is: a. arginine. b. valine. c. lysine. d. glycine. 6. The number of different amino acids that make up human proteins is: a. 9. b. 13. c. 15. d. 20. 7. The number of amino acids that are considered indispensable or essential is: a. 9. b. 10. c. 12. d. 14. 8. Two amino acids are chemically joined by a: a. double bond. b. hydrogen bond. c. carboxyl bond. d. peptide bond. 9. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body in sufficient amounts are known as: a. indispensable. b. dispensable. c. simple. d. complex. 10. An important characteristic of amino acids is that they can: a. act as buffers. b. facilitate glucose storage. c. regulate heartbeat. d. control level of blood cholesterol. 11. An example of a protein is: a. saline. b. hemoglobin. c. cellulose. d. prostaglandins. 12. An example of a plasma protein is: a. collagen. b. myosin. c. albumin. d. phospholipid. 13. A protein that contains all the essential amino acids in the proper proportions is called: a. simple. b. indispensable. c. complete. d. complementary. 14. An example of a meal or snack that contains complementary proteins is: a. an egg and cheese omelet. b. a peanut butter sandwich. c. trail mix with nuts and raisins. d. mixed bean salad with green beans, kidney beans, and white beans. Complementary proteins are a combination of at least two different kinds of vegetable proteins, that is, at least two of the following groups: grains, legumes, seeds, and nuts. The peanut butter sandwich contains nuts and grains. Trail mix contains only nuts (raisins are low in protein). Mixed bean salad contains only legumes, and an omelet is made of complete animal proteins. 15. Proteins from plant sources such as grains, nuts, and legumes are classified as: a. incomplete. b. complete. c. indispensable. d. dispensable. 16. An example of a complete protein is: a. milk. b. soy. c. sesame seeds. d. sweet potato. Most animal proteins are complete proteins. 17. A person is most likely to have a diet with good protein quality if he or she: a. has a high protein intake. b. consumes a variety of foods. c. uses amino acid supplements. d. buys high-quality meats. Diets that contain a wide variety of foods are more likely to include complementary protein sources that would contribute to a higher overall dietary protein quality. A high protein intake does not necessarily ensure that the protein is high-quality protein. Amino acid supplements could result in an unbalanced intake of amino acids and actually reduce overall protein quality of the diet. The quality of specific types or cuts of meat does not affect the quality of the protein. 18. Infections are common in people who have inadequate protein intake because of an insufficient quantity of: a. insulin. b. lipoprotein. c. antibodies. d. albumin. 19. The nutrient that has a protein-sparing effect is: a. glycerol. b. carbohydrate. c. nitrogen. d. fatty acids. 20. The amino acids methionine, tyrosine, and tryptophan play a role in: a. forming neurotransmitters. b. blocking excess protein breakdown. c. increasing production of insulin and thyroxine. d. decreasing energy expenditure. 21. Branched chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine) may be especially important for a patient with: a. cancer-related malnutrition. b. marasmus. c. cardiovascular disease. d. severe depression. 22. Proteins are absorbed primarily in the form of: a. fatty acids. b. disaccharides. c. amino acids. d. polypeptides. 23. Pepsinogen secreted by the gastric cells is converted into pepsin by: a. enterokinase. b. hydrochloric acid. c. gastric lipase. d. pancreatic lipase. 24. The gastric enzyme present in infants that coagulates milk is: a. casein. b. pepsinogen. c. trypsin. d. rennin. 25. The enzyme trypsin is activated by: a. zymogen. b. bile. c. gastrin. d. enterokinase. 26. Enzymes found in pancreatic secretions include: a. rennin. b. pepsin. c. chymotrypsin. d. casein. 27. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the: a. small intestine. b. liver. c. stomach. d. pancreas. 28. Aminopeptidase and dipeptidase are secreted by the: a. liver. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. pancreas. 29. A plasma protein that helps maintain fluid balance is: a. albumin. b. fibrinogen. c. hemoglobin. d. collagen. 30. Amino acids are absorbed by: a. energy-requiring transport. b. simple diffusion. c. pinocytosis. d. lipoprotein carriers. 31. A nursing infant receives antibodies from its mother through: a. anabolism and catabolism. b. absorption of antibodies. c. absorption of amino acids and synthesis of antibodies. d. genetic inheritance. 32. The type of protein-energy malnutrition that results in edema, hypoalbuminemia, skin lesions, and fatty liver is: a. cachexia. b. marasmus. c. kwashiorkor. d. sarcopenia. 33. A constant turnover of protein occurs between: a. tissue and plasma. b. the liver and the small intestine. c. blood and lymph. d. the heart and lungs. 34. The tissue that has the highest rate of protein turnover is the: a. skin. b. intestinal mucosa. c. muscle. d. adipose tissue. 35. The phase of metabolism that makes growth and repair possible is: a. digestion. b. catabolism. c. anabolism. d. ketosis. 36. Negative nitrogen balance occurs in a(n): a. adult who participates in a weight-training program. b. woman who is pregnant or lactating. c. child who is growing. d. older adult with anorexia. A weight-training program, pregnancy and lactation, and childhood growth all result in positive nitrogen balance as new tissue is being formed. Negative nitrogen balance would occur in older adults with anorexia. As they lose weight, they break down muscle mass to provide energy. Muscle protein would lose its amine (nitrogen-containing) group; the resulting ketoacid would be used to generate energy; the amine group would be converted to ammonia in the liver and excreted as urea by the kidneys. This would cause loss of nitrogen from the body, resulting in negative nitrogen balance. 37. Ammonia and urea are waste products from the metabolism of: a. glucose. b. fatty acids. c. amino acids. d. glycerol. 38. If nitrogen excretion exceeds nitrogen intake, the condition is called: a. total nitrogen balance. b. positive nitrogen balance. c. negative nitrogen balance. d. anabolism. 39. A period of the life cycle during which positive nitrogen balance is most likely to occur is: a. childhood. b. young adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. older adulthood. Positive nitrogen balance occurs during periods of growth when the amount of body tissue and muscle is increasing. This growth occurs during childhood but not generally during any phase of adulthood. 40. Protein catabolism is increased in health problems such as: a. severe burns. b. severe obesity. c. hypothyroidism. d. food allergies. After a serious burn, the damaged skin and underlying tissues have to be broken down before they can be repaired. This results in massive catabolism. In obesity, protein anabolism and catabolism are probably in balance, unless the individual is actively gaining or losing weight. Hypothyroidism would result in decreased energy expenditure but would not have a large effect on protein metabolism. Food allergies do not generally affect protein metabolism. 41. The recommended dietary intake of protein for adults is: a. 0.5 g/kg. b. 0.8 g/kg. c. 1.0 g/kg. d. 1.5 g/kg. 42. Vitamin B12 is found in: a. whole grains. b. nuts. c. meats. d. legumes. Vitamin B12 is only found in animal foods. 43. Excessive intakes of dietary protein can: a. cause vitamin deficiencies. b. impair kidney function. c. increase weight loss. d. decrease production of indispensable amino acids. 44. A food high in indispensable amino acids is: a. lentils. b. tofu. c. peanuts. d. eggs. 45. The group that makes each amino acid unique is the: a. radical group. b. amino group. c. carboxyl group. d. peptide bond. 46. In an analysis of the amino acid composition of foods, the amino acid occurring in the smallest amount is called: a. indispensable. b. dispensable. c. complementary. d. limiting. 47. The compounds in soy foods that have estrogen-like activity are examples of: a. indispensable amino acids. b. phytochemicals. c. neurotransmitters. d. metabolic by-products. 48. A vegetarian diet in which dairy foods and eggs are included is known as: a. lactovegetarian. b. vegan. c. semi-vegetarian. d. ovolactovegetarian. CHAPTER 6: VITAMINS 1. The chemical name for preformed vitamin A is: a. beta carotene. b. rhodopsin. c. retinaldehyde. d. retinol. 2. The major provitamin form of vitamin A found in plant pigments is known as: a. beta carotene. b. chlorophyll. c. retinoid. d. beta xanthophyll. 3. Liver stores of vitamin A are usually sufficient to last approximately: a. 1 week. b. 3 to 5 weeks. c. 6 to 12 months. d. 1 to 2 years. 4. Vitamin A deficiency causes abnormal cell differentiation and results in: a. beriberi. b. pellagra. c. keratinization. d. kwashiorkor. 5. A deficiency of vitamin A in the body may result in: a. night blindness. b. biliary obstruction. c. alopecia. d. color blindness. 6. An example of a meal high in vitamin A is: a. cheese omelet. b. turkey sandwich. c. beans and rice. d. meatloaf and mashed potatoes. Good sources of vitamin A include cheese and egg yolks. These would be found in a cheese omelet. Meat and poultry, grains, legumes, and potatoes are not good sources of vitamin A or precursor carotenoids. 7. The condition resulting from hypovitaminosis A that can cause blindness is known as: a. cheilosis. b. xerophthalmia. c. pellagra. d. keratinization. 8. The type of tissue that is most vulnerable to a vitamin A deficiency is: a. connective. b. nervous. c. epithelial. d. muscle. 9. A vitamin that is essential to bone growth is vitamin: a. D. b. B12. c. E. d. C. 10. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for vitamin A is expressed in: a. milligrams (mg). b. micrograms (mcg). c. beta-carotene equivalents. d. vitamin equivalents. 11. Spinach, carrots, and sweet potatoes are good sources of: a. beta carotene. b. retinol. c. vitamin D. d. vitamin E. 12. The active hormonal form of vitamin D is synthesized by the combined action of the: a. skin, liver, and kidney. b. gallbladder, liver, and pancreas. c. thyroid gland, small intestine, and lymph system. d. colonic bacteria, kidney, and adrenal gland. 13. The primary function of vitamin D is to regulate absorption and metabolism of: a. iron and zinc. b. calcium and phosphorus. c. sodium and chloride. d. potassium and magnesium. 14. Vitamin D deficiency is most likely to occur in a child who is involved in: a. soccer. b. baseball. c. gymnastics. d. tennis. Gymnastics is an indoor sport, so the child would have less sun exposure. This would result in less vitamin D production in his or her skin. 15. Rickets is caused by a deficiency of: a. vitamin A. b. cobalamin. c. niacin. d. vitamin D. 16. The adult form of rickets is called: a. osteoporosis. b. osteopenia. c. osteomalacia. d. osteomyelitis. 17. A factor that has significantly contributed to elimination of rickets in developed countries is: a. an increase in outdoor activities. b. an increase in use of sunscreens. c. the availability of fresh produce year- round. d. the wide use of vitamin D–fortified milk. 18. One reason it is difficult to establish recommended requirements for vitamin D is because: a. individual exposure to sunlight varies greatly. b. it is present in so many foods. c. individuals store it in large quantities. d. the amount in food varies with the season. 19. Foods that are commonly fortified with vitamin D are: a. cereal and pasta. b. milk and margarine. c. flour and sugar. d. cheese and canned tuna. 20. A toxic level of vitamin D can result in: a. keratinization of the skin. b. liver damage. c. calcification of soft tissues. d. blindness. 21. A food that provides a natural food source of vitamin D is: a. mackerel. b. wheat germ. c. steak. d. margarine. Fatty fish, including mackerel, are the best natural source of vitamin D. 22. The chemical name for vitamin E is: a. calciferol. b. retinol. c. tocopherol. d. cholecalciferol. 23. Vitamin E protects cellular and subcellular membranes by acting as a(n): a. antiinflammatory agent. b. antioxidant. c. hemolytic agent. d. clotting factor. 24. A factor that affects a person’s requirement for vitamin E is: a. calcium intake. b. amount of aerobic exercise. c. intake of saturated fatty acids. d. intake of polyunsaturated fatty acids. 25. An example of a food high in vitamin E is: a. green salad with dressing made with sunflower oil. b. guacamole made with avocado, lemon juice, and tomatoes. c. fruit salad made with berries and melons. d. oatmeal with raisins and honey. The best sources of vitamin E are vegetable oils, such as sunflower, safflower, and canola oils. 26. Hemolytic anemia is treated with increased intake of vitamin: a. A. b. D. c. E. d. C. 27. The fat-soluble vitamin that is responsible for synthesis of blood-clotting factors by the liver is vitamin: a. A. b. D. c. E. d. K. 28. Adequate amounts of vitamin K are usually present in the body because: a. the amount used daily varies widely. b. large quantities are stored in muscle and bone. c. it is widely available in all major food groups. d. intestinal bacteria synthesize adequate supplies. 29. A health condition that may create a need for administration of vitamin K is: a. radiation therapy. b. antibiotic therapy. c. a bone fracture. d. pancreatitis. 30. An example of a food high in vitamin K is: a. seared collard greens. b. oatmeal with raisins. c. carrot soup. d. bean burrito. Dark green vegetables are one of the best sources of vitamin K. 31. A deficiency of vitamin C can cause: a. scurvy. b. pernicious anemia. c. megaloblastic anemia. d. beriberi. 32. Vitamin C helps maintain tissue integrity by: a. neutralizing foreign proteins. b. creating an alkaline cell environment. c. recognizing cell boundaries. d. forming collagen to bind cells together. 33. A body function that may be affected by a deficiency of vitamin C is: a. bowel elimination. b. urine formation. c. wound healing. d. synthesis of intrinsic factor. 34. The lunch that would provide the greatest amount of vitamin C is: a. tuna sandwich, sliced tomatoes, and strawberries. b. hamburger, French fries, and cola beverage. c. hot dog, milkshake, and cookies. d. grilled cheese sandwich, pickles, and skim milk. The best sources of vitamin C are fresh fruits and vegetables; strawberries and tomatoes are especially good sources. 35. All B-complex vitamins have the function of: a. regulating fluid balance. b. providing body structure. c. serving as coenzymes. d. converting glucose into hormones. 36. An increase in dietary carbohydrate intake increases the body’s need for: a. niacin. b. thiamin. c. riboflavin. d. pantothenic acid. 37. Body systems that may be affected by a thiamin deficiency are: a. respiratory and urinary. b. nervous and gastrointestinal. c. lymphatic and endocrine. d. epithelial and mucosal. 38. A vitamin that is easily destroyed by light and irradiation is: a. biotin. b. niacin. c. riboflavin. d. thiamin. 39. Riboflavin is important for metabolism of: a. fat. b. protein. c. alcohol. d. vitamin K. 40. Newborn babies treated with phototherapy for elevated bilirubin levels may develop a deficiency of: a. riboflavin. b. niacin. c. vitamin C. d. vitamin A. 41. The food group that is the most important source of riboflavin is: a. fresh fruits. b. green leafy vegetables. c. lean meats. d. milk. 42. The disease associated with niacin deficiency is known as: a. scurvy. b. beriberi. c. cheilosis. d. pellagra. 43. The amino acid that is a precursor to niacin is: a. leucine. b. phenylalanine. c. tryptophan. d. valine. 44. An important metabolic function of niacin is to: a. convert proteins to glucose for energy. b. activate amino acids. c. neutralize toxins from the body. d. remove fat from the liver. 45. Skin flushing, gastrointestinal upset, and itching may be caused by therapeutic doses of: a. pyridoxine. b. niacin. c. vitamin C. d. thiamin. 46. An example of a food that is a good source of niacin is: a. oranges. b. spinach. c. pork chops. d. rice. Meats are good sources of niacin and are also high in tryptophan. Although many whole or enriched grains are good sources, rice is a relatively poor source because it is low in tryptophan. 47. A vitamin involved with hemoglobin formation is: a. pyridoxine. b. riboflavin. c. niacin. d. thiamin. 48. The need for pyridoxine varies with dietary intake of: a. carbohydrates. b. fats. c. protein. d. minerals. 49. A vitamin that is used to form acetyl coenzyme A is: a. pantothenic acid. b. biotin. c. niacin. d. riboflavin. 50. The best source of biotin is: a. apples. b. egg yolk. c. carrots. d. egg white. 51. An example of a breakfast meal high in folate is: a. eggs and toast. b. bacon and biscuits. c. waffles with blueberries. d. pancakes and orange juice. Citrus fruits are excellent sources of folate; therefore, the orange juice would make this a high-folate breakfast. 52. Deficiency in folic acid intake will result in development of: a. microcytic anemia. b. megaloblastic anemia. c. pernicious anemia. d. normochromic anemia. 53. The period of life in which the need for folic acid is most critical is: a. before pregnancy. b. infancy. c. childhood. d. young adulthood. 54. A characteristic that is unique to vitamin B12 is that it requires: a. lipids for absorption. b. the mineral magnesium for full activity. c. intrinsic factor for absorption. d. an acidic intestinal environment for synthesis. 55. Pernicious anemia and neurologic degeneration are associated with deficiency of: a. vitamin C. b. folic acid. c. vitamin B12. d. pantothenic acid. 56. High folate intakes may mask a deficiency of: a. niacin. b. thiamin. c. vitamin B12. d. vitamin K. CHAPTER 7: MINERALS & WATER 1. The mineral that is present in the body in the greatest amount is: a. sodium. b. potassium. c. calcium. d. iron. 2. Binding agents such as oxalic acid and phytic acid inhibit absorption of: a. potassium. b. sodium. c. fluoride. d. calcium. 3. Hormones that are involved in maintaining calcium balance in the body include calcitonin, calcitriol, and: a. thyroxine. b. parathyroid hormone. c. insulin. d. epinephrine. 4. The greatest amount of calcium is used in: a. bone formation. b. blood clotting. c. neuromuscular activity. d. enzyme activation. 5. A mineral that participates in transmission of nerve impulses and muscle contraction is: a. calcium. b. selenium. c. chlorine. d. phosphorus. 6. Of the following foods, the type that provides the most calcium per serving is: a. eggs. b. whole grains. c. dairy products. d. leafy vegetables. 7. Two important physiologic functions of phosphorus are: a. general metabolism and bone formation. b. heme formation and hormone synthesis. c. acid-base balance and detoxification. d. synthesis and absorption of fatty acids. 8. Low serum phosphorus levels may occur in individuals recovering from diabetic acidosis because: a. phosphorus absorption is disrupted. b. phosphorus is used in active carbohydrate absorption and metabolism. c. excess phosphorus is produced by the metabolic imbalance. d. phosphorus buffer systems are depleted during acidosis. 9. The greatest concentration of sodium is found in: a. intestinal fluid. b. extracellular fluid. c. intracellular fluid. d. metabolic fluid. 10. A factor that serves as the mechanism for regulating excretion of sodium from the body is: a. the amount of water consumed. b. body pH. c. the hormone aldosterone. d. vitamin D activity. 11. Important metabolic functions of sodium include fluid balance, acid-base balance, and: a. muscular action. b. release of glycogen. c. regulation of enzyme production. d. control of body temperature. 12. The mineral that is found primarily in the intracellular fluid compartment is: a. sodium. b. chloride. c. potassium. d. magnesium. 13. Hypokalemia may occur as the result of: a. excessive sodium intake. b. prolonged diarrhea. c. the use of multivitamins. d. prolonged immobilization. 14. A condition that is a serious complication of an elevated serum potassium level is: a. sodium imbalance. b. hypertension. c. muscle irritability. d. vomiting. 15. A health problem that can lead to hypokalemia is: a. dependence on vitamin supplements. b. dependence on caffeinated beverages. c. myocardial infarction. d. diabetic acidosis. 16. Physiologic functions of potassium include: a. acid-base balance. b. regulation of insulin production. c. monitoring sodium excretion. d. formation of hemoglobin. 17. Studies suggest that an increase in potassium intake can: a. lower blood triglycerides. b. lower blood pressure. c. raise high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels. d. raise blood sugar levels. 18. Variations in the body fluid concentration of sodium largely determine distribution of water by: a. diffusion. b. osmosis. c. absorption. d. excretion. 19. Minerals in extracellular fluid that regulate water balance are: a. calcium and potassium. b. sodium and chloride. c. phosphorus and magnesium. d. iron and zinc. 20. Chlorine can be found in the body as chloride ions in: a. hemoglobin. b. bile. c. gastric secretions. d. skeletal tissue. 21. Sulfur is found in the body in: a. proteins. b. stored fat. c. DNA. d. glycogen. Sulfur is found in amino acids, and protein is made of amino acids. 22. The amino acids that contain sulfur are: a. phenylalanine and lysine. b. threonine and tyrosine. c. methionine and cysteine. d. leucine and tryptophan. 23. Trace minerals are called “trace” because they are: a. less important than other minerals. b. found in a limited number of food sources. c. found in small quantities in the body. d. difficult to analyze in the laboratory. 24. Iron has an important metabolic function in: a. oxygen transport. b. thyroxine synthesis. c. calcium and phosphorus balance. d. neutralizing gastric secretions. 25. Factors that favor absorption of iron include: a. vitamin A. b. vitamin C. c. zinc. d. intestinal flora. 26. The group of people most likely to exhibit signs of iron deficiency is: a. breast-fed infants. b. school-age children. c. underweight men. d. women of childbearing age. Women of childbearing age are susceptible to iron deficiency anemia because of monthly losses of blood in menses. Breast-fed infants have sufficient stores of iron to last 4 to 6 months, until they start to eat supplemental foods. Iron deficiency is not common in children. Iron deficiency is not related to being underweight, although it may be associated with obesity. 27. The second most common type of malnutrition worldwide is: a. iron deficiency anemia. b. protein-energy malnutrition. c. osteoporosis. d. vitamin A deficiency. 28. The metabolic function of iodine is to: a. produce energy. b. maintain the nervous system. c. maintain dental health. d. help synthesize thyroxine. 29. The most reliable dietary source of iodine is: a. seafood. b. legumes. c. iodized table salt. d. enriched cereals. Seafood is a good source of iodine, but most people do not eat seafood on a daily basis. Iodized table salt contributes a commonly used source of iodine. 30. The clinical problem associated with defective iodine uptake and use is: a. hypertension. b. excessive weight loss. c. abnormal cardiac function. d. abnormal thyroid function. 31. Symptoms of impaired sense of taste and smell are sometimes caused by a deficiency of: a. zinc. b. chromium. c. chlorine. d. magnesium. 32. The minerals involved in hemoglobin synthesis are: a. molybdenum and cadmium. b. magnesium and manganese. c. iron and zinc. d. iron and copper. 33. When a person experiences impairment of taste, the condition is known as: a. hypogeusia. b. hyposomia. c. hypostasis. d. hypothermia. 34. Zinc is important throughout the life cycle, but especially during: a. pregnancy. b. young adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. older adulthood. 35. Chromium facilitates the action of: a. thyroxine. b. lipase. c. testosterone. d. insulin. 36. A genetic disease that causes iron overload is: a. goiter. b. hypochromic anemia. c. hyperchromic anemia. d. hemochromatosis. 37. A major function of selenium is: a. as an antioxidant. b. thyroxine production. c. red blood cell formation. d. glycogen production. 38. A major benefit of fluoride is: a. providing structural support to cells. b. preventing anemia. c. preventing dental caries. d. slowing the aging process. 39. For public health purposes, the level of fluoridation in public water supplies should be: a. 0.5 ppm. b. 1.0 ppm. c. 2.0 ppm. d. 3.5 ppm. 40. The mineral that enhances the ability of the tooth structure to withstand the erosive effect of bacterial acid is: a. zinc. b. calcium. c. chromium. d. fluoride. 41. The percentage of body water in the average person is: a. 40% to 50%. b. 50% to 60%. c. 60% to 70%. d. 70% to 80%. 42. Distribution of water content in a person’s body is related to the amount of: a. body fat. b. bone density. c. muscle mass. d. circulating blood. 43. The extracellular fluid compartment contains blood plasma, dense tissue fluid, interstitial fluid, and: a. metabolic water. b. fluid within cells. c. secretory fluid. d. sweat. 44. Older adults may be at risk for dehydration because: a. fluid needs increase with age. b. they absorb less fluid from their intestines. c. they lose more water through their lungs and skin. d. their thirst mechanism is diminished. 45. The term metabolic water refers to water that is: a. contained in foods. b. consumed orally. c. moving from compartment to compartment. d. formed from oxidation of nutrients. 46. Solutes found in body fluids that influence movement of water include plasma proteins, glucose, and: a. electrolytes. b. minerals. c. vitamins. d. calcium. 47. The name of an ion that possesses a positive charge is a(n): a. anion. b. cation. c. acid. d. base. 48. The organic molecules responsible for creating colloidal osmotic pressure are: a. glucose molecules. b. sodium ions. c. plasma proteins. d. amino acids. 49. The hormone that causes the kidneys to retain sodium is called: a. vitamin D. b. thyroxine. c. adrenaline. d. aldosterone. 50. The term used to denote concentration of electrolytes in a given volume of fluid is: a. valence. b. milliequ