TEAS VI – Reading Exam (319 Questions & Answers ) 2021/2022 update - RATED A+

Printed: December 24, 2021 TEAS VI – Reading Exam Your Test Statistics Test Mode Study Number of Questions 319 Number Correct 319 Number Incorrect 0 Number Not Answered 0 Date/Time Started Dec 24, 2021 4:39 AM (PST) Date/Time Finished Dec 24, 2021 4:40 AM (PST) Time Logged 1:45 Score 100% Test Preferences for this Test Test Preference Your Setting Test Sections ALL Sections - TestSIM Prompts & Explainations On Test Notes On Question Order Random - TestSIM # of Questions 319 Questions Time Limit No Limit Your results for this test follow: He swiftly lost the fastidiousness which had characterized his old life. A dainty eater, he found that his mates, finishing first, robbed him of his unfinished ration. There was no defending it. While he was fighting off two or three, it was disappearing down the throats of the others. To remedy this, he ate as fast as they; and, so greatly did hunger compel him, he was not above taking what did not belong to him. He watched and learned. When he saw Pike, one of the new dogs, a clever malingerer and thief, slyly steal a slice of bacon when Perrault's back was turned, he duplicated the performance the following day, getting away with the whole chunk. A great uproar was raised, but he was unsuspected; while Dub, an awkward blunderer who was always getting caught, was punished for Buck's misdeed. 1. What does the term "fastidious" mean in the context of this passage? a. To be very concerned with attention to detail and cleanliness. b. To abstain from all kinds of food and drink. c. To be very delicate and dainty. d. To be quick in character and wit. Explanation: The term fastidious means to be very concerned with and attentive to accuracy and detail and be concerned with cleanliness. In the context of this passage it means the dog had a very structured life before joining this rough pack. The author uses the term to draw a distinction between the life of the main character before and after joining the rough pack. The rough pack is not concerned about the details or fairness, but engages in a free-for all, governed principle that the strongest-will-survive. The description of the food going down the "throats" of the fighting dogs portrays a situation that would not suit a dog used to cleanliness. 2. What is the main character in this passage? a. A thief among a group of criminals. b. A fighter in a cafeteria. c. A new dog in a rough pack. d. A hungry man trying to get enough food to eat. Explanation: The main character in this passage is a new dog in a rough pack. The new dog had a different life before joining this rough pack: "He swiftly lost the fastidiousness which had characterized his old life. A dainty eater, he found that his mates, finishing first, robbed him of his unfinished ration." This suggests that his old life was much more stable than his present life. It is clear that he is a dog from this sentence: "He watched and learned. When he saw Pike, one of the new dogs, . ." 3. Which of the following may not be concluded from this passage? a. The main character is a quick learner. b. Dogs in the pack eat very quickly. c. The dogs have to fight for everything they get. d. There is ample food to go around. Explanation: It may not be concluded from this passage that there is ample food to go around. The passage indicates that the narrator was compelled by hunger to learn to eat fast and even take food from others. 4. Which of the following situations is most similar to the one presented in this passage? a. A husband and wife quarrel over a grocery bill. b. Two drivers argue after a traffic accident. c. Several prisoners fight over cigarette rations. d. A school of fish search for food to eat. Explanation: Several prisoners fighting over cigarette rations is a situation that is most similar to the one presented in this passage, in which a pack of dogs fight over available food. In both situations, the item of interest to the group or pack is limited and they have to fight to get their share. It has been thought that the purpose of punishment is to reform the criminal; that it is to deter the criminal and others from committing similar crimes; and that it is retribution. Few would now maintain that the first of these purposes was the only one. If it were, every prisoner should be released as soon as it appears clear that he will never repeat his offence, and if he is incurable he should not be punished at all. 5. What assumption does the author ask his readers to make? a. That only a few people would agree that reform is the only purpose of punishment. b. That criminals can be rehabilitated. c. That incurable criminals should not be punished at all. d. That punishment deters criminals from repeat offenses. Explanation: The author asks his readers to assume that only a few people would agree that reform is the only purpose of punishment, which is a technique used in an argument to persuade others that most people agree with his argument. 6. The argument presented by the author is ____________. a. weak and unpersuasive since the concluding statements cannot be proved. b. strong and convincing since it provides a well-reasoned statement that supports it. c. provocative and controversial since many others would see it very differently. d. stimulating and inspirational since it offers hope for hardened criminals. Explanation: The argument presented by the author is strong and convincing since it provides a well-reasoned statement that supports it. If reform was the only basis for punishment, and the person who committed the crime was incurable, there would be no point to punish the person. Therefore, the author makes a strong point that retribution and the other grounds for punishment, are necessarily needed. None of the other answer options make sense based on the way the author presented well-reasoned statements to support his arguments. 7. What is the author arguing in support of in this passage? a. Prison deters criminals from committing similar crimes. b. The main purpose of punishment should be to rehabilitate offenders. c. Incurable criminals should not be incarcerated. d. Retribution is one purpose of punishment. Explanation: The author argues in support of retribution as one purpose of punishment. The author presents arguments why rehabilitation of criminals is not the only purpose of punishment. He maintains that if rehabilitation were the only basis for punishment, criminals would either be released sooner than is just or never be incarcerated to begin with if no improvement could be expected. Therefore, he concludes, retribution must also be a purpose of punishment. 8. What is the total number of respondents who participated in the experiment? a. 62 b. 21 c. 20 d. 10 Explanation: The total number of respondents who participated in the experiment was 62. This number is determined by adding up the value of N for each emotional response. 9. Based on the results of this experiment, which emotional response had the highest intensity? a. Glad b. Sad c. Indifferent d. None. They all had the same intensity. Explanation: Based on the results of this experiment, the emotional response "Glad" had the highest intensity. This is found by looking at the mean, median, and mode. The mean is the statistical average, the median is the statistical center of the responses and the mode is the most frequent response among the respondents. 10. Based on the passage, what does the "variance" tell us about the responses? a. Variance describes the statistical center of the responses. b. Variance describes the most frequent responses among the respondents. c. Variance gives us a measure of the error in the responses. d. Variance tells us the spread of values within the sample. Explanation: Based on the passage, the "variance" tell us the spread of values within the sample; a high variance means there were a lot of different values given by respondents. 11. Based on the results of this experiment, which emotional response had the highest error associated with the descriptive statistics? a. Glad b. Sad c. Indifferent d. None. They all had the same error. Explanation: Based on the results of this experiment, the emotional response "Sad" had the highest error associated with the descriptive statistics. This is found by looking at the standard deviation (S.D.). The standard deviation gives us a measure of the error in our conclusions; the higher this number, the higher the error. Sir Edmund Hillary was almost not the first person to reach the summit of Mount Everest. He was part of the ninth British expedition to Everest in 1953 led by John Hunt. In addition to Hillary and Hunt, were climbers Tom Bourdillon and Charles Evans. The expedition included over 400 people, including 362 porters and 20 Sherpa guides, one of whom was Tenzing Norgay. The group set up base camp in March 1953 and slowly established their final camp on the South Col at 25,900 feet elevation. On May 26th, Bourdillon and Evans made the first attempt to climb to the top and reached 300 feet below the summit, but were turned back when Evan’s oxygen system failed. Hunt then instructed Hillary and Tenzing to attempt the climb. After Hillary and Tenzing started their ascent, they were delayed for two days on the South Col due to snow. They reached 27,900 feet on May 28th where they pitched a tent. The following morning, Hillary discovered that he left his boots outside his tent and that they were frozen. He and Tenzing had to wait a couple hours to thaw the boots before their final ascent. The last part of the ascent proved challenging. A 40 foot rock face had to be scaled. Hillary figured out a way to wedge himself up a crack in the face between the rock wall and the ice. Tenzing made it up after Hillary. The rest of the way to the top was not difficult. According to Hillary, he and Tenzing made it to the top at the same time, though Tenzing later disclosed that Hillary made it up before him. They reached the top of Everest, at 29,028 feet elevation, the highest elevation on Earth, at 11:30 am. 12. If Tenzing is correct that Hillary got to the top first, what personality trait does Hillary exemplify when he said that he and Tenzing made it to the top together? a. Greed b. Modesty c. Self-sacrifice d. Egoism Explanation: If Tenzing is correct, and Hillary made it to the top first by himself, but included Tenzing in the accomplishment, Hillary exemplifies modesty. He was willing to share the lime-light with his Sherpa. Self-sacrifice is not as good an answer as modesty, because Hillary did not really sacrifice anything by giving Tenzing partial credit for the feat. 13. The first sentence in the passage suggests that Hillary was the first to reach the top of Everest through the literary device of _____________. a. implication b. express statement c. metaphor d. simile Explanation: The first sentence states that Hillary was "almost not the first person to reach the summit of Mount Everest." If he was "almost not" the first person, the sentence implies that he was the first person. A statement that strongly suggests the truth of something, without expressly stating it, works by implication. 14. Who was the leader of the expedition? a. Hillary b. Hunt c. Tenzing Norgay d. Bourdillon Explanation: The passage indicates that the expedition up Everest was led by John Hunt. 15. On what date did Hillary and Tenzing reach the top of Everest? a. May 26, 1953 b. May 28, 1953 c. May 29, 1953 d. May 30, 1953 Explanation: Hillary and Tenzing made it to the top of Everest on May 29, 1953. The passage states that they pitched a tent on May 28th, at 27,900 feet and made the ascent to the top the next day. 16. Chapter 3 Colors 1. Primary Colors a. Red b. Blue c. ______ 2. Mixing Colors a. Purple b. Green c. Orange Examine the above headings. Based on the pattern, which of the following is a reasonable heading to insert in the blank spot? a. Black b. Violet c. White d. Yellow Explanation: Of the answer options, only yellow is a primary color and makes sense in the sequence of the headings on colors. This was a man she had heard much of but never seen. He had been her husband's college friend; was now a journalist, and in no sense a society man or "a man about town," which were, perhaps, some of the reasons she had never met him. But she had unconsciously formed an image of him in her mind. She pictured him tall, slim, cynical; with eye-glasses, and his hands in his pockets; and she did not like him. Gerold was slim enough, but he wasn't very tall nor very cynical; neither did he wear eyeglasses nor carry his hands in his pockets. And she rather liked him when he first presented himself. 17. Based on this passage, what can you infer that the main character felt about or toward her husband's college friend before she met him? a. Aversion and contempt b. Deferential and obsequious c. Veneration and admiration d. Disapproval and distaste Explanation: Based on this passage, we can infer that the main character felt disapproval and distaste toward her husband's college friend before she met him. Disapproval and distaste mean generally "dislike". Aversion and contempt are not correct because they mean a strong dislike, which is not expressed in the passage. Rather, it seems the main character instinctively formed a dislike of her husband's friend simply because he was her husband's friend, went to college or because he was a journalist. The reason why the main character disliked her husband's friend is apparently not understood by the main character. 18. On what basis did the main character form a negative unconscious image of Gerold? a. That he went to college b. That he was a journalist c. That he was not a man of society d. All of the above. e. It cannot be determined from the passage. Explanation: The passage does not state on what basis the main character formed her unconscious image of Gerold where it caused her to dislike him. It could be she felt competition for her husband's attention, that he went to college or that he was a journalist. The passage does not make clear from what or why the unconscious image arose. 19. Who narrates this passage? a. The wife who is having thoughts of her husband's college friend b. The husband c. Gerold d. An unspecified entity Explanation: The passage is presented in the third-person singular, where the narrator is not specified. The third-person narrative mode works by the use of "he", "she" and "it" in reference to the characters. 20. According to the passage, what is the college friend's occupation? a. College Professor b. Journalist c. Socialite d. Actor Explanation: According to the passage, the college friend's occupation is journalism: "He had been her husband's college friend; was now a journalist . . . " The Battle of Waterloo brought to an end the stunning reemergence of Napoleon Bonaparte as ruler of France. He had been exiled to an island after abdicating the throne in 1815, but returned to once again threaten the security of neighboring countries. It was the cooperating powers of England, Russia, Prussia and Austria that finally ended the reign of the Little Corporal. Napoleon was the self-declared Emperor of France and Italy in the early 1800s. After a ruinous attempt to invade Russia in 1812, Napoleon and his army retreated back to Paris, only to find it had surrendered to opposing forces. When Napoleon tried to muster his army to advance on Paris, his generals refused to follow, which forced his abdication. He was exiled to Elba, an island in the Mediterranean Sea. When he got to Elba, Napoleon heard rumors that he was to be banished even further away. He decided to attempt to return to France. On February 26, 1815, he landed in France. Louis XVIII, now in power, sent an army to arrest him. When Napoleon confronted the army, he got off his horse and walked toward them, saying “Here I am. Kill your Emperor if you wish”. The army responded by yelling “Vive L’Empereur!” Napoleon went to Paris and retook control of the country after Louis XVIII fled. The powers of England, Russia, Prussia and Austria entered into an agreement to send 150,000 soldiers each to end his rule. Napoleon had 200,000 soldiers available to him and he decided to go on the offensive and drive a wedge in between the oncoming British and Prussian armies. On June 18, 1815, at the Battle of Waterloo, the British forces, commanded by the Duke of Wellington, withstood repeated attacks by the French army and drove them from the field. When the Prussian forces arrived, they broke through Napoleon’s right flank. Napoleon was defeated and was forced to abdicate for a second time. After the Battle of Waterloo, Napoleon was exiled again, to a little island in the Atlantic called Saint Helena, where he died six years later. 21. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events leading to Napoleon’s rise to power? a. Louis XVIII fled after the Battle of Waterloo. b. Louis XVIII fled after his army mutinied and supported Napoleon. c. When Napoleon returned to France from Elba, he invaded Russia in 1812. d. Napoleon was exiled to Elba after the Battle of Waterloo. Explanation: Answer option B accurately identifies the sequence of events based on the passage. The passage states that Napoleon returned from Elba and was confronted by Louis XVIII’s army, only to have the army mutiny and support Napoleon. After this turn of events, Louis XVIII fled from France. 22. Approximately how long did it take Napoleon to raise an army for the Battle of Waterloo after he arrived back in France after his exile to Elba? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 8 months d. 1 year Explanation: According to the passage, Napoleon arrived back in France from Elba at the end of February 1815 and fought the Battle of Waterloo on June 18, 1815. Therefore, it took him about 3 months (March, April and May) to raise his army. 23. According to the passage, what led to Napoleon's first abdication? a. Mutiny b. Criminal charges c. Coup d. French Revolution Explanation: According to the passage, Napoleon's generals refused to march on Paris and follow his orders, which led to his first abdication. A mutiny occurs when soldiers conspire to openly refuse to follow orders. There is no indication in the passage that the soldiers sought a coup or to overthrow Napoleon, just to refuse to follow his orders, even though the actions resulted in Napoleon stepping down as ruler. 24. Which of the following best describes the nature of the relationship between England, Prussia, Russia and Austria in the wars against Napoleon? a. Enemies b. Competitors c. Neutral states d. Allies Explanation: England, Prussia, Russia and Austria were allies in confronting Napoleon's military aggression. One's-self I sing, a simple separate person, Yet utter the word Democratic, the word En-Masse. Of physiology from top to toe I sing, Not physiognomy alone nor brain alone is worthy for the Muse, I say the Form complete is worthier far, The Female equally with the Male I sing. Of Life immense in passion, pulse, and power, Cheerful, for freest action form'd under the laws divine, The Modern Man I sing. 25. What does the author mean when he says, "Not physiognomy alone nor brain alone is worthy for the Muse"? a. Neither physiognomy nor intelligence is enough to inspire a poem about man. b. The brain is sometimes not witty or smart enough to inspire the Muse. c. Physiognomy and intelligence are not worth much. d. The Muse is very demanding when it comes to parts of the body. Explanation: When the author writes, "Not physiognomy alone nor brain alone is worthy for the Muse," he means neither physiognomy nor intelligence is enough to inspire a poem about man. Instead, "the Form complete is worthier far." Physiognomy is a person's facial features or expression. Neither facial features nor intelligence are enough to inspire the author to write a poem, but the entire form of a person, including the spirit, is his inspiration. Passage 88 Population ecology is a field of science that examines numerous factors affecting the structure and dynamics of populations, including population size, stability and spatial dispersion. The only factors affecting population sizes are births, deaths, immigration and emigration. Births and immigration add individuals to the population, whereas deaths and emigration remove individuals from the population. If more individuals are added to the population than removed, the population size increases. If more individuals are removed from the population than added, the population size decreases. If the number of individuals added and removed is approximately the same, then the population size is said to be stable. Population stability varies among populations. Some populations can be stable for long periods of time. Others can be unstable or dynamic for long periods of time, oscillating through periods of high and low population sizes. Some populations are only temporary, such as ephemeral species that only live for short periods. 26. The author of this poem uses _________ references to make his point. a. symbolic b. allegorical c. parabolic d. literal Explanation: The author of this poem uses literal references to make his point. Symbolism, allegory and parable all use reference to something else to reveal a hidden meaning. In this poem, the author tends to speaks directly and literally without the use of metaphor, symbolism or the like. 27. This passage is primarily about ___________. a. democracy b. a man singing happily to himself c. the joy of life in modern times d. love between a man and woman Explanation: This passage is primarily about the joy of being alive in modern times. The author is singing about how wonderful life is: "Of Life immense in passion, pulse, and power, Cheerful". While the author says he sings about himself, he suggests that he represents all men and women. He does not sing of only himself or of any particular man and woman but for all modern living people. 28. What do the lines "One's-self I sing, a simple separate person, Yet utter the word Democratic, the word En-Masse" most closely mean in the context of this passage? a. The author is speaking about a large group of Democrats. b. The author is speaking both of himself and of all mankind. c. The author is singing and speaking at the same time. d. The author is singing about himself to a group of people. Explanation: The lines "One's-self I sing, a simple separate person, Yet utter the word Democratic, the word En-Masse" most closely means that the author is speaking both of himself and of all mankind in the context of this passage. The poem is about the joy of being alive, both as an individual and collectively as part of a group. The establishment of branch hatcheries has been suggested in order to utilize the spawning salmon in the region which lies above commercial fishing, and thus increase by artificial means the production of young fish. It is well known that even under the best conditions now prevailing in our streams the eggs of anadromous fishes like the salmon and shad are liable to numerous destructive agencies; that only a small percentage of the eggs laid under natural surroundings ever hatch, and that the young are subject to heavy mortality up to the time when they leave the river and enter the salt water. Probably 5 per cent would be much too large an estimate of the number of salmon eggs which in a state of nature produce fish that reach the ocean. 29. This passage is primarily about ___________. a. how commercial fishing is depleting the number of fish in streams b. natural versus artificial methods of hatching fish c. creating more fish hatcheries to improve the number of fish that survive to maturity d. how fish die when they swim from fresh to salt water Explanation: This passage is primarily about creating more fish hatcheries to improve the number of fish that survive to maturity. This choice is supported by the topic sentence "The establishment of branch hatcheries has been suggested in order to utilize the spawning salmon in the region which lies above commercial fishing, and thus increase by artificial means the production of young fish." 30. According to the author, approximately how many salmon eggs do not make it from the natural habitat to salt water? a. Ninety five percent b. Five percent c. Very few d. Only a small percentage Explanation: According to the author, approximately ninety five percent of salmon eggs do not make it from the natural habitat to salt water. This choice is confirmed in the concluding sentence: "Probably 5 per cent would be much too large an estimate of the number of salmon eggs which in a state of nature produce fish that reach the ocean." 31. It is inferred that salmon spawn in which of the following locations? a. Out at sea in salt water. b. On land in hatcheries. c. In fresh water. d. It cannot be determined. Explanation: According to the passage, salmon enter fresh water rivers and streams to spawn. The passage states that, after the eggs hatch, the young salmon leave the streams and rivers and enter the salt water of the ocean. 32. Why are the branch hatcheries most likely located above commercial fishing areas? a. So that the eggs will not be caught in fishing nets. b. So that spawning salmon are not caught. c. To avoid boating accidents. d. So that young salmon have to swim through commercial fishing areas to get to sea. Explanation: It can be reasonably concluded from the passage that the reason that the hatcheries are located away from commercial fishing areas is so that spawning salmon can avoid being disturbed and caught by the fishing activities. The passage discusses the forces working against the salmon population. It says that spawning salmon are specifically used in the region of the hatcheries to artificially increase the fish population away from commercial fishing areas. NASA has studied the effects of zero gravity on the human body to ensure the safety of astronauts traveling through space. NASA researchers found that the heart, lungs and blood vessels function differently in space than they do here on Earth. On Earth, blood and other body fluids tend to accumulate in the lower half of the body due to gravity. In zero gravity, fluids accumulate in the upper half of the body in a way that does not happen here on Earth. This accumulation of fluids in the upper half of the body puts unusual pressure and demands on the heart, brain, kidneys and blood vessels. To counteract these effects, the body responds by getting rid of excess fluid through increased urination and decreased thirst. This response decreases the total volume of blood and electrolytes in the body, causing the heart and blood vessels to decrease in size relative to their size on Earth. 33. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? a. Space travel may be dangerous to humans. b. Astronauts need to consume more fluids to replace what they lose. c. Blood and other fluids are different in zero gravity. d. NASA studies the effects of space travel on human physiology to make it safer. Explanation: Although the other answers are true, they are not the main idea of the passage. The first sentence reveals that this passage is about research NASA does on human physiology to ensure the safety of astronauts traveling through space. Therefore, NASA does research to make space travel safer. 34. Which of the following may be concluded from this passage? a. The heart shrinks under zero gravity conditions. b. Gravity has no effect on human physiology. c. Astronauts are very thirsty in space. d. In space, there is no blood in the legs or feet. Explanation: The passage indicates that the heart and blood vessels decrease in size relative to their size on Earth. From this, we can conclude that the heart shrinks under zero gravity conditions. None of the other choices are correct. 35. According to the passage, fluids accumulate in the upper half of the body because ______. a. the heart pumps faster in space than on Earth. b. there is no gravity to pool fluids in the lower half of the body like on Earth. c. blood and other fluids are less viscous in space. d. astronauts can easily turn upside down in zero gravity. Explanation: According to the passage, blood and other body fluids tend to accumulate in the lower half of the body due to gravity. In zero gravity, fluids accumulate in the upper half of the body in a way that doesn't happen here on Earth. Developmental biologists examine the mechanisms of development, differentiation and growth of living organisms at the molecular, genetic and cellular levels. Development is controlled by the expression of unique genes within each living organism. Genes (genotype) control who and what organisms become and what they look like (phenotype). These studies help developmental biologists understand both normal and abnormal development based on genetic differences, which in turn can help them come up with gene-based therapies to treat specific genetic disorders. Developmental biologists also study the specialization of cells during development. This field has led to a better understanding of how stem cells differentiate into specific tissues and organs. This has helped developmental biologists grow stem cells into tissues and organs for medical purposes to alleviate human suffering from debilitating diseases and injuries. Studies of programmed cell death have also helped developmental biologists understand aging processes and ways to reduce or minimize the effects of aging. 36. Which of the following statements is supported by the author in this passage? a. Studying development provides little understanding of genetic disorders. b. Development is regulated and directed through gene expression. c. Stem cells should not be used due to ethical issues. d. Gen-based therapies have not been very useful. Explanation: The statement that development is regulated and directed through gene expression is supported by the author in this passage. Development is controlled by the expression of unique genes within each living organism. 37. All of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT: a. Developmental biologists study genetic disorders to help fix them. b. The phenotype of an organism is determined by its genotype. c. Stem cells have the ability to specialize into different types of cells. d. By studying programmed cell death, developmental biologists have been able to stop the aging process. Explanation: All of the following can be inferred from the passage except by studying programmed cell death, developmental biologists have been able to stop the aging process. Studies of programmed cell death have helped developmental biologists understand aging processes and ways to reduce or minimize the effects of aging, but they cannot stop the aging process. It is constantly said that fisherman greatly exaggerate the size of the fish that are lost. This accusation, though most frequently and flippantly made, is in point of fact based upon the most absurd arrogance and a love of slanderous assertion that passes understanding. In the first place, all the presumptions are with the fisherman’s contention. It is perfectly plain that large fish are more apt to escape than small ones. Of course their weight and activity, combined with the increased trickiness and resourcefulness of age and experience, greatly increase their ability to tear out the hook, and enhance the danger that their antics will expose a fatal weakness in hook, leader, line or rod. Another presumption which must be regretfully mentioned, arises from the fact that in many cases the encounter with a large fish causes such excitement, and such distraction or perversion of judgment, on the part of the fisherman as leads him to do the wrong thing or fail to do the right thing at the critical instant—thus actually and effectively contributing to an escape which could not and would not have occurred except in favor of a large fish. 38. Which writing structure does the author use in this passage? a. Narrative b. Descriptive c. Exposition d. Persuasive Explanation: The author presents a logical argument intending to persuade the reader to the truth of his conclusion, namely that the stories that fisherman tell of the lost fish are in most cases true. A persuasive form of writing seeks to justify a proposition through supporting evidence and logical reasoning. Here, the author says that stories of the large fish that got away are likely true because large fish are known to break fishing line due to their size and experience and that fisherman get excited and make mistakes when they become aware that they have a large fish on the line. 39. Information contained in this passage supports all of the following statements about catching fish EXCEPT: a. Large fish escape hooks better than small fish due to their size. b. Large fish have more experience than small fish and know how to avoid traps. c. Small fish maneuver better than large fish and get away from fishing gear faster. d. Small fish create less of a distraction to fisherman and are caught more easily. Explanation: Information contained in the passage supports all of the following statements about catching fish except that small fish maneuver better than large fish and get away from fishing gear faster. The author goes into detail about how large fish are harder to catch than small fish, so this choice would not really be supported in the passage. 40. Which of the following accusations does the author oppose? a. The accusation that fisherman fail to catch big fish. b. The accusation that tales of losing a big fish logically follow from the situation of hooking a big fish. c. The accusation that fishermen often exaggerate the size of the fish they fail to catch. d. The accusation that fishermen do not really understand what passes for plausible when it comes to fish. Explanation: In the passage, the author opposes those who criticize fishermen for exaggerating the size of the fish they fail to catch and accuses them of arrogance and slander. In the passage, he tries to establish that a fisherman's tale of losing the big fish actually logically follows from self-evident presumptions. The first presumption is that large fish are more difficult to catch due to their size and experience. Second, the author makes the presumption that fisherman would get excited at hooking a big fish and thereby make mistakes that lead to the fish escaping the hook. GUITAR (Fr. guitarre, Ger. Guitarre, Ital. chitarra, Span. guitarra), a musical instrument strung with gut strings twanged by the fingers, having a body with a flat back and graceful incurvations in complete contrast to the members of the family of lute, whose back is vaulted. The construction of the instrument is of paramount importance in assigning to the guitar its true position in the history of musical instruments, midway between the cithara and the violin. The medieval stringed instruments with neck fall into two classes, characterized mainly by the construction of the body: (1) Those which, like their archetype the cithara, had a body composed of a flat or delicately arched back and soundboard joined by ribs. (2) Those which, like the lyre, had a body consisting of a vaulted back over which was glued a flat soundboard without the intermediary of ribs; this method of construction predominates among Oriental Instruments and is greatly inferior to the first. A striking proof of this inferiority is afforded by the fact that instruments with vaulted backs, such as the rebab or rebec, although extensively represented during the middle ages in all parts of Europe by numerous types, have shown but little or no development during the course of some twelve centuries, and have dropped out one by one from the realm of practical music without leaving a single survivor. The guitar must be referred to the first of these classes. 41. Based on the way this passage is formatted, what can you infer about its source? a. It was a book about guitars. b. It was a guide to composing music. c. It was an instruction manual for making musical instruments. d. It was a reference book, like an encyclopedia. Explanation: Based on the way this passage is formatted, we can infer that its source was a reference book, like an encyclopedia. It begins by the subject heading "Guitar" and is followed by a guide showing how the term for guitar is spelled and pronounced in different languages. The history of the guitar is then presented in a straightforward manner. The passage offers no information about composing music, nor instructions for making musical instruments. Therefore, the most logical conclusion is that it is a reference book. 42. Which class of instrument does the author indicate the guitar belongs to? a. The class represented by the lyre. b. The class represented by the cithara. c. Instruments with vaulted backs. d. Both b and c Explanation: The author indicates that the guitar belongs to the class represented by the cithara, which are instruments with a flat or delicately arched back, not a vaulted back. The author describes two classes of instruments and concludes with the statement that "The guitar must be referred to the first of these classes," which was the class represented by the cithara. 43. What evidence does the author of this passage provide to prove that vaulted back string instruments are inferior to flat or delicately arched back string instruments? a. Vaulted back string instruments ceased to be popular after the 12th century. b. Vaulted back string instruments were no longer made after the 12th century. c. Vaulted back string instruments showed little or no development over 1200 years. d. Flat or delicately arched back string instruments were extensively represented during the middle ages. Explanation: The evidence provided by the author of this passage to prove that vaulted back string instruments are inferior to flat or delicately arched back string instruments was that vaulted back string instruments showed little or no development over 1200 years. This choice is supported by the following sentence: "A striking proof of this inferiority is afforded by the fact that instruments with vaulted backs, such as the rebab or rebec, although extensively represented during the middle ages in all parts of Europe by numerous types, have shown but little or no development during the course of some twelve centuries." 44. Which of the following occurred before Obama delivered the keynote address at the Democratic National Convention? a. Election as U.S. Senator b. Passage of health care reform c. Election as Illinois Senator d. Re-election as President Explanation: Of the answer options, only C, Obama's election to the Illinois Senate in 1996, occurred prior to the time that he delivered the keynote address at the Democratic National Convention in 2004. 45. Which of the following statements is true based on the timeline? a. The keynote address helped Obama get elected to the Illinois Senate. b. Obama was a community organizer in Honolulu before enrolling at Harvard Law School. c. When the Democrats gained control of both houses of Congress in 2006, Obama was a U.S. Senator. d. Passage of health care reform in 2010 lead to Obama's election loss in 2012. Explanation: The only answer option that is accurate in terms of the timeline is that Obama was a U.S. Senator in 2006, as he was elected to the U.S. Senate in 2004. He was not elected President until 2008. 46. Obama was born in the month of August. How old was he when he was elected President in November 2008? a. 40 b. 47 c. 46 d. 48 Explanation: In November 2008, when Obama was elected President, he was 47 years old. It was in the last four decades of the ninth century of our era that Norsemen began to leave their own country and set up new homes in Iceland. The sixty years ending with 930 A.D. were devoted to taking up the land, and the hundred years that ensued after that date were devoted to quarreling about that land. These quarrels were the origin of the Icelandic family sagas. The year 1000 brought Christianity to the island, and the period from 1030 to 1120 were years of peace in which stories of the former time passed from mouth to mouth. The next century saw these stories take written form, and the period from 1220 to 1260 was the golden age of this literature. In 1264, Iceland passed under the rule of Norway, and a decline of literature began, extending until 1400, the end of literary production in Iceland. In the main, the authors of Iceland are unknown. 47. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events in the development of the Icelandic sagas? a. The sagas of the Norsemen were written down prior to 1120. b. The decline of the literature began in the golden age. c. The written sagas predated the arrival of Christianity on Iceland. d. The sagas started to take written form after 1120, just before the golden age. Explanation: Answer D correctly describes the sequence of events leading to the writing of the sagas after 1120. The passage says that the sagas started to take written form in the century after 1120 and that the golden age of Icelandic literature was from 1220 to 1260. 48. Based on this passage, what can we infer about Norsemen? a. They were a peaceful people. b. They brought Christianity to Iceland when they first arrived. c. They were not indigenous to Iceland. d. They divided up the new lands equally and fairly. Explanation: Based on this passage, we can infer that Norsemen were not indigenous to Iceland. Indigenous means originating or occurring naturally in a place. The passage states that "Norsemen began to leave their own country and set up new homes in Iceland," clearly indicating that they were not indigenous or originally from Iceland. 49. Based on this passage, the golden age of Norse literature came when ______________. a. Christianity arrived b. stories passed from mouth to mouth c. Iceland passed under the rule of Norway d. the stories transitioned from oral to written form Explanation: Based on this passage, the golden age of Norse literature came when the stories transitioned from oral to written form. This choice is supported by the following sentences: ". . . the period from 1030 to 1120 were years of peace in which stories of the former time passed from mouth to mouth. The next century saw these stories take written form, and the period from 1220 to 1260 was the golden age of this literature." 50. According to the passage, when did Norsemen begin setting up new homes in Iceland? a. Between 860-900 A.D. b. Sixty years prior to 930 B.C. c. From 930-1030 A.D. d. After the 1200's Explanation: According to the passage, Norsemen began setting up new homes in Iceland in the last four decades of the ninth century, which is 860-900 A.D. The other choices are incorrect. 51. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? a. Christianity brought peace to Iceland. b. Icelandic literature flourished briefly but was extinguished under Norwegian rule. c. Iceland was founded by Norsemen. d. Old Norse literature was spread through word of mouth. Explanation: The main idea of this passage is best expressed by the statement that Icelandic literature flourished briefly but was extinguished under Norwegian rule. Although the other choices are valid, they are not the main idea discussed in the passage. It is rarely necessary to go far afield to begin the study of birds. Often one may get good views of birds from one's open window, as many species build their nests close to the house when the surroundings are favorable. Last spring I counted eighteen kinds of birds one morning while sitting on the veranda of a friend's house, and later found the nests of no less than seven of them within sight of the house. When one starts out to hunt birds it is well to bear in mind a few simple rules. The first of these is to go quietly. One's good sense would of course tell him not to rush headlong through the woods, talking loudly to a companion, stepping upon brittle twigs, and crashing through the underbrush. Go quietly, stopping to listen every few steps. Make no violent motions, as such actions often frighten a bird more than a noise. Do not wear brightly colored clothing, but garments of neutral tones which blend well with the surroundings of field and wood. It is a good idea to sit silently for a time on some log or stump, and soon the birds will come about you, for they seldom notice a person who is motionless. 52. From the following statements, select the statement that most closely parallels in meaning the authors use of the word "hunt" in the passage. a. The hunter shot the deer. b. The school children went on a treasure hunt. c. Early humans hunted some animals to extinction. d. Hunting season starts November 1st. Explanation: The passage indicates that the author is interested in the study of birds and merely seeks to find them to look at them. There is no indication that the author seeks to "hunt" the birds to kill them for food or sport. The passage that most closely parallels the author's use of the word "hunt" is children going on a treasure hunt, where the object of the activity is seeking and obtaining a thing, without the added qualification of killing, which other definitions of "hunt" denote. 53. Which of the following is the likely source of the author's information? a. Bird watching book or guide b. Personal experience c. Second-hand information culled from other observers d. Internet research Explanation: The author begins the passage speaking in terms of her personal experience watching birds from her house and surrounding area. She then sums up some simple rules for bird watching. The rules are presented in such an informal way that it is most reasonable to conclude that the author created these rules from personal experience. 54. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? a. Birds generally live around human habitations. b. Birds are sensitive and frighten easily. c. There are some techniques that enhance bird watching. d. When hunting birds, it is best to wear drab colors. Explanation: The main idea of the passage is best expressed in the statement there are some techniques that enhance bird watching. The author states that it is best to follow a few simple rules when bird watching and discusses the rules. An ecologist named Aldo Leopold once wrote in his work “Odyssey” about the journey of two different atoms being recycled through ecosystems before returning back to the prison of the ocean bottom. The first atom Leopold called X, spent millions of years traveling from rocks to living organisms and eventually was carried further and further downstream to the ocean, where it became trapped for millions of years more. The second atom Leopold called Y, began its odyssey during the time of humans, in which atoms were removed from ecosystems to the ocean much faster than ever before due to our sophisticated agricultural and drainage systems. Leopold described the odyssey like this: “X had marked time in the limestone ledge since the Paleozoic seas covered the land. Time, to an atom locked in a rock, does not pass. An atom at large in the biota is too free to know freedom; an atom back in the seas has forgotten it. For every atom lost to the sea, the prairie pulls another out of the decaying rocks. The only certain truth is that its creatures must suck hard, live fast, and die often, lest its losses exceed its gains.” 55. Which of the following identifies why this sentence from the passage includes quotation marks? An ecologist named Aldo Leopold once wrote in his work "Odyssey" about the journey of two different atoms being recycled through ecosystems before returning back to the bottom of the ocean. a. It is a subheading. b. It's an exclamation. c. It is an article title. d. It is a quote. Explanation: Article titles in written material is indicated using quotation marks. 56. What literary convention is Leopold using when he describes the atom as knowing or forgetting freedom? a. Metaphor b. Simile c. Personification d. Hyperbole Explanation: Leopold uses the literary convention of personification when he describes the atom as "too free to know freedom" or that "an atom back in the seas has forgotten it (freedom)'. Personification is a figure of speech giving inanimate objects human qualities. 57. What is the main point of this passage in terms of human behavior? a. Humans must use efficient agricultural systems in order to keep up with erosion. b. Humans are defiling the oceans. c. There is nothing a human can do to keep up with an evolving ecosystem. d. Time to an atom is meaningless. Explanation: In the last sentence of the passage, Leopold states that creatures that live on the prairie must "suck hard, live fast and die often" or else erosion will take away the land and its nutrients. In other words, humans must employ efficient agricultural systems in order to keep up with erosion. He makes no value judgment in the passage as to erosion and the state of the oceans. Greece is one of the first places in human history where democracy was developed. The word “democracy” first appeared in ancient Greek, where the term “demos”, meaning “people” was joined with the term “kratos” meaning “power”, to form the word meaning “rule of the people”. Greeks formed what is considered the first democracy in the city-state of Athens in 508-507 BC. Cleisthenes is considered the “father of Athenian democracy”. Cleisthenes was a noble of Athens from the clan of Alcmaeonidae. After he helped overthrow the tyrant Hippias, Cleisthenes was forced to flee Athens when his rival for power, Isagoras, got the support of neighboring Sparta. Once in power, Isagoras dispossessed many Athenians of their land and attempted to dissolve the “Boule”, a council of Athenian citizens that ran the day-to-day affairs of the city. The Athenian people backed the Boule and Isagoras was forced to flee the city. Cliesthenes was recalled along with hundreds of exiles and assumed leadership of Athens. Once in power, Cleisthenes reformed the government of Athens. He sought to decrease strife between rival clans, which led to much tyranny in Athens. He changed the political organization of the city from four traditional tribes to ten tribes based on the area where people lived. The city was broken down into demes, or regions, where enrollment on citizen-lists was a requirement for citizenship. He abolished the use of family names based on one’s fathers lineage and instead required the use of names related to the deme where one lived. These changes were to encourage a citizen’s attachment and identification to a political unit aside from one’s family or tribe. Finally, Cleisthenes established legislative bodies and court systems run by the citizens of Athens who were chosen by lottery, rather than kinship or heredity. He reorganized the Boule to include 500 citizens, 50 each drawn from the ten tribes. The Boule proposed laws to the citizens of Athens and all eligible citizens were to speak and vote in the assembly, which set the laws for the city-state. 58. Who ruled Athens prior to Cleisthenes? a. Alcmaeonidae b. Isagoras c. Hippias d. Cannot be determined from the passage. Explanation: According to the passage, Isagoras ruled Athens prior to the time that Cleisthenes came to power in Athens. 59. As used in the passage, what does "clan" mean? a. Team b. Unit c. Gang d. Family Explanation: As used in the passage, the term "clan" means "family". A clan is a group of families formed by common descent. 60. According to the passage, what is the main reason why tyranny occurred in Athens prior to Cleisthenes? a. The Boule passed unfair laws. b. The Athenian people were weak. c. A few Athenian families were rivals for power. d. People were disposed of their land. Explanation: According to the passage, tyranny occurred in Athens prior to Cleisthenes because only a few families were rivals for power. Cleisthenes took steps to decrease the power and influence of the family tribes by changing a citizen's self-identification to one centered on where one lived, as opposed to one's family, and by creating loyalty to one's deme, a region where citizens had to participate in political activity. 61. How were citizens chosen to serve on the legislative bodies and courts? a. By lottery b. Picked by Cleisthenes c. Volunteered d. By family connection Explanation: According to the passage, citizens were chosen by lottery to serve on the legislative bodies and the courts. The Corps of Discovery Expedition, later called the Lewis and Clark Expedition, had both scientific and commercial objectives. Meriwether Lewis and William Clark were commissioned by President Thomas Jefferson to study the flora, fauna, geology, cartography (map making), topography (land features) and limnology (study or fresh water systems) of the interior of the northern United States from coast to coast. The goal of these scientific objectives was to learn as much as possible about how to use these things for commercial or economic purposes. The expedition lasted from and it produced a significant wealth of knowledge about a little known swath of the entire continent. 62. Which of the following may NOT be concluded from this passage? a. Part of the expedition was about studying rivers and lakes. b. Lewis and Clark were asked to document mountain ranges and valleys. c. The expedition was primarily concerned with building new cities and railroads. d. Map making was an important part of the scientific objectives of the expedition. Explanation: It may not be concluded from this passage that the expedition was primarily concerned with building new cities and railroads. This is not mentioned in the passage and it was not one the expeditions objectives. 63. Based on the passage, what would you infer a "cartographer" does? a. Makes horse-drawn wagons, buggies and carts. b. Creates maps for navigational and military purposes. c. A cartographer is an expedition leader. d. Cartographers are interested in the commercial value of plants and animals. Explanation: Based on the passage, we can infer a "cartographer" creates maps for navigational and military purposes. Lewis and William Clark were commissioned to study cartography (map making) of the interior of the northern United States. 64. Which of the following likely did not view the Lewis and Clark expedition in such positive or practical terms? a. Northeastern businesses b. Native Americans from the West c. Missionaries d. U.S. Government Explanation: It is likely the Native Americans from the West did not view the Lewis and Clark expedition in such positive or practical terms as did the initiators and participants in the expedition. It would be the Native Americans who would later lose their lands and culture to western expansion, in part, resulting from the Lewis and Clark expedition which brought information back to the eastern part of the continent of the vast space, travel routes and other bounty the land of the West contained. 65. What was the primary purpose of the Lewis and Clark Expedition? a. To figure out the best route for a new transcontinental railroad. b. To gather information to overtake and rule native Americans in new areas. c. To carry out scientific studies on a region to learn how it could be exploited. d. To find the fastest route from coast to coast. Explanation: The primary purpose of the Lewis and Clark Expedition was to carry out scientific studies on a region to learn how it could be exploited. The Lewis and Clark Expedition had both scientific and commercial objectives. The goal of the scientific objectives was to learn as much as possible about how to use these things for commercial or economic purposes, which also means how to exploit them. Table of Contents List of Maps and Illustrations Preface 1. Introduction 2. The Archaic Context of Moundbuilding 3. Poverty Point, the First Moundbuilding Epoch 4. Adena-Hopewell, the Second Moundbuilding Epoch 5. Cahokia, the Third Moundbuilding Epoch 6. Decline of Cahokia 7. Conclusion 8. Notes Bibliography Index 66. In what chapter would one look for the initiation of the main argument of the work? a. Table of Contents b. 1 c. 2 d. Index Explanation: The main argument of a work is often introduced in the preface or introduction of a work. Only the introduction is a possible answer option here. The Table of Contents typically does not include a description of the main argument in any degree of detail, and typically functions as a tool to help a reader get an overview of the work and to locate particular chapters. 67. What does the term "epoch" mean? a. A section at the end of a book b. A widespread occurrence of an infectious disease c. A period in the time of history d. A protective outer layer of skin Explanation: The term "epoch" basically means a period in time of history. 68. In what chapter would one look for information on the end of the Cahokia? a. 6 b. 5 c. 7 d. Index Explanation: Chapter 6 is entitled "Decline of Cahokia" and, based on the sequence of the chapter headings, would be the best place to look for information on the end of Cahokia. The Conclusion is not the best answer, as a conclusion serves to summarize and conclude the main themes of the entire work. The story of the Spanish Armada is filled with political intrigue and adventure. While the story line is rather well known, i.e. the Spanish sending many ships to invade England, the causes of the conflict are as not as well known. It turns out that the motives behind sending a large fleet of ships to England was not to gain territory for Spain in England, but a retaliatory move by Spain for England’s involvement in the Dutch Revolt. As of 1566, the Netherlands were controlled by the Spanish and its king, Philip II, who was Roman Catholic and not from the Netherlands. King Phillip did not even speak Dutch. Philip had inherited control of the Netherlands from his father, Charles V, the first king of Spain. During his rule, tensions flared in the Netherlands over taxation, the suppression of Protestantism and Phillip’s centralization efforts. The conflict grew into an independence movement know as the Dutch Revolt. England’s Queen Elizabeth, who was a Protestant, supported the Dutch Revolt, which was successful and ultimately led to Dutch independence starting in 1581. In retaliation for England’s support for the Dutch Revolt, King Philip planned an expedition against England in order to overthrow Queen Elizabeth. The invasion was supported by Pope Sixtus, who considered the affair a crusade. In 1588, 130 Spanish ships, commanded by The Duke of Medina Sidonia, a courtier with no experience at sea, skirmished with about 200 English ships in the English Channel. Medina Sidonia’s plan was to rendezvous with a Spanish army consisting of about 30,000 soldiers that were in the Netherlands. The Armada was to pick up the Spanish army and transport them to England for an invasion. However, the English ships and bad weather prevented the Armada from picking up the soldiers. At one point, in a thrilling maneuver, the English used fire ships to break up the Spanish formation. Unable to pick up the soldiers, Medina Sidonia decided to sail back to Spain around Scotland and Ireland. Harsh weather beat the retreating ships, and ultimately only about 80 ships made it back. The defeat of the Spanish Armada added to the legend of Queen Elizabeth and secured England as a Protestant nation. 69. Why does the passage state that King Philip of Spain did not speak Dutch? a. To emphasize the tensions that existed between the Netherlands and King Philip. b. To show how uneducated King Philip was. c. To explain the tension between Spain and England. d. To emphasize the tension between King Philip and Queen Elizabeth. Explanation: The passage states that King Philip did not speak Dutch to emphasize the tension that existed between the Netherlands and King Philip. Along with the raising of taxes, suppressing Protestantism and unwanted centralization, the passage indicates that King Philip did not speak Dutch to show the tensions that existed between the monarch and the territories he controlled. 70. Chronologically, which of the following came first? a. The Dutch Revolt b. The Spanish Armada c. Spain's control of the Netherlands d. The reign of Philip II Explanation: The passage indicates that King Philip II of Spain inherited the Netherlands from his father Charles V, the first king of Spain. Therefore, Spain's control of the Netherlands came before the reign of Philip II, and before the Dutch Revolt and Spanish Armada, both of which came after Philip II became king. 71. Which statement is true concerning the number of ships engaged in the Spanish Armada? a. The Spanish Armada was larger than the English fleet. b. The Spanish Armada and the English fleet were of equal strength. c. The Spanish Armada was smaller than the English fleet. d. It cannot be determined how many ships each side had. Explanation: According to the passage, the English had more ships than the Spanish Armada. The English had 200 ships and the Spanish Armada had 130 ships. 72. According to the passage, what motivated the Spanish to attempt an invasion of England? a. Greed b. Revenge c. Religion d. Survival Explanation: According to the passage, the Spanish and King Philip sought to invade England in retaliation for England's support of the Dutch Revolt against Spain. While there was a religious background to the events, the passage emphasizes King Philip's desire for revenge. "An old maid, that's what I'm to be. A literary spinster, with a pen for a spouse, a family of stories for children, and twenty years hence a morsel of fame, perhaps, when, like poor Johnson, I'm old and can't enjoy it, solitary, and can't share it, independent, and don't need it. Well, I needn't be a sour saint nor a selfish sinner, and, I dare say, old maids are very comfortable when they get used to it, but..." and there Jo sighed, as if the prospect was not inviting. 73. Which of the following most likely occurred prior to Jo having these thoughts? a. Her birthday b. Her wedding anniversary c. Her mother's death d. Her sister's marriage Explanation: From the passage, it is clear that Jo is concerned about getting older. She is anxious on the thought that she will be alone as she gets older. Since the passage deals with age, it is most likely that Jo had a birthday prior to this passage, which caused her to think about getting older. 74. What did the main character mean when she said that, "I needn't be a sour saint nor a selfish sinner"? a. That she was neither good nor bad. b. That she did not have to live a pious life filled with resentment nor be self-absorbed. c. That she did not want to judge herself. d. That old maids can lead balanced, happy lives. Explanation: When the main character she said that, "I needn't be a sour saint nor a selfish sinner," she meant that she did not have to live a pious life filled with resentment nor be self-absorbed to do what she wanted to do, which was to be an unmarried writer. 75. What is the main character referring to when she says, "I'm old and can't enjoy it, solitary, and can't share it, independent, and don't need it"? a. Marriage b. Writing c. Fame d. A husband Explanation: The main character is referring to fame. This choice is confi