CCRN Critical Care Register Nurse EXAM ( 2021 LATEST UPDATE )

CCRN Critical Care Register Nurse EXAM QUESTION: 1 Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process? A. Denial B. Anger C. Bargaining D. Rejection Answer: D QUESTION: 2 Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait? A. Compensation B. Projection C. Rationalization D. Dysphoria Answer: A QUESTION: 3 Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers? A. Theta B. Alpha C. Beta D. Zeta Answer: A QUESTION: 4 Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently? A. 4 months B. 6 months C. 8 months D. 10 months Answer: B QUESTION: 5 Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range? A. 5-10 months B. 10-14 months C. 12-24 months D. 15-24 months Answer: A QUESTION: 6 Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person? A. Compensation B. Projection C. Rationalization D. Dysphoria Answer: B QUESTION: 7 Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason? A. Compensation B. Projection C. Rationalization D. Dysphoria Answer: C QUESTION: 8 Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions? A. Conversion disorder B. Depressive reaction C. Bipolar disorder D. Alzheimer's disease Answer: A QUESTION: 9 Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake? A. Theta B. Alpha C. Beta D. Zeta Answer: C QUESTION: 10 The REM sleep cycle occur approximately every minutes? A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90 Answer: D QUESTION: 11 Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth? A. Babinski B. Palmar C. Moro D. Flexion Answer: D QUESTION: 12 Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range? A. 5-10 months B. 10-14 months C. 12-24 months D. 24-48 months Answer: D QUESTION: 13 Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety? A. Dyspnea B. Hyperventilation C. Moist mouth D. GI symptoms Answer: C QUESTION: 14 A person who is almost always tired and regularly experiences suddenly falling asleep during the day is suffering from which of the following? A. Cataplexy B. Narcolepsy C. Transitional sleep D. REM absence Answer: B QUESTION: 15 Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is? A. Autotopagnosia B. Cataplexy C. Ergophobia D. Anosognosia Answer: A QUESTION: 16 Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder? A. Nausea B. Excessive perspiration C. Urination D. Chest pain Answer: C QUESTION: 17 Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in? A. Intimacy vs. Isolation B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation C. Integrity vs. Despair D. Longevity vs. Guilt Answer: C QUESTION: 18 Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in? A. Intimacy vs. Isolation B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation C. Integrity vs. Despair D. Longevity vs. Guilt Answer: B QUESTION: 19 Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in? A. Intimacy vs. Isolation B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation C. Integrity vs. Despair D. Longevity vs. Guilt Answer: A QUESTION: 20 Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning? A. Neologisms B. Neolithic C. Verbalism D. Delusional blocking Answer: A Section 2: Sec Two (21 to 40) Details:Biochemistry Practice Questions QUESTION: 21 Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases? A. UAA B. AGU C. AUG D. UGA Answer: C QUESTION: 22 Which of the types of RNA is the smallest? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA Answer: B QUESTION: 23 Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine? A. C B. T C. U D. G Answer: D QUESTION: 24 Which of the following is paired correctly? A. A-G B. C-G C. A-U D. G-T Answer: B QUESTION: 25 Which of the following characterizes a Western blot? A. Antibody/protein hybridization B. DNA/RNA combination C. RNA transcription D. Polymerase chain reaction Answer: A QUESTION: 26 Which of the following is the approximate prevalence ratio for cystic fibrosis? A. 1: 25,000 B. 1: 5,000 C. 1: 2,000 D. 1: 800 Answer: C QUESTION: 27 Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle? A. G B. G C. S D. G0 Answer: A QUESTION: 28 Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome? A. XXII B. XXI C. XIIX D. XV Answer: B QUESTION: 29 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law? A. Mating between species occurs at a set rate. B. Migration is a considerable factor. C. Mutation occurs at the locus D. Genotype selection does not occur at the locus Answer: D QUESTION: 30 Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hurler's syndrome? A. Autosomal recessive condition B. Associated with delayed mental development C. Spasticity D. Corneal deficits Answer: C QUESTION: 31 Which of the following is not a characteristic of Krabbe's disease? A. Autosomal recessive condition B. Spasticity C. Nausea D. Optic nerve deficits Answer: C QUESTION: 32 Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fabry's disease? A. X-linked disease B. Low levels of alpha-galactosidase A C. Profound muscular weakness D. Increased levels of ceramide trihexoside Answer: C QUESTION: 33 Which of the following is not a characteristic of Sickle Cell Anemia? A. More common in African Americans B. Autosomal dominant C. Mutation in beta-globin D. Intense chronic pain Answer: B QUESTION: 34 Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Southern blot? A. DNA hybridization B. Use of a filter and film combination C. Activated by antigen/antibody reactions D. Uses a DNA sample Answer: C QUESTION: 35 Which of the following is not a characteristic of S-adenosyl-methionine? A. May be associated phosphocreatine B. Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis C. Aids in the transfer of methyl D. Byproduct of Methionine and ATP combination Answer: B QUESTION: 36 Which of the following is not an activated carrier? A. ATP B. SAM C. TPP D. GMP Answer: D QUESTION: 37 The end product of the TCA cycle produces _ NADH A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Answer: A QUESTION: 38 How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 Answer: B QUESTION: 39 Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)? A. Melatonin B. Serotonin C. Creatine D. Niacin Answer: C QUESTION: 40 Pompe's disease is a type glycogen storage disease. A. I B. II C. III D. IV Answer: B Section 3: Sec Three (41 to 60) Details:Circulation Practice Questions QUESTION: 41 Prothrombin is a globulin and is produced by the . A. Alpha, Kidney B. Alpha, Liver C. Beta, Kidney D. Beta, Liver Answer: B QUESTION: 42 The right coronary artery divides to form the posterior interventricular artery and the artery. A. Marginal B. LVC C. RVC D. LAD Answer: A QUESTION: 43 Blood flowing into the cardiac veins enters the next. A. Coronary Sinus B. Left Ventricle C. Right Ventricle D. Left Atrium Answer: A QUESTION: 44 If you are using a stethoscope and trying to detect the tricuspid valve which of the following would be the best location? A. Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process B. On the right side of the sternum C. On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint D. On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint of the sixth rib Answer: A QUESTION: 45 Which of the following occurs during ventricular systole? A. Increased aortic pressure B. Increased ventricular volume C. Dup heart sound D. P wave Answer: A QUESTION: 46 Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole? A. Increased aortic pressure B. Increased ventricular volume C. Lub heart sound D. T wave Answer: B QUESTION: 47 The innermost layer of a blood vessel is lined with , cells A. Simple squamous B. Stratified squamous C. Simple cuboidal epithelium D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium Answer: A QUESTION: 48 Angiotension can directly cause the release of from the adrenal cortex. A. Renin B. Aldosterone C. Calcitonin D. Thyroxine Answer: B QUESTION: 49 Cardiac output is the product of and . A. HR and Disastolic pressure B. HR and Stroke Volume C. HR and EF D. Diastolic and Systolic pressure Answer: B QUESTION: 50. Pulmonary edema is most like associated with a failing , . A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle Answer: D QUESTION: 51 Which of the following is the first branch off the aortic arch? A. Common carotid B. Brachiocephalic C. Right Subclavian D. Thoracic Answer: B QUESTION: 52 The brachiocephalic artery divides to form the right common carotid and the , artery. A. Left subclavian B. Right subclavian C. Left common carotid D. Right thoracic artery Answer: B QUESTION: 53 Which of the following arteries creates the left spenic, hepatic and gastric arteries? A. Left sacral artery B. Celiac artery C. Suprarenal artery D. Phrenic artery Answer: B QUESTION: 54 Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the descending thoracic aorta? A. Mediastinal artery B. Renal artery C. Bronchial artery D. Posterior intercostals artery Answer: B QUESTION: 55 Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the abdominal aorta? A. Phrenic artery B. Common iliac artery C. Gonadal artery D. Mediastinal artery Answer: D QUESTION: 56 Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the femoral artery? A. Superficial pudendal arteries B. Deep external pudendal arteries C. Superficial circumflex iliac artery D. Deep circumflex iliac artery Answer: D QUESTION: 57 Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the portal vein? A. Inferior mesenteric vein B. Splenic vein C. Left gastric vein D. Subclavian vein Answer: D QUESTION: 58 Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the artery. A. Basilar B. Common Carotid C. MCA D. PCA Answer: A QUESTION: 59 Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the . A. Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure B. The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure C. The inverse of the blood pressure D. Half of the systolic pressure Answer: A QUESTION: 60 nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the heart. A. Accelerator B. Phrenic C. Thoracic D. Gastric Answer: A Section 4: Sec Four (61 to 80) Details:Diabetes Practice Questions QUESTION: 61 The risk factors for type 1 diabetes include all of the following except: A. Diet B. Genetic C. Autoimmune D. Environmental Answer: A QUESTION: 62 Type 2 diabetes accounts for approximately what percentage of all cases of diabetes in adults? A. 55%-60% B. 35%-40% C. 90-95% D. 25-30% Answer: C QUESTION: 63 Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include all of the following except: A. Advanced age B. Obesity C. Smoking D. Physical inactivity Answer: C QUESTION: 64 What percentage of women with gestational diabetes is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes following pregnancy? A. 25%-30% B. 5%-10% C. 5% D. 20%-25% Answer: B QUESTION: 65 Untreated diabetes may result in all of the following except: A. Blindness B. Cardiovascular disease C. Kidney disease D. Tinnitus Answer: D QUESTION: 66 Prediabetes is associated with all of the following except: A. Increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke D. Increased risk of developing type 1 diabetes Answer: D QUESTION: 67 Diabetics are at increased risk of heart disease if they also: A. Smoke B. Have high HDL cholesterol levels C. Take aspirin D. Consume a high-fiber diet Answer: A QUESTION: 68 Blood sugar is well controlled when Hemoglobin A1C is: A. Below 7% B. Between 12%-15% C. Less than 180 mg/dL D. Between 90 and 130 mg/dL Answer: A QUESTION: 69 Excessive thirst and volume of very dilute urine may be symptoms of: A. Urinary tract infection B. Diabetes insipidus C. Viral gastroenteritis D. Hypoglycemia Answer: B QUESTION: 70 Among female children and adolescents, the first sign of type 1 diabetes may be: A. Rapid weight gain B. Constipation C. Genital candidiasis D. Insomnia Answer: C QUESTION: 71 Untreated hyperglycemia may lead to all of the following complications except: A. Hyperosmolar syndrome B. Vitiligo C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Coma Answer: B QUESTION: 72 Hyperinsulinemia may be caused by all of the following except: A. An insulinoma B. Nesidioblastosis C. Insulin resistance D. Type 1 diabetes Answer: D QUESTION: 73 Which statement about diabetes is false? A. The US prevalence of diabetes is decreasing B. Diabetes is the seventh leading cause of death in the United States C. Diabetes is the leading cause of blindness among persons age 20 to 74 D. Diabetes is the leading cause of kidney failure Answer: A QUESTION: 74 The lifetime risk of developing diabetes for a male born in 2000 is: A. 1 in 5 B. 1 in 3 C. 2 in 5 D. 1 in 2 Answer: B QUESTION: 75 Which of the following measures does not help to prevent diabetes complications? A. Controlling blood glucose B. Controlling blood pressure and blood lipids C. Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet D. Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease Answer: C QUESTION: 76 Proliferative retinopathy is often treated using: A. Tonometry B. Fluorescein angiogram C. Antibiotics D. Laser surgery Answer: D QUESTION: 77 Which of the following diabetes drugs acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver? A. Sulfonylureas B. Meglitinides C. Biguanides D. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors Answer: C QUESTION: 78 The benefits of using an insulin pump include all of the following except: A. By continuously providing insulin they eliminate the need for injections of insulin B. They simplify management of blood sugar and often improve A1C C. They enable exercise without compensatory carbohydrate consumption D. They help with weight loss Answer: D QUESTION: 79 Which of the following regimens offers the best blood glucose control for persons with type 1 diabetes? A. A single anti-diabetes drugs B. Once daily insulin injections C. A combination of oral anti-diabetic medications D. Three or four injections per day of different types of insulin. Answer: D QUESTION: 80 Diabetic neuropathies are diagnosed using all of the following except: A. Nerve conduction studies or electromyography B. Ultrasound C. Foot examinations D. Minnesota Mutiphasic Personality inventory (MMPI) Answer: D Section 5: Sec Five (80 to 100) Details:Gastrointestinal Practice Questions QUESTION: 81 Which of the following is not a specific element of duodenal ulcers? A. Primarily affects males B. Occasional malignancy C. Can lead to weight gain D. Affects people over 65 Answer: D QUESTION: 82 Which of the following is not a specific element of Hepatitis C? A. Vaccine available B. May be transmitted with sexual contact C. Inflammation of the liver D. Lifetime carrier Answer: A QUESTION: 83 Which of the following Vitamins is not stored in the Liver? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D Answer: C QUESTION: 84 Which of the following is not a contributor to a condition of ascites? A. Elevated levels of aldosterone B. Hypertension C. Low levels of albumin D. Elevated levels of angiotension I Answer: D QUESTION: 85 Which of the following drugs is a histamine blocker and reduces levels of gastric acid? A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) B. Metoclopramide (Reglan) C. Cimetidine (Tagamet) D. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox Answer: C QUESTION: 86 Which of the following drugs is an antacid? A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) B. Metoclopramide (Reglan) C. Cimetidine (Tagamet) D. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox) Answer: D QUESTION: 87 Which of the following drugs is a dopamine antagonist? A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) B. Metoclopramide (Reglan) C. Cimetidine (Tagamet) D. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox) Answer: B QUESTION: 88 Another name for the Whipple procedure is a . A. Cholangiopancreatography B. Pancreatoduodenectomy C. Cholangiogram D. Cholecystogram Answer: B QUESTION: 89 Which of the following microorganisms has been linked to Parotitis? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Schistosoma C. Wucheria bancrofti D. Trypanosoma cruzi Answer: A QUESTION: 90 What type of cell releases somatostatin? A. b cells B. a cells C. plasma cells D. D cells Answer: D QUESTION: 91 What type of cell releases glucagon? A. b cells B. a cells C. plasma cells D. D cells Answer: B QUESTION: 92 What type of cell releases insulin? A. b cells B. a cells C. plasma cells D. D cells Answer: A QUESTION: 93 Another name for the (Billroth II)procedure is a . A. Gastrojejunostomy B. Gastroduodenostomy C. Cholangiogram D. Cholecystogram Answer: A QUESTION: 94 Another name for the (Billroth I)procedure is a . A. Gastrojejunostomy B. Gastroduodenostomy C. Cholangiogram D. Cholecystogram Answer: B QUESTION: 95 Which of the following arteries supplies blood primarily to the Midgut? A. IMA B. Celiac C. SMA D. Axillary Answer: C QUESTION: 96 Which of the following is not considered a right of medication? A. Dose B. Time C. Route D. Limit Answer: D QUESTION: 97 Another name for the Myenteric plexus is the . A. Submucosal plexus B. Branchial plexus C. Auerbach's plexus D. Lumbar plexus Answer: C QUESTION: 98 Which of the following enzyme breaks down starches to maltose. A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Trypsinogen D. Pepsin Answer: A QUESTION: 99 Which of the following is not considered an H2 blocker? A. Ranitidine (Zantac) B. Famotidine (Pepcid) C. Cimetidine (Tagament) D. Sucralfate (Carafate) Answer: D QUESTION: 100 Which of the following drugs aids in gastric emptying? A. Cisapride (Propulsid) B. Ranitidine (Zantac) C. Famotidine (Pepcid) D. Tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) Answer: A Section 6: Sec Six (101 to 120) Details:Gross Anatomy Practice Test Questions QUESTION: 101 Which of the following is not a muscle identified in the rotator cuff? A. Teres Major B. Teres Minor C. Infraspinatus D. Supraspinatus Answer: A QUESTION: 102 Which of the following is not a component of the unhappy triad? A. MCL B. PCL C. ACL D. Medial Meniscus Answer: B QUESTION: 103 Which of the following is not included in the femoral triangle? A. Femoral Artery B. Femoral Nerve C. Femoral Vein D. Femoral Ligament Answer: D QUESTION: 104 Which of the following is not a component of the carotid sheath? A. Cranial nerve X B. Common carotid artery C. Internal jugular vein D. Cranial nerve IX Answer: D QUESTION: 105 Which of the following spinal dermatome level corresponds with the landmark of the inguinal ligament? A. T10 B. L1 C. L3 D. L5 Answer: B QUESTION: 106 Which of the following nerves innervates the deltoid? A. Radial B. Cranial nerve XI C. Subscapular D. Axillary Answer: D QUESTION: 107 Wrist extensors are primarily controlled by what nerve? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Tibial Answer: A QUESTION: 108 Adductor pollicis in the hand is controlled by which nerve? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Tibial Answer: B QUESTION: 109 Which of the following arteries is the most frequent site of coronary artery stenosis? A. LCA B. RCA C. LAD D. PD Answer: C QUESTION: 110 Which of the following nerves is not directly linked to the L2-L3 spinal level? A. Tibial B. Obturator C. Femoral Answer: A QUESTION: 111 Which of the following passageways contain the maxillary nerve and blood vessels? A. Stylomastoid foramin B. Inferior orbital fissure C. Foramen ovale D. Carotid canal Answer: B QUESTION: 112 Which of the following passageways contain the facial nerve and blood vessels? A. Stylomastoid foramin B. Inferior orbital fissure C. Foramen ovale D. Carotid canal Answer: A QUESTION: 113 Which of the following passageways contain the internal carotid artery? A. Foramen rotundum B. Condylar canal C. Foramen ovale D. Carotid canal Answer: D QUESTION: 114 Which of the following is the most common site of disc herniation? A. C6-7 B. T12-L1 C. L4-5 D. L5-S1 Answer: D QUESTION: 115 Which of the following ligaments is not found in the knee? A. Patellar ligament B. Oblique popliteal ligament C. Arcuate popliteal ligament D. Deltoid ligament Answer: D QUESTION: 116 Which of the following nerves innervates the teres minor muscle? A. Subscapular nerve B. Suprascapular nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Pectoral nerve Answer: C QUESTION: 117 Which of the following nerves innervates the pronator teres muscle? A. Radial B. Median C. Musculocutaneous D. Ulnar Answer: B QUESTION: 118 Which of the following supplies the muscles of the perineum? A. Pudendal nerve B. Sciatic nerve C. Femoral nerve D. Tibial nerve Answer: A QUESTION: 119 Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye downward and away from midline? A. Inferior oblique B. Superior oblique C. Inferior rectus D. Superior rectus Answer: B QUESTION: 120 Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye upward and toward midline? A. Inferior oblique B. Superior oblique C. Inferior rectus D. Superior rectus Answer: D Section 7: Sec Seven (121 to 140) Details:Integumentary System Quiz QUESTION: 121 Which of the following is a longitudinal incision through eschar and down to subcutaneous tissue? A. Escharotomy B. Dehiscence C. Transection D. Escharotic's procedure Answer: A QUESTION: 122 Which of the following types of wounds match the criteria: plantar aspect of foot, met heads, heel? A. Arterial B. Plantar C. Venous D. Diabetic Answer: D QUESTION: 123 Which of the following terms matches: water and electrolytes (clear)? A. Exudate B. Transudate C. Serosanguineous D. Induration Answer: B QUESTION: 124 Which of the following edema assessment levels corresponds with: Depression resolving in 10-15 sec? A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +4 Answer: B QUESTION: 125 Which of the following terms matches the statement: to increase the fibrous element; to make hard as in the presence of cellulites? A. Induration B. Necrosis C. Eschar D. Maceration Answer: A QUESTION: 126 Following the rule of nines. What percent would a third degree burn to the entire arm and back cover? A. 28% B. 27% C. 20% D. 18% Answer: B QUESTION: 127 Which of the following matches the defintion: A full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to but not through underlying fascia, infection and/or necrosis may be present? A. Stage I wound B. Stage II wound C. Stage III wound D. Stage IV wound Answer: C QUESTION: 128 Which of the following types of wound is indicated by the definition: relatively painless, decreased with elevation? A. Arterial B. Plantar C. Venous D. Diabetic Answer: B QUESTION: 129 Which of the following matches the definition: The loss of circulatory fluids into interstitial spaces? A. Hypovolemia B. Necrosis C. Eschar D. Maceration Answer: A QUESTION: 130 An emollient has a/an effect. A. Pruritic B. Antipruritic C. Rupture D. Impetigo Answer: A QUESTION: 131 Which of the following is the outermost layer of the epidermis? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum basale Answer: B QUESTION: 132 Which of the following is the deepest layer of the epidermis? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum basale Answer: D QUESTION: 133 Which of the following is beneath the stratum corneum? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum basale Answer: C QUESTION: 134 Vitamin D is created from by skin cells. A. Dehydrocholesterol B. Cholesterol C. Hydrocholesterol D. Hydrodermis Answer: A QUESTION: 135 Which of the following is another name for blackheads associated with acme? A. Pustules B. Sebaceous C. Eccrine D. Comedones Answer: D QUESTION: 136 Which of the following identifies skin from a cadaver used in a burn graft? A. Homograft B. Autograft C. Allograft D. Xenograft Answer: A QUESTION: 137 Which of the following is a disease characterized by hyperactive sebaceous glands and often associated with dandruff? A. Keloid B. Seborrhea C. Eczema D. Urticaria Answer: B QUESTION: 138 Which of the following is a disease characterized by the presence of hives? A. Keloid B. Seborrhea C. Eczema D. Urticaria Answer: D QUESTION: 139 Which of the following is a disease characterized by a skin rash that is blistering and itchy? A. Keloid B. Seborrhea C. Eczema D. Urticaria Answer: C QUESTION: 140 Sebaceous glands secrete . A. Sebum B. Impetigo C. Serous D. Sirius Answer: A Section 8: Sec Eight (141 to 160) Details:Lymphatic System Practice Test QUESTION: 141 Which of the following is not directly associated with the lymphatic pathway? A. Lymphatic trunk B. Collecting duct C. Subclavian vein D. Carotid arteries Answer: D QUESTION: 142 The thymus is responsible for secreting from epithelial cells. A. Thymosin B. Growth hormone C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells Answer: A QUESTION: 143 Which of the following types of cytokines is responsible for the growth and maturation of B cells? A. Interleukin-1 B. Interleukin-2 C. Interleukin-4 D. Interleukin-7 Answer: C QUESTION: 144 Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is the most responsible for promoting allergic reactions? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE Answer: D QUESTION: 145 Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is located on the surface of most B- lymphocytes? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE Answer: C QUESTION: 146 Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE Answer: A QUESTION: 147 Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? A. Graves disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus D. Alzheimer's disease Answer: D QUESTION: 148 T-cell activation requires a/an cell. A. Activation B. Accessory C. Plasma D. Helper Answer: B QUESTION: 149 The thymus is located with the . A. Mediastinum B. Peristinum C. Epistinum D. Endostinum Answer: A QUESTION: 150 Which of the following statements is false regarding the spleen? A. Divided up into lobules B. Similar to a large lymph node C. Contains macrophages D. Limited blood within the lobules Answer: D QUESTION: 151 Which of the following is not considered a central location of lymph nodes? A. Cervical B. Axillary C. Inguinal D. Tibial Answer: D QUESTION: 152 Lymphocytes that reach the thymus become . A. T-cells B. B-cells C. Plasma cells D. Beta cells Answer: A QUESTION: 153 Lymphocytes that do not reach the thymus become . A. T-cells B. B-cells C. Plasma cells D. Beta cells Answer: B QUESTION: 154 Which of the following is associated with a B cell deficiency? A. Job's syndrome B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome Answer: C QUESTION: 155 Which of the following is the autoantibody for systemic lupus? A. Anti-microsomal B. Antinuclear antibodies C. Anti-gliadin D. Anti-histone Answer: B QUESTION: 156 The TB skin test is an example of . A. Delayed hypersensitivity B. Serum sickness C. Cytotoxic reaction D. Arthus reaction Answer: A QUESTION: 157 Which of the following types of cytokines is secreted by macrophages? A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-4 Answer: A QUESTION: 158 Which of the following types of immunoglobulins binds complement? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG Answer: D QUESTION: 159 Which of the following is a key component of cytotoxic T cells? A. CD2 B. CD4 C. CD8 D. CD10 Answer: C QUESTION: 160 Which of the following is not a primary target group of T cells? A. Viruses B. Toxins C. Fungi D. TB Answer: B Section 9: Sec Nine (161 to 180) Details:Urinary System Practice Exam QUESTION: 161 The renal medulla is composed of tissue called . A. Renal pyramids B. Nephrons C. Renal sinus D. Renal pelvis Answer: A QUESTION: 162 Juxtaglomerular cells combine with cells to form the juxtagomerular apparatus in the kidney. A. Macula densa B. Renal pelvis C. Nephron D. Renal sinus Answer: A QUESTION: 163 Which of the following is not in the sequence of proper kidney blood flow? The starting point is the renal artery and the finishing point is the renal vein. A. Arciform artery B. Afferent arteriole C. Interlobar vein D. Arciform vein Answer: C QUESTION: 164 Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine? A. Uric acid B. Urea C. Glucose D. Creatinine Answer: B QUESTION: 165 The primary function of the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney is? A. The active re-absorption of sodium B. The active re-absorption of chloride ions C. The passive re-absorption of potassium D. The passive re-absorption of urea Answer: B QUESTION: 166 The middle layer of the urinary bladder is identified as . A. Mucous coat B. Submucous coat C. Muscular Coat D. Sphincter Coat Answer: B QUESTION: 167 The micturition reflex center is located in the . A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Lumbar plexus D. Sacral plexus Answer: D QUESTION: 168 Which of the following match with the definition: a poor output of urine? A. Oliguria B. Pyruia C. Enuresis D. Diuresis Answer: A QUESTION: 169 Capillary loops located in the medulla are also known as . A. Vasa recta B. Urea collectors C. Trigone D. Macula densa Answer: A QUESTION: 170 The primary function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney is? A. Reabsorption of sodium ions B. Reabsoption of water by osmosis C. Secretion of hydrogen ions D. Secretion of potassium ions Answer: B QUESTION: 171 Which of the following is not considered a part of the male urethra? A. Prostatic B. Membranous C. Vasapore D. Penile Answer: C QUESTION: 172 When glucose if found in urine it is called . A. Glucosuria B. Uremia C. Ureteritis D. Glucose intolerance Answer: A QUESTION: 173 Which of the following is not considered a component of kidney stones? A. Calcium phosphate B. Uric Acid C. Calcium oxalate D. HCO3 Answer: D QUESTION: 174 The one of the functions occurring at the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney is? A. Passive secretion of hydrogen ions B. Passive secretion of potassium ions C. Limited re-absorption of water D. No re-absorption of sodium Answer: B QUESTION: 175 ADH has which of the following effects on the distal convoluted tubule? A. Decrease water re-absorption B. Increase water re-absorption C. Decrease the concentration of urine D. Increase the urine volume Answer: B QUESTION: 176 Which of the following is not associated with the role of the kidneys? A. Release of erythropoietin (hormone) B. Release of renin (enzyme) C. Release of Vitamin E D. Activate Vitamin D Answer: C QUESTION: 177 Each kidney contains approximately nephrons. A. 10 million B. 1 million C. 100,000 D. 10,000 Answer: B QUESTION: 178 The release of Angiotension II causes which of the following to occur? A. Increased filtration rate B. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure C. Increase synthesis of Vitamin E D. Increased release of erythropoietin Answer: A QUESTION: 179 Which of the following is an effect of a diuretic? A. Decreased Cardiac Output B. Increased fluid volume C. Increased sodium re-absorption D. Increased chloride ion re-absorption Answer: A QUESTION: 180 Which of the following is not considered a loop diuretic? A. Bumetadine (BUMEX) B. Furosemide (LASIX) C. Chlorthiazide (DIURIL) D. Ethacrynic Acid (EDECRIN) Answer: C Section 10: Sec Ten (181 to 200) Details:Nervous System Practice Test QUESTION: 181 Oligodendrocytes are located in the . A. PNS B. CNS Answer: B QUESTION: 182 Schwann cells are located in the . A. PNS B. CNS Answer: A QUESTION: 183 Which of the following types of cells is the most common in the CNS? A. Astrocytes B. Oligocytes C. Neurocytes D. Celiac cells Answer: A QUESTION: 184 Which of the following is a regulatory protein in the cytoplasm that helps the processes at the synapse? A. Calmodulin B. Protein kinase C. Ligand D. Gap protein Answer: A QUESTION: 185 Myasthenia gravis is due to receptors being blocked and destroyed by antibodies. A. Epinephrine B. Nicotinic C. Acetylcholine D. Transient Answer: C QUESTION: 186 The primary effect of cocaine on the nervous system is that cocaine blocks the re-uptake of . A. Monoamines B. Transamines C. Catecholamine D. Monoamine oxidase Answer: A QUESTION: 187 Which of the following amino acids can function as a neurotransmitter in the CNS? A. Leucine B. Glutamic acid C. Lysine D. Valine Answer: B QUESTION: 188 Huntington's chorea has been linked with a deficiency in the amino acid . A. Lysine B. GABA C. Valine D. Tyrosine Answer: B QUESTION: 189 Which of the following is not considered a monoamine? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. Adenosine Answer: D QUESTION: 190 Which of the following is not considered a catecholamine? A. Dopamine B. Norepinephrine C. Serotonin D. Epinephrine Answer: C QUESTION: 191 Excessive polarization due to GABA is created due to the opening of _ channels. A. Ca++ B. Cl- C. K+ D. Na+ Answer: B QUESTION: 192 Valium has an effect on to inhibit neural transmission. A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. GABA D. Dopamine Answer: C QUESTION: 193 The drug blocks the reuptake of serotonin into presynaptic axons. A. Prozac B. Valium C. Xanax D. Deprenyl Answer: A QUESTION: 194 Which of the following toxins blocks Sodium Channels? A. Srychnine B. Neostigmine C. Tetrodotoxin D. Curare Answer: C QUESTION: 195 Clostridium botulinum releases this enzyme that destroys peptide bonds. A. Amylase B. Endopeptidases C. Exopeptidases D. Protein kinase Answer: B QUESTION: 196 Multiple sclerosis is a disease that attacks the of neurons in the CNS A. Myelin sheaths B. Axon terminals C. Sodium channels D. Nicotinic receptors Answer: A QUESTION: 197 Which of the following is not considered a type of synapse? A. Dendrodendritic B. Axosomatic C. Axoaxonic D. Denoaxonic Answer: D QUESTION: 198 The progression of a nerve impulse with the nodes of Ranvier is called . A. Saltatory conduction B. Transmission C. Unmyelinated conduction D. Relative conduction Answer: A QUESTION: 199 Supporting cells located within the CNS are collectively called _. A. Neuroglia B. Astrocytes C. Perikaryon D. Satellite cells Answer: A QUESTION: 200 Which of the following types of cells line the ventricles and spinal cord? A. Astrocytes B. Schwann cells C. Ependymal cells D. Oligodendrocytes Answer: C Section 11: Sec Eleven (201 to 220) Details:Neuroanatomy Quiz QUESTION: 201 Which of the following cranial nerves is not directly related to the eye? A. II B. III C. VI D. VII Answer: D QUESTION: 202 Which of the following cranial nerves can cause movement of trapezius muscle? A. IV B. VII C. X D. XI Answer: D QUESTION: 203 Which of the following cranial nerves causes sensation to anterior 2/3 of the tongue? A. IV B. VII C. X D. XI Answer: B QUESTION: 204 Which of the following cranial nerves can be directly linked to respiratory and cardiac dysfunction? A. IV B. VII C. X D. XI Answer: C QUESTION: 205 Which of the following cranial nerves can be directly linked to ptosis? A. III B. IV C. V D. VI Answer: A QUESTION: 206 Which of the following cranial nerves can be directly linked to diplopia? A. III B. IV C. V D. VI Answer: B QUESTION: 207 Which of the following is another name for cranial nerve IX? A. Trochlear B. Vestibulocochlear C. Hypoglossal D. Glosspharyngeal Answer: D QUESTION: 208 Athetosis type movements are often identified with a lesion. A. Midbrain B. Basal ganglia C. Subthalamic D. Thalamus Answer: B QUESTION: 209 Changes in personality and judgment are often associated with a lesion. A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Broca's area D. Wernicke's area Answer: A QUESTION: 210 Changes in motor aphasia are often associated with a lesion. A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Broca's area D. Wernicke's area Answer: C QUESTION: 211 Changes in sensory aphasia are often associated with a lesion. A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Broca's area D. Wernicke's area Answer: D QUESTION: 212 Which of the following diseases has not been directly linked with Bell's palsy? A. AIDS B. Diabetes C. Lyme disease D. Alzheimer's disease Answer: D QUESTION: 213 Which of the following cervical nerve roots best corresponds with activation of the triceps muscle? A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. T2 Answer: C QUESTION: 214 The upper and middle trunks of the brachial plexus combine to form the _ cord. A. Lateral B. Posterior C. Medial D. Anterior Answer: A QUESTION: 215 The upper, middle, and lower trunks of the brachial plexus combine to form the cord. A. Lateral B. Posterior C. Medial D. Anterior Answer: B QUESTION: 216 The lower trunk of the brachial plexus forms the cord. A. Lateral B. Posterior C. Medial D. Anterior Answer: C QUESTION: 217 Jerky and sudden random movements are often associated with a lesion. A. Midbrain B. Basal ganglia C. Subthalamic D. Thalamus Answer: B QUESTION: 218 Which of the following arteries supplies Broca's area? A. ACA B. MCA C. PCA D. Lateral striate Answer: B QUESTION: 219 Which of the following arteries if ruptured can cause an oculomotor palsy? A. ACA B. MCA C. PCA D. Lateral striate Answer: C QUESTION: 220 Which of the following is not true concerning Brown-Sequard syndrome? A. Contralateral spinothalamic deficits B. Ipsilateral spinothalamic deficits C. Ipsilateral dorsal column deficits D. Ipsilateral pyramidal tract deficits Answer: B Section 12: Sec Twelve (221 to 240) Details:Syndrome Practice Test QUESTION: 221 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: A failure of neutrophils to generate an immune response and lab values indicate elevated IgE levels? A. Job's syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome Answer: A QUESTION: 222 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: right sided valvular disease and diarrhea? A. Job's syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome Answer: C QUESTION: 223 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: lab values indicate elevated IgA levels and presence of thrombocytopenia? A. Job's syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome Answer: B QUESTION: 224 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: presence of arthritis and commonly found in males? A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Kartagener's syndrome D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Answer: A QUESTION: 225 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: immotile sperm and presence of reoccurring sinusitis? A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Kartagener's syndrome D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Answer: C QUESTION: 226 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: presence of arthritis, xerophthalmia and commonly found in females? A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Kartagener's syndrome D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Answer: B QUESTION: 227 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: excessive movement occurring at joints and loose skin? A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Kartagener's syndrome D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Answer: D QUESTION: 228 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: hematuria, glomerulonephritis and pulmonary dysfunction? A. Brown-Sequard syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Angelman's syndrome D. Goodpasture's syndrome Answer: D QUESTION: 229 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: presence of ipsilateral motor loss and contralateral spinothalmic tract damage? A. Brown-Sequard syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Angelman's syndrome D. Goodpasture's syndrome Answer: A QUESTION: 230 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: C8/T1 nerve involvement and weakness in hand muscles? A. Brown-Sequard syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Angelman's syndrome D. Goodpasture's syndrome Answer: B QUESTION: 231 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: maternal genetic phenotype syndrome? A. Brown-Sequard syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Angelman's syndrome D. Goodpasture's syndrome Answer: C QUESTION: 232 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: Abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th (Pharyngeal pouches)? A. Acute coronary syndrome B. ARDS C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. DiGeorge's syndrome Answer: D QUESTION: 233 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: leads to an increased risk of stroke? A. Acute coronary syndrome B. ARDS C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. DiGeorge's syndrome Answer: A QUESTION: 234 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatic vein occulsions? A. Acute coronary syndrome B. ARDS C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. DiGeorge's syndrome Answer: C QUESTION: 235 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: increased pulmonary permeability and fluid entering the lung space? A. Acute coronary syndrome B. ARDS C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. DiGeorge's syndrome Answer: B QUESTION: 236 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: can be caused by high doses of Tetracyclines? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Fanconi's syndrome C. Edward's syndrome D. Cri-du-chat syndrome Answer: B QUESTION: 237 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: caused by poor liver excretion? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Fanconi's syndrome C. Edward's syndrome D. Cri-du-chat syndrome Answer: A QUESTION: 238 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: chromosomal deficit of #5? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Fanconi's syndrome C. Edward's syndrome D. Cri-du-chat syndrome Answer: D QUESTION: 239 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: chromosomal deficit of #18? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Fanconi's syndrome C. Edward's syndrome D. Cri-du-chat syndrome Answer: C QUESTION: 240 Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: chromosomal deficit of #13? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Patau's syndrome C. Edward's syndrome D. Down syndrome Answer: B Section 13: Sec Thirteen (241 to 260) Details:Pathology Practice Questions QUESTION: 241 Which of the following is not associated with Wilson's disease? A. Asterixis B. Basal ganglia C. Cirrhois D. Pancreatitis Answer: D QUESTION: 242 Which of the following is not associated with Reye's syndrome? A. Coma B. Hyperglycemia C. Influenza B D. Fatty liver tissue Answer: B QUESTION: 243 Emphysema is not linked to which of the following terms? A. Blue Bloater B. Dyspnea C. Liver cirrhosis D. Tachycardia Answer: A QUESTION: 244 Guillian-Barre' is not linked to which of the following statements? A. Infections often present. B. Greater initial upper extremity deficits C. Increased CSF protein levels D. Hypertension Answer: B QUESTION: 245 Pancoast's tumor is not linked to which of the following statements? A. Horner's syndrome B. Anhidrosis C. Cervical plexus involvement D. Arthritis Answer: D QUESTION: 246 Wermer's syndrome is considered a? A. MEN type I B. MEN type II C. MEN type III D. MEN type IV Answer: A QUESTION: 247 Which of the following is not a cause of acute pancreatitis? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Ethanol C. Steroids D. Hypotension Answer: D QUESTION: 248 Which of the following is not directly related with Alzheimer's disease? A. Senile plaques B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tangles D. Dementia Answer: B QUESTION: 249 Which of the following is not directly related with Horner's syndrome? A. Miosis B. Malaise C. Ptosis D. Anhidrosis Answer: B QUESTION: 250 Which of the following is not directly related with Goodpasture's syndrome? A. Hematuria B. Anemia C. Adrenal atrophy D. Hemoptysis Answer: C QUESTION: 251 Which of the following is not directly related with Hasimoto's thyroiditis? A. Hypothyroidism B. Slow onset C. Neuropathy D. Autoimmune disease Answer: C QUESTION: 252 Which of the following is not a causative agent with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion? A. Pulmonary disorders B. TBI C. Drug induced D. HIV Answer: D QUESTION: 253 Which of the following is not a type of embolus? A. Air B. Bacteria C. Tumor D. Viral Answer: D QUESTION: 254 Which of the following is not directly related with Buerger's disease? A. Claudication B. Thromboangitis obliterans C. Night sweats D. Poor tolerance of cold Answer: C QUESTION: 255 Which of the following is not directly related with Kawasaki disease? A. Lymphadenitis B. Fever C. Arthritis D. Conjunctiva Answer: C QUESTION: 256 Which of the following is not directly related with Pericarditis? A. Conjunctiva B. SLE C. Uremia D. Rheumatic fever Answer: A QUESTION: 257 Which of the following is not directly related with pheochromocytoma? A. Pallor B. Perspiration C. Decreased blood pressure D. Headaches Answer: C QUESTION: 258 Which of the following is not directly related with Sarcoidosis? A. Interstitial fibrosis B. Elevated levels of ACE C. RA D. Obstructive lung disease Answer: D QUESTION: 259 Which of the following is not a risk factor for hypertension? A. Genetics B. Obesity C. Youth D. Smoking Answer: C QUESTION: 260 Which of the following is not a characteristic of MS? A. Nystagmus B. Elevated IgE levels C. Optic neuritis D. Tremors Answer: B Section 14: Sec Fourteen (261 to 280) Details:Pharmacology Practice Test 1 QUESTION: 261 Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)? A. Increased pulse B. Urinary retention C. Constipation D. Mydriasis Answer: B QUESTION: 262 Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)? A. Rash B. Angioedema C. Cough D. Congestion Answer: D QUESTION: 263 Which of the following is not a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)? A. Nausea B. Flush appearance C. Vertigo D. Sexual dysfunction Answer: D QUESTION: 264 Which of the following is not a side effect of the Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)? A. Hypertension B. Asthma C. Dry oral cavity D. Lethargic behavior Answer: B QUESTION: 265 Which of the following is not a side effect of the Dieuretics (Loop dieuretics)? A. Alkalosis B. Nausea C. Hypotension D. Potassium deficits Answer: B QUESTION: 266 Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Isoflurane)? A. Elevated lipid levels B. Nausea C. Increased blood flow to the brain. D. Decreased respiratory function Answer: A QUESTION: 267 Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Midazolam)? A. Amnesia B. Decreased respiratory function C. Anesthetic D. Dizziness Answer: D QUESTION: 268 Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Clozapine)? A. Agranulocytosis B. Antipsychotic C. Used for Schizophrenia D. Increased appetite Answer: D QUESTION: 269 Which of the following is not treated with (Epinephrine)? A. Renal disease B. Asthma C. Hypotension D. Glaucoma Answer: A QUESTION: 270 Which of the following is not treated with (Ephedrine)? A. COPD B. Hypotension C. Congestion D. Incontinence Answer: A QUESTION: 271 Which of the following are not treated with Barbiturates? A. Seizures B. Hypotension C. Insomnia D. Anxiety Answer: B QUESTION: 272 Which of the following are not treated with opoid analgesics like (dextromethorphan and methadone)? A. Pulmonary Edema B. Cough suppression C. Sedation D. Pain Answer: C QUESTION: 273 Which of the following are not treated with Hydrochlorothiazide? A. CHF B. HTN C. Nephritis D. Hypercalciuria Answer: C QUESTION: 274 Which of the following are not treated with Nifedipine? A. Angina B. Arrhythmias C. Htn D. Fluid retention Answer: D QUESTION: 275 Which of the following are not treated with Methotrexate? A. Sarcomas B. Leukemias C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Rheumatic fever Answer: D QUESTION: 276 Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone? A. Cushing's disease B. Testicular cancer C. Lympthomas D. Chronic leukemias Answer: B QUESTION: 277 Which of the following are not treated with Dexamethasone? A. Inflammation B. Asthma C. Addison's disease D. Wilson's disease Answer: D QUESTION: 278 Which of the following are not treated with Lansoprazole? A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Gastritis C. Hypertension D. Reflux Answer: C QUESTION: 279 Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin? A. Protamine B. Methylene blue C. N-acetylcysteine D. Glucagon Answer: A QUESTION: 280 Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Copper? A. Glucagon B. Aminocaproic acid C. Atropine D. Penicillamine Answer: D Section 15: Sec Fifteen (281 to 300) Details:Pharmacology Practice Test 2 QUESTION: 281 Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines? A. Flumazenil B. Methylene blue C. Deferoxamine D. Alkalinize urine Answer: A QUESTION: 282 Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead? A. Naloxone B. Nitrite C. CaEDTA D. Dialysis Answer: C QUESTION: 283 Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Blood D. Heart Answer: B QUESTION: 284 Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases? A. Gastritis B. Peptic Ulcers C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Thalamus hypertrophy Answer: D QUESTION: 285 Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism? A. Valproic acid B. Quinidine C. Isoniazid D. Ethosuximide Answer: B QUESTION: 286 Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis? A. Valproic acid B. Quinidine C. Isoniazid D. Ethosuximide Answer: C QUESTION: 287 Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome? A. Valproic acid B. Quinidine C. Isoniazid D. Ethosuximide Answer: D QUESTION: 288 Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction? A. Digitalis B. Niacin C. Tetracycline D. Fluoroquinolones Answer: D QUESTION: 289 A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a _ . A. H B. ACE inhibitor C. Antifungal D. Beta agonist Answer: B QUESTION: 290 A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a . A. H B. ACE inhibitor C. Antifungal D. Beta agonist Answer: C QUESTION: 291 A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a . A. Antidepressant B. Protease inhibitor C. Beta antagonist D. H2 antagonist Answer: D QUESTION: 292 A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a . A. Antidepressant B. Protease inhibitor C. Beta antagonist D. H2 antagonist Answer: B QUESTION: 293 Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity? A. Digitalis B. Niacin C. Tetracycline D. Fluoroquinolones Answer: C QUESTION: 294 Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone? A. Cataracts B. Hypotension C. Psychosis D. Acne Answer: B QUESTION: 295 Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol? A. CHF B. Tachycardia C. AV block D. Sedative appearance Answer: B QUESTION: 296 Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker? A. Mexiletine B. Aminodarone C. Quinidine D. Procainamide Answer: B QUESTION: 297 Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker? A. Propafenone B. Disopyramide C. Aminodarone D. Quinidine Answer: A QUESTION: 298 Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the found in the kidney. A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting duct D. Distal convoluted tubule Answer: D QUESTION: 299 Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin? A. Headaches B. Tachycardia C. Dizziness D. Projectile vomiting Answer: D QUESTION: 300 Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen? A. Nausea B. Renal dysfunction C. Anemia D. Muscle wasting Answer: D Section 16: Sec Sixteen (301 to 320) Details:Physiology Practice Questions QUESTION: 301 Which of the following hormones causes increased atrial pressure and decreases sodium reabsorption in the kidneys? A. Atrial natriuretic peptide B. PTH C. Aldosterone D. Vasopressin Answer: A QUESTION: 302 Angiotensin I is changed by which of the following into Angiotensin II? A. ACE B. AVT C. Pepsin D. Adenosine Answer: A QUESTION: 303 Which of the following is not a cause of peripheral edema? A. Increased capillary permeability B. Reduced levels of plasma proteins C. Heart failure D. Decreased capillary output Answer: D QUESTION: 304 Which of the following during an electrocardiogram is associated with hypokalemia? A. QRS complex B. U wave C. PR segment D. ST segment Answer: B QUESTION: 305 Which of the following is not generally associated with a 2nd degree (Mobitz Type 1) AV block? A. Usually asymptomatic B. Nonsequential (P wave then QRS complex) C. Increased PR segment/interval D. 70% Fatal Answer: D QUESTION: 306 An S3 heart sound is often associated with? A. CHF B. COPD C. Atrial fib. D. Ventricular fib. Answer: A QUESTION: 307 Mean arterial pressure is the product of: A. TPR x SV B. TPR x CO C. CO/SV D. SV/EDV Answer: B QUESTION: 308 During phase 3 of the myocardial action potential which ion is moving the most? A. K+ B. Ca+ C. Na+ D. Ca2+ Answer: A QUESTION: 309 An ejection fraction can be calculated as: A. SV/TPR B. CO/TPR C. SV/EDV D. CO/EDV Answer: C QUESTION: 310 Which of the following is not a bradykinin effect? A. Elevated capillary permeability B. Elevated pain levels C. Elevated vasodilation response D. Elevated prothrombin secretion Answer: D QUESTION: 311 PAH is secreted in which of the following locations? A. Distal tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting tubule D. Proximal tubule Answer: D QUESTION: 312 Which of the following is not an anterior pituitary gland secretion? A. TSH B. GH C. Vasopressin D. Prolactin Answer: C QUESTION: 313 Thyroid Hormone T3 does not have which of the following functions? A. Stimulate bone development and growth B. Create beta-adrenergic responses C. Cause brain development D. Decrease calcium re-absorption Answer: D QUESTION: 314 Hypercalemia has not been linked with which of the following? A. Paget's disease B. Aldosterone C. Sarcoidosis D. Malignancy Answer: B QUESTION: 315 Which of the following does not require the pre-cursor progesterone? A. Cortisol B. Testosterone C. ACTH D. Aldosterone Answer: C QUESTION: 316 Which of the following is the source cell for the secretion Pepsinogen? A. Chief cell B. Plasma cell C. G cell D. Parietal cell Answer: A QUESTION: 317 Which of the following is the primary activator of zymogen secretion? A. Somatostatin B. Secretin C. Acetylcholine D. Gastrin Answer: C QUESTION: 318 Which of the following is not a function of Angiotensin II? A. Causes release of aldosterone B. Causes vasodilation C. Causes increased posterior pituitary activation D. Elevates blood pressure Answer: B QUESTION: 319 Which of the following is not a function of Progesterone? A. Causes increased body temperature. B. Causes some smooth muscle relaxation. C. Causes increased spiral artery growth D. Causes activation of FSH Answer: D QUESTION: 320 Which of the following is not a function of Estrogen? A. Causes breast growth. B. Causes inhibition of FSH C. Increased follicle development D. Decreased overall transport proteins Answer: D Section 17: Sec Seventeen (321 to 340) Details:Respiration Practice Test QUESTION: 321 Which of the following conditions correlate with the following information: High pH High HCO3 High BE Neutral pCO2 A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis Answer: D QUESTION: 322 Which of the following conditions correlate with the following information: High pH Neutral HCO3 Neutral BE Low pCO2 A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis Answer: A QUESTION: 323 Which of the following conditions correlate with the following information: Low pH Low HCO3 Low BE Neutral pCO2 A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis Answer: C QUESTION: 324 Which of the following information corresponds with a negative TB test? A. 0-4 mm induration at 48 hours B. 0-5 mm induration at 48 hours C. 0-6 mm induration at 48 hours D. 0-7 mm induration at 48 hours Answer: A QUESTION: 325 Which of the following is the most common type of lung cancer? A. Large cell B. Adenocarcinoma C. Oat cell D. Squamous cell Answer: D QUESTION: 326 What cell type secrets surfactant? A. Plasma cell B. Type I alveolar cell C. Type II alveolar cell D. Type III alveolar cell Answer: C QUESTION: 327 Which of the following pulmonary term correlates with the definition: noted obstruction of the trachea or larynx. A. Rhonchi B. Stridor C. Wheezes D. Vesicular Answer: B QUESTION: 328 Normal values for pCO2 are considered: A. 20-40 mm Hg B. 25-30 mm Hg C. 30-40 mm Hg D. 35-45 mm Hg Answer: D QUESTION: 329 Normal values for HCO3 are considered: A. 15-30 mEq/L B. 20-35 mEq/L C. 22-26 mEq/L D. 24-29 mEq/L Answer: C QUESTION: 330 Pneumoncystis carinii infections are commonly treated with which of the following medications? A. Pentamidine B. Allopurinol C. Iorazepam D. Chlorpropamide Answer: A QUESTION: 331 Which of the following is not generally caused by COPD? A. Pneumonia B. Right sided heart failure C. Headaches D. Cor pulmonale Answer: C QUESTION: 332 Which of the following is not considered a COPD related disease? A. Bronchiectasis B. Bronchial asthma C. Bronchitis D. Bronchial hypotension Answer: D QUESTION: 333 Which of the following pulmonary term correlates with the definition: bronchospasm of the bronchial walls? A. Wheezes B. Rhonchi C. Stridor D. Pleural Rub Answer: A QUESTION: 334 Which of the following is considered an expectorant? A. Acetylcysteine B. Guaifenesin C. Theophylline D. Epinephrine HCL Answer: B QUESTION: 335 Which of the following is considered a bronchodilator? A. Acetylcysteine B. Guaifenesin C. Theophylline D. Epinephrine HCL Answer: D QUESTION: 336 Which of the following is considered a xanthine? A. Acetylcysteine B. Guaifenesin C. Theophylline D. Epinephrine HCL Answer: C QUESTION: 337 Which of the following is considered a mucolytic? A. Acetylcysteine B. Guaifenesin C. Theophylline D. Epinephrine HCL Answer: A QUESTION: 338 Which of the following matches the definition: The volume of air that can be inhaled following exhalation of tidal volume? A. Expiratory reserve volume B. Inspiratory capacity C. Inspiratory reserve volume D. Vital capacity Answer: B QUESTION: 339 Which of the following matches the definition: The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after taking the deepest breath possible? A. Expiratory reserve volume B. Inspiratory capacity C. Inspiratory reserve volume D. Vital capacity Answer: D QUESTION: 340 The respiratory center is located in the and _ . A. Midbrain and pons B. Pons and Medulla oblongata C. Midbrain and Medulla oblongata D. Pons and Hypothalamus Answer: B Section 18: Sec Eighteen (341 to 345) Details:Critical Care Nursing Adult Exam QUESTION: 341 Which of the following conditions would likely have periods of significant inappropriate Bradycardia? A. Sick sinus syndrome B. SVT C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation Answer: A QUESTION: 34