Nr 511 quiz 5 - Week 5 Quiz
›ntiaI Diagnosis & Primary Care Practicum (Chamberlain Univ
, Quiz week 5 NR 511
A 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th percentile) boy
reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent
trauma but admits to frequent “horseplay” with his friends. The pain has progressively
worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all on his left leg. His current
complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain and tenderness. His
examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman, and McMurray tests; left
hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction; and external hip rotation with knee
flexion. Based on the above scenario, the clinician should suspect which of the
following?
Osgood-Schlatter disease.
A left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
A left meniscal tear.
SCFE is a displacement of the femoral head relative to the femoral neck that
occurs through the physis (growth plate) of the femur. The vast majority of
clients with this condition are obese, as the added weight increases shear
stress across the physis. The mean age at diagnosis is 12 years for females
and 13.5 years for males. Surgery is often required via in situ pin fixation
(single screw) to stabilize the growth plate to prevent further slippage and
avoid complications.
Question 2
pts
A 16-year-old male patient presents to the clinic after sustaining a football injury
to his right knee. The clinician elicits a positive anterior/posterior drawer sign. This
test indicates an injury to the ?
Collateral ligament.
Medial meniscus.
Lateral meniscus.
Cruciate ligament.
Positive anterior and posterior drawer signs indicate injury to the anterior
cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament, respectively. The drawer
and Lachman tests are utilized to assess for cruciate ligament injury.
Question 3
1 1 1 pts
A conservative approach is recommended in the initial approach to the management
of low back pain. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment plan for
a 32-year-old obese male (BMI 33) diagnosed with an acute lumbar strain?
Epidural Steroid Injections (ESI).
Surgery.
Bedrest.
›ntiaI Diagnosis & Primary Care Practicum (Chamberlain Univ
, Quiz week 5 NR 511
A 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th percentile) boy
reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent
trauma but admits to frequent “horseplay” with his friends. The pain has progressively
worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all on his left leg. His current
complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain and tenderness. His
examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman, and McMurray tests; left
hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction; and external hip rotation with knee
flexion. Based on the above scenario, the clinician should suspect which of the
following?
Osgood-Schlatter disease.
A left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
A left meniscal tear.
SCFE is a displacement of the femoral head relative to the femoral neck that
occurs through the physis (growth plate) of the femur. The vast majority of
clients with this condition are obese, as the added weight increases shear
stress across the physis. The mean age at diagnosis is 12 years for females
and 13.5 years for males. Surgery is often required via in situ pin fixation
(single screw) to stabilize the growth plate to prevent further slippage and
avoid complications.
Question 2
pts
A 16-year-old male patient presents to the clinic after sustaining a football injury
to his right knee. The clinician elicits a positive anterior/posterior drawer sign. This
test indicates an injury to the ?
Collateral ligament.
Medial meniscus.
Lateral meniscus.
Cruciate ligament.
Positive anterior and posterior drawer signs indicate injury to the anterior
cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament, respectively. The drawer
and Lachman tests are utilized to assess for cruciate ligament injury.
Question 3
1 1 1 pts
A conservative approach is recommended in the initial approach to the management
of low back pain. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment plan for
a 32-year-old obese male (BMI 33) diagnosed with an acute lumbar strain?
Epidural Steroid Injections (ESI).
Surgery.
Bedrest.
