EDUC 500/EDSP 300 PRACTICE FUTURED EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% SOLVED AND COMPLETE EXAM STUDY GUIDE

EDUC 500/EDSP 300 PRACTICE FUTURED EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% SOLVED AND COMPLETE EXAM STUDY GUIDE EDSP 300 Study Guide Chapter 1 1. Referring to individuals with special needs from a people-first perspective reflects a: a. focus on the disability, not the person. b. belief that teachers must only use politically correct language. c. change in word order and nothing more. d. belief that all our students have the potential to learn and are people first and foremost. 2. The largest group of diverse learners is students: a. from culturally diverse backgrounds. b. from linguistically diverse backgrounds. c. with disabilities. d. who are not American citizens. 3. Which of the following students would NOT be considered to have a disability, as defined by IDEA 2004? a. A student at-risk for failing b. A student with emotional disturbances c. A student with autism d. A student with specific learning disabilities 4. Which of the following would NOT fall under the Other Health Impairment category? a. Diabetes b. Leukemia c. Schizophrenia d. ADHD 5. Students who are gifted and talented: a. fall under the disabled category. b. do not require specialized instruction. c. are considered exceptional. d. are included in federal special education legislation. 6. Any child who is exposed to experiences such as domestic violence, substance abuse, child abuse, poverty, and/or homelessness: a. will become an at-risk student in time. b. is an at-risk student. c. has an increased likelihood of becoming an at-risk student. d. has the same chance of becoming an at-risk student as a child who was not exposed to such experiences. 7. A continuum or cascade of service delivery: a. is a new concept introduced by IDEA in 1990. b. is based on the concept that the effective delivery of special education services requires a variety of settings to meet the unique needs of each learner at a given point in time. c. is based on the concept that all special education services, regardless of the level of intensity, should be provided in the general education classroom. d. is based on the concept that the resource room is the best setting for students with special needs. 8. Universal Design for Learning (UDL): a. was originally developed as a scientific concept to describe the universality of chemical reactions. b. is synonymous with the universal inclusion of students with disabilities, both social and academic, with non-disabled peers. ??? c. is seen as a vehicle for ensuring that teachers are able to meet the needs of students who exhibit widely varying learning requirements in inclusive settings. d. implies one optimal solution for everyone. 9. All of the following statements regarding special education litigation and legislation are true, EXCEPT: a. Litigation often led to legislation, which in turn led to more litigation to interpret and clarify the law. b. Due to litigation, the past 30 years have seen a significant decrease in the educational benefits available to individuals with special educational needs. c. Before the late 1950s, the federal government paid little attention to individuals with special needs. d. Opportunities for individuals with special needs have greatly increased over the past 30 years with the dramatic growth in special education legislation. 10. Which of the following court cases found that the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment was violated by ‘tracking’ students based on the basis of biased, standardized tests? a. Hobson v. Hansen b. Diana v. State Board of Education ??? Pretty sure c. Pennsylvania Association for Retarded Children v. Commonwealth of Pennsylvania d. Larry P. v. Riles 11. The landmark Education for All Handicapped Children Act (PL 94-142), later to be reauthorized as the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), mandated: a. transition services for students with disabilities. b. a free and appropriate public education for all students with disabilities. c. access to public transportation for students with disabilities. d. co-teaching between special and general educators. 12. Which of the following is not a major principle enshrined in PL 94-142, the Education for All Handicapped Children Act? a. FAPE b. IEP c. LRE d. ADA 13. Although the Education for All Handicapped Children Act (PL 94-142) did not require services to preschool children with disabilities, it did: a. mandate services for young homeschooled children. b. offer each state a financial grant incentive to serve preschool children with disabilities. c. mandate services for children from the age of 3 to 23. d. offer a financial incentive grant to parents to serve preschool children with disabilities. 14. Title I of PL 99-457 created the Handicapped Infants and Toddlers Program (Part H), which: a. applied to children from birth to age 5, who had developmental disabilities. GUESSSSSS b. mandated all states to fully implement the law. c. required a multidisciplinary assessment of all eligible children and families and a written individualized family service plan (IFSP). d. mandated that each eligible infant and toddler be reevaluated every two years. 15. The standards-based reform movement resulted in: a. more challenging academic standards and less stringent graduation requirements. b. many state departments of education accepting teachers with a degree outside of education, but experience in successfully running their own businesses. c. less accountability for school districts, administrators, and teachers. d. the No Child Left Behind Act (PL 107-110), with the aim of further aligning special education and general education into a unified delivery system to serve all students. 16. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004: a. significantly affects students, but has little effect on the professional lives of general and special education teachers. b. has not affected state- and district-wide assessment policies for children with disabilities. c. resulted in changes to the IEP, such as short-term objectives and benchmarks no longer being required, except for students who are evaluated by means of alternative assessments. d. continues to require new IEPs to be developed every year for every student who receives special education services. 17. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004: a. requires school districts to determine eligibility for special education services within six months after parent permission for an evaluation is received. b. states that a reevaluation must occur at least once every two years, unless the school and parent agree that a reevaluation is not necessary. c. holds school districts responsible for providing a free and appropriate public education for students even if a parent refuses to give consent for special education services. d. requires all students take part in all state- and district-wide assessments with accommodations or alternative assessments if necessary, as stipulated in the student’s IEP. 18. Universal design in the context of instructional materials: a. provides access to the curriculum for all students. b. cannot begin to address the needs of diverse learners. c. means creating a different curriculum and materials for each student based upon their disability. d. modifies work based upon the needs of students with disabilities as stated in their IEP. Chapter 2 19. Following passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) in 1990: a. many existing schools were retrofitted to meet the ADA requirements. b. new buildings were designed to meet ADA requirements, but existing ones were exempt. c. discrimination against individuals with disabilities ended. d. legislators worked to amend the law to include the private sector. 20. The term universal design originally came from the field of: a. medicine. b. architecture. c. education. d. business. 21. Ron Mace, who created the term universal design, promoted the idea that if an accessible design is created and implemented right from the start: a. the ADA would become unnecessary and could be repealed. b. no one would need to use assistive technology. c. individuals who use wheelchairs would no longer need assistance. d. time and money would be saved in the long run, and individuals with disabilities would benefit. 22. When a water fountain is installed in a building at a height that can be accessed by persons of all ages, including those who may use a wheelchair, walker, etc., they have adhered to which of the seven principles of universal design? a. Equitable use b. Complex use c. Perceptible information d. Tolerance for individuals with disabilities 23. Principles of universal design can benefit students with a wide variety of needs in the classroom. For example, recorded books designed for students who are blind may also benefit students who: a. are struggling readers. b. have difficulty attending to what they read. c. “read” while they are outside walking or riding their bikes. d. All of the answer choices are correct. 24. UDL research has suggested that _________ formats increase our options to access the text. a. paper and pencil b. digital c. colorful print d. large print 25. In order to think about how the brain works, CAST suggests using the following three-part framework. a. Recognition, strategic, and effective systems b. Recognition, random, and affective systems c. Recognition, strategic, and affective systems d. Recognition, strategic, and objective systems 26. If we visualize the brain as a filing cabinet, the information stored there must first be received through ____________ before we can file it. a. an affective channel b. an intellectual channel c. the frontal lobe d. a sensory channel 27. The part of CAST’s three-part framework for understanding how the brain works, referred to as the what of learning, is: a. the strategic system. b. the recognition system. c. the affective system. d. metacognition. 28. __________ systems are located in the frontal lobes in the anterior of the brain and are used to construct meaning as well as sort and classify information that is received. a. Recognition b. Sensory c. Affective d. Strategic 29. Which of the following is NOT an example of a student putting their brain’s strategic system into practice? a. A student giving a speech b. A student recalling how proud his grandmother was when he made the Honor Roll last year c. A student solving a geometry problem d. A quarterback completing a pass at the Friday night game 30. The part of CAST’s three-part framework for understanding how the brain works referred to as the how of learning is the _______________system. a. affective b. recognitio n c. reflective d. strategic 31. The work of Vygotsky not only supports CAST’s framework on how the brain works, but his zone of __________ theory has relevance to universal design as well. a. learning development b. proximal development c. developmental learning d. approximate learning 32. According to Vygotsky, the skilled teacher will find a level at which to teach a child that is not too hard, nor too easy, but is just right for engaging the student in meaningful learning. When students are engaged within this zone, motivation tends to: a. decrease. b. increase. c. remain constant. d. vanish. 33. When an individual can start to think abstractly and is capable of reasoning and asking “what if” type questions, Piaget would say they are in the _____________ stage of development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 34. Cognitive psychologist _____________ is credited with the idea of a spiral curriculum, which provides the basic ideas of a subject that students revisit frequently and use as a springboard for more advanced learning. a. Howard Gardner b. Lev Vygotsky c. Jerome Bruner d. Benjamin Bloom 35. When Bloom's taxonomy is applied within universally designed learning environments, a. students must sequentially go through each stage of Bloom’s taxonomy. b. most students will benefit from working on only one level, particularly high achieving students. c. only students at the highest stages of development will have the ability to solve problems. d. students do not need to progress sequentially from the lowest to highest stage. 36. The theory of multiple intelligences was developed by: a. Vygotsky. b. Piaget. c. Bruner. d. Gardner. 37. Recent studies suggest that as many as 90% of students today are likely to have a learning preference for the _________ mode, indicating that the percentage of students with this learning preference has nearly doubled over the past 10 years. a. auditory b. kinesthetic c. visual d. tactile 38. Proponents of using learning preferences as assessment and teaching tools suggest that students who tend to be logical thinkers and work best in a sequential manner are more _________ learners. a. tactilekinesthetic b. visual-verbal c. auditory-verbal d. visual-nonverbal 39. The three essential qualities of UDL include all of the following EXCEPT multiple means of: a. representation. b. engagement. c. expression. d. reflection. 40. The teacher who provides an outline of the lecture in advance and uses PowerPoint during the lecture has infused multiple means of ___________________ into the instruction. a. representation b. engagement c. expression d. reflection 41. Offering students alternative approaches to responding to information they receive encourages them to think about their thinking, or to engage in _________________. a. meta-analysis b. multimedia c. metacognition d. multiplication 42. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic components of differentiated instruction? a. Content or what the teacher plans to teach b. Process or how the students will learn the content/skills c. Product or how the students will be assessed d. Research or what evidence exists to validate the lesson planning 43. Universal Design for Learning (UDL): a. results in the curriculum being “watered down.” b. is an instructional source that offers flexibility to maximize the number of students who successfully engage in meaningful learning in any course of study. c. only holds the brightest students to a the same high standard. d. offers a “one size fits all” approach to instruction and evaluation. Chapter 3 44. All of the following illustrate the presence of interindividual difference, EXCEPT: a. the counselor reviewed IQ scores of all the children in the class in preparation for parent meetings. b. Jevon got top marks on the math test, but William failed his math test. c. Anthony wears glasses because he is near-sighted, but Lilia wears them because she is far-sighted. d. Maria excels in her English literature class but is two years below grade level in her math class. 45. All of the following illustrate intraindividual difference, EXCEPT: a. Andrew got straight A’s in his social studies class, but is failing in science. b. even though most of Mrs. Jennings’ class received reading scores above the grade level, a few were reading below it. c. even though she doesn't like math, Annette excels in both math and English classes. d. Fernando usually gets the best grades in his class and is also one of the school’s highest scorers on the basketball team. 46. A referral, or written request to evaluate a student to determine whether or not they have a disability, is typically NOT initiated by: a. a general education teacher. b. a concerned parent. c. a student. d. the outcome of child-find efforts. 47. The referral committee, often known as the child study committee, special services team, etc., reviews documentation that accompanies a referral, and: a. is composed of the parent(s)/guardian(s), the child and their teacher, in addition to one school administrator. b. must obtain permission from the special education teacher before they begin to review the available information. c. should notify parent(s)/guardians that a referral is being initiated on their child, though IDEA does not require the committee to do so. d. initiates the formal evaluation as soon as the child has been referred to the committee. 48. In obtaining the consent of the child’s parent(s)/guardian(s) for a formal evaluation, the school must notify the parent/guardian: a. in the primary language spoken by the child at school. b. of the school’s intent to place their child in special education classes. c. of the school’s intention to evaluate their child, including the reasoning behind the decision. d. of the school’s intention to put their child on an IEP. 49. In order to measure interindividual differences, evaluators use: a. both norm-referenced and informal tests. b. norm-referenced and criterion-referenced tests. c. criterion-referenced tests. d. norm-referenced tests. 50. All of the following statements are true regarding norm-referenced assessments, EXCEPT: a. the data from norm-referenced tests are very useful for instructional planning. b. the data from norm-referenced tests are presented in terms of percentile ranks, stanines, or grade equivalent scores. c. norm-referenced tests compare the performance of an individual student with that of a representative sample of children. d. evaluators can compare a student’s performance to that of their same-aged peers, when using a norm-referenced test. 51. Criterion-referenced assessments: a. are associated with interindividual differences. b. provide limited instructional information. c. compare a student’s performance on a task with that of a representative sample of children. d. are helpful in identifying specific skills the student has already mastered, as well as those that are yet to be mastered. 52. A proper evaluation puts together multiple sources of information which typically include all the of the following, EXCEPT: a. a medical evaluation. b. standardized tests. c. work samples. d. observational data. 53. If an evaluation determines that a student is not eligible to receive special education services, then: a. there is no need to try further intervention strategies. b. the student should be removed from his or her present placement. c. the team might want to consider whether or not the student is eligible for a 504 accommodation plan. d. parents only need be informed that the student did not qualify for special education services, but do not need to be told why their child was found ineligible. 54. Each student who is found eligible for special education services must have: a. further evaluations to determine placement. b. a letter from their parent(s)/guardian(s) concurring with the evaluation team’s findings. c. a 504 accommodation plan. d. an IEP. 55. All of the following statements concerning an IEP are true, EXCEPT: a. IEPs can serve as means to encourage collaboration and cooperation between parents and professionals. b. An IEP should be developed within 30 days following the evaluation and determination of the student’s disability. c. Once the team has placed the student in the least restrictive environment, they then should address the goals and short-term objective/benchmarks in the IEP. d. An IEP can best be viewed as a management tool that provides instructional direction so that the student receives an education to meet their individual needs. 56. At a minimum, an IEP team must consist of: a. the student, a parent/guardian, the student’s special education teacher, a knowledgeable representative from the school district, the school nurse, and a school psychologist. b. a parent/guardian, the student’s general education teacher, a school psychologist, a knowledgeable representative from the school district, and the student. c. the student, a parent/guardian, the school’s career counselor, the student’s special education teacher, a knowledgeable representative from the school district, and a school psychologist. d. a parent/guardian, the child’s general and special education teachers, a knowledgeable representative from the school district, and a school psychologist. 57. IDEA: a. mandates that parents/guardians must actively participate in the IEP process and assist in the creation of the student’s goals and short-term objectives/benchmarks. b. does not recommend that students take part in the IEP as discussions in the meeting may lower their self-esteem. c. states that schools are liable if they do not provide services stipulated in the IEP. Pretty sure! d. states that all IEP forms must be uniform and not vary in format from district-to-district or stateto-state. 58. A complete reevaluation of the student’s eligibility for special education services: a. is not necessary if school officials do not think it is needed. b. must take place once a year if parents think it is necessary. c. must take place once every two years if both parents and school officials think it is necessary. d. must take place once every three years, unless both parents and school officials agree that such a review is unnecessary. 59. The IEP document: a. should be so comprehensive that it can be used as the entire instructional basis for the student. b. is intended to dictate what the student is taught and how instruction is delivered. c. should be individualized to meet the unique learning needs of the student. Guesssss d. is best formulated by using computer-generated goals and objectives. 60. Which of the following is NOT an element of an IEP? a. Student’s current level performance b. Student’s IQ score c. Annual goals d. Related services to be provided...