ATI RN comprehensive predictor 2025–
2026, ATI predictor test bank, ATI RN
exam questions, ATI predictor rationales,
This premium study guide features 150 meticulously crafted practice questions with in-depth
rationales and bolded answers to master the ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor and Next Gen
NCLEX. It covers essential nursing priorities, pharmacology, and clinical judgment across all
major body systems to ensure you reach the 95% probability of passing threshold.
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an
abdominal cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the
nurse to report to the provider?
A. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Drainage of 20 mL of bile-stained fluid on the dressing
C. Persistent rigid, board-like abdomen
D. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants
Answer: C. Persistent rigid, board-like abdomen
Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis, which is a life-
threatening complication of abdominal surgery. While pain and absent bowel sounds
are expected in the early post-op period, a rigid abdomen indicates a medical
emergency.
2. A nurse is assigned to the following four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client with a chest tube who has 50 mL of drainage in the last hour
B. A client with diabetes whose blood glucose is 150 mg/dL
C. A client with a hip fracture who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath
D. A client receiving an IV antibiotic who reports a mild headache
Answer: C. A client with a hip fracture who reports sudden onset of shortness of
breath
Rationale: Clients with long-bone fractures (like a hip) are at high risk for a Fat
Embolism. Sudden shortness of breath is a critical respiratory distress sign and requires
immediate intervention.
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3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
of the following findings should cause the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
B. Heart rate 52/min
C. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
D. Digoxin level 0.8 ng/mL
Answer: B. Heart rate 52/min
Rationale: Digoxin is a negative chronotrope that slows the heart rate. It should be held
if the apical pulse is less than 60/min in an adult to prevent severe bradycardia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate IV
for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Increased deep tendon reflexes
B. Respiratory rate of 10/min
C. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
D. Heart rate of 90/min
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a CNS depressant. Toxicity signs include bradypnea
(RR < 12), loss of deep tendon reflexes, and decreased urine output.
5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an Assistive Personnel (AP). Which of the
following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Evaluating a client’s response to pain medication
B. Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
C. Performing a sterile dressing change on a central line
D. Re-applying bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs)
Answer: D. Re-applying bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs)
Rationale: APs can perform non-invasive, routine tasks. Assessment (evaluating pain),
teaching, and sterile procedures (central line care) must be performed by a licensed
nurse.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of tonic-clonic seizures. Which of
the following safety precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Keep a padded tongue blade at the bedside
B. Place the bed in the highest position
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C. Ensure suction equipment and oxygen are at the bedside
D. Restrain the client’s limbs during a seizure
Answer: C. Ensure suction equipment and oxygen are at the bedside
Rationale: Seizure precautions involve having suction and oxygen ready to maintain
the airway. Padded tongue blades are contraindicated as they can cause injury.
7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for
lithium carbonate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Limit sodium intake to less than 1,500 mg per day
B. Drink 2 to 3 liters of fluid daily
C. Take the medication on an empty stomach
D. Expect a weight loss of 5 to 10 lbs
Answer: B. Drink 2 to 3 liters of fluid daily
Rationale: Lithium is a salt. To prevent toxicity, the client must maintain adequate fluid
and sodium intake. Dehydration or low sodium can cause lithium levels to rise
dangerously.
8. A nurse is caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of
the following snacks is the best choice for this client?
A. A bowl of chicken noodle soup
B. A dish of vanilla ice cream
C. A turkey and cheese wrap
D. A side of mashed potatoes
Answer: C. A turkey and cheese wrap
Rationale: Clients in a manic phase often cannot sit still to eat. "Finger foods" that are
high in protein and calories (like a wrap) allow the client to eat while moving.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs. After 15
minutes, the client reports low back pain and has a headache. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the provider
B. Check the client’s temperature
C. Stop the infusion
D. Slow the rate of the infusion
Answer: C. Stop the infusion
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
Rationale: Low back pain and headache are signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
The nurse must stop the blood immediately to prevent further reaction.
10. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Alendronate for
osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions is the priority?
A. Take the medication with a full glass of milk
B. Sit upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
C. Take the medication right before going to bed
D. Exercise for 30 minutes after taking the medication
Answer: B. Sit upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
Rationale: Alendronate (a bisphosphonate) can cause severe esophageal erosion.
Staying upright for at least 30 minutes ensures the pill passes into the stomach and
prevents reflux.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Which of
the following lab values should the nurse expect?
A. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
B. Calcium 11.5 mg/dL
C. Phosphorus 5.8 mg/dL
D. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Answer: C. Phosphorus 5.8 mg/dL
Rationale: In ESRD, the kidneys cannot excrete phosphorus, leading to
hyperphosphatemia. Potassium would typically be high, and hemoglobin would be low
due to lack of erythropoietin.
12. A nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous
bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The system is functioning correctly
B. The client has a pneumothorax that is resolving
C. There is an air leak in the system
D. The suction pressure is too high
Answer: C. There is an air leak in the system
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
Intermittent bubbling is expected if the client has a pneumothorax, but it should stop as
the lung re-expands.