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Barkley PMHNP – Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Exam Questions & Answers | Complete Test Bank PDF (2026 Updated)

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Comprehensive Barkley PMHNP test bank with verified questions and answers for Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner exam preparation. Covers psychiatric assessment, mood and anxiety disorders, psychopharmacology, psychotherapy, legal/ethical considerations, and evidence-based mental health practice. Fully searchable PDF, updated for 2026, ideal for PMHNP students, instructors, and professionals preparing for certification and clinical practice exams.

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Uploaded on
February 2, 2026
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2025/2026
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This 2026/2027 Test Bank for - Barkley PMHNP 2/1/2026 Exam Study
Barkley
Guide,
PMHNP.pdf| Verified Questions with Detailed Answers ? Grade A+




Barkley PMHNP
Study

You have been treating Antoine for his cocaine addiction. He comes to your office drunk and high on
marijuana and says that you "can't say anything about it" because he didn't use cocaine. Antoine has
used many other narcotics besides cocaine and has not followed the rehabilitation program you had
outlined for him. Moreover, he has failed to pay for your services. Which of the following should you
do?
A. Call security.
B. Give the patient notice and then dismiss him.
C. Keep treating the patient, but sue him.
D. Contact your supervisor.

A nurse practitioner (NP) has the right to dismiss a patient if he or she does not pay for services,
persistently refuses to adhere to NPS recommendations, or is abusive. Calling security or contacting a
supervisor are not steps in the process of dismissing a patient. The NP may continue to treat the patient
for this session, then file a lawsuit after dismissing him, but suits against patients are not typically filed
during continued treatment.

A 50-year-old father of twin high school graduates comes to your office concerned about the recent
stress stemming from both of his daughters entering college. He also has a history of aggressive
behavior linked with increased stress. Given this information, which of the following steps would be
LEAST important prior to starting the interview?
A. Arrange seating in your office so that a safe exit is possible, if necessary
B. Have someone stand by for assistance in case the individual is a threat
C. Consult with a member of the client's family concerning his or her impression of the problem
D. Sit far enough away from the client for personal space

Although it is important to consult family members to get their impression of the presiding problem in
the process of assisting a patient, the nurse practitioner (NP) should do so with the patient's permission,
not prior to the interview. Proper seating arrangement, personal space, and having another person
standing by for assistance are all steps that the NP should take to protect him or herself against an
aggressive patient.

Amelia is a 66-year-old patient who has had three consecutive normal results of the Pap smear test.
Beyond the usual aches and pains of the aging process, she is otherwise healthy and has no history of
abnormal cervical cells or cervical cancer. When should the nurse practitioner examine her with a
follow-up Pap smear?
A. 2 years from now
B. Discontinue
C. Next year
D. 5 years from now

In patients with no history of abnormal cervical cells or cervical cancer, Pap smears should be
discontinued between the ages of 65 and 70 years after three consecutive normal results. No further
follow-up Pap smears are necessary after this point.




Page 1 of 10 | Verified Questions with Detailed Answers ? Grade A+ Barkley PMHNP-

, This 2026/2027 Test Bank for - Barkley PMHNP 2/1/2026 Exam Study
Barkley
Guide,
PMHNP.pdf| Verified Questions with Detailed Answers ? Grade A+




You are treating Pat for schizophrenia. She has begun developing signs of agranulocytosis and is
bothered by significant weight gain. Based on these findings, you determine that you need to change
her medication. Which of the following was she most likely prescribed originally?
A. Fluphenazine
B. Thiothixene
C. Clozapine
D. Haloperidol

Clozapine is strongly associated with a risk of agranulocytosis and. Like other second generation
antipsychotics (SGAs), is closely associated with significant weight gain. First-generation antipsychotics
(e.g. haloperidol, thiothixene, fluphenazine) may result in significant weight gain but are less likely to
produce agranulocytosis than SGAs; in addition, haloperidol and fluphenazine are agents within this
class associated with the least risk of weight gain and other metabolic side effects.

Your client, David, tells you that he was so angry the other day that he yelled at his wife over recent
purchases that cut deeply into their joint savings. You respond without judgment but with empathy,
permissiveness, and unconditional positive regard toward your patient. You ask him, "How do you
feel about that?" Of the following, from what psychotherapy theory are you most likely basing your
practice?
A. Person-Centered Therapy
B. Gestalt Therapy
C. Psychoanalytic Theory
D. Behavioral Therapy

Carl Rogers' model of Person-Centered Therapy focuses on developing the client's sense of self-
direction; in this model, the nurse practitioner (NP) expresses empathy, permissiveness, and
unconditional regard towards the patient, asking without judgment how the patient feels about his or
her actions. Behavioral Therapy stresses changing cognition, affect, and behavior by teaching the patient
new coping skills, improving communication, and breaking maladaptive habits. Gestalt Therapy would
emphasize that the patient's feelings and behaviors are ultimately his responsibility to address.
Psychoanalytic Theory would focus on making the unconscious conscious and strengthening the ego so
that the behavior is based more on reality and less on instinctual drives.




Page 2 of 10 | Verified Questions with Detailed Answers ? Grade A+ Barkley PMHNP-

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