NMC CBT 2026 Exam Q/A 100% Expert
Guaranteed Correct Answers &
Explanations | 50 CBT Reviewed
Questions | A+ Graded | Latest Update
2026
Question one.
A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with severe abdominal pain, nausea,
and vomiting. Initial assessment reveals a rigid board-like abdomen, and absent bowel sounds.
The nurse notes the client's blood pressure is 9050ths millime of mercury, heart rate is 120
bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 bpm. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administering a prescribed antiimetic for nausea.
B. Preparing the client for an emergency abdominal computed tomography CT scan.
C. Inserting a large bore introvenous catheter and initiating fluid resuscitation.
D. Obtaining a detailed history of the client's alcohol consumption and recent dietary intake.
Answer C. Inserting a large bore introvenous catheter and initiating fluid resuscitation.
This question tests prioritization in a critically ill client. Specifically identifying signs of a surgical
emergency like a ruptured viscus indicated by the rigid board-like abdomen and signs of shock,
hypotension, tacocardia. The concept of ABCs, airway, breathing, circulation guides the
immediate action. Restoring circulating volume is crucial before diagnostic tests or symptom
management. Rapid fluid resuscitation via a large bore 4 is essential to address hypoalmic
shock and stabilize the client, which is a life-saving intervention. For example, if a client is
bleeding severely, you would first secure their circulation before trying to figure out the exact
cause. Always prioritize actions that directly support vital organ profusion and prevent
irreversible shock.
Question two,
the nurse is caring for a client with hypatic encphylopathy who is receiving lactulos. The client's
family asks why their loved one is having such frequent bowel movements. The nurse explains
that laculos works by
a increasing the absorption of ammonia in the small intestine,
b converting ammonia into ura in the liver which is then excreted by the kidneys.
C trapping ammonia in the colon and expelling it through the feces.
D inhibiting the production of ammonia by intestinal bacteria.
Answer C. Trapping ammonia in the colon and expelling it through the feces.
This question assesses understanding of the specific mechanism of action for lactolo in
managing hippatic and sephylopathy. The key concept is how lactulos reduces ammonia levels
which are toxic to the brain. Lactulose is a laxative that works by creating an acidic environment
,in the colon which traps ammonia NH3 as ammonium ions NH4 plus that cannot be reabsorbed
into the bloodstream and are then excreted in the stool. It does not increase absorption, directly
convert ammonia into ura or inhibit bacterial production but rather facilitates its elimination.
Think of it like a magnet in the gut pulling ammonia out of the body through bowel movements.
Question three.
A client is admitted with a suspected fiochromocytoma. The nurse understands that this
condition is characterized by excessive secretion of catakolamines leading to severe
hypertension. Which of the following nursing interventions is most critical during the initial
stabilization phase?
A. administering a prescribed beta blocker to control heart rate.
B. Restricting dietary intake of tyramine rich foods.
C. Initiating a competitive alphaurgic blocker such as phenolamine.
D. Monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension after medication administration.
Answer C. initiating a competitive alphadadinuric blocker such as phenolamine.
This question evaluates the nurse's knowledge of the critical initial management for a client with
a fiochromocytoma which involves uncontrolled release of catakolamines leading to severe
hypertension. The key concept is that alphadinuric blockade must be established before beta
blockade to prevent unopposed alpha adronergic stimulation which could paradoxically worsen
hypertension and cause a hypertensive crisis. Phenolamine is a rapid acting alpha blocker used
to stabilize blood pressure. While monitoring for hypotension and dietary restrictions are
relevant, stabilizing blood pressure with an alpha blocker is the immediate priority. Remember
alpha before beta or a before b4 fiochromocytoma crisis management.
Question four.
A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone sed. The nurse
anticipates which of the following laboratory findings and corresponding intervention.
A increased serum sodium administer hypertonic saline.
B. Decreased urine specific gravity encourage oral fluid intake.
C. Decrease serum osmolality restrict fluid intake.
D. Increased serum potassium. Administer potassium sparing diuretics.
Answer C. Decreased serum osmoly. Restrict fluid intake.
This question tests the understanding of sciad pathophysiology and appropriate nursing
interventions. The key concept is that sciad causes excessive antidiuretic hormone ADH leading
to water retention dilutional hyponetriia and therefore decreased serum osmolality. Despite the
low serum sodium the body has too much water not too little sodium. So the primary
intervention is fluid restriction to correct the hyponetriia and raise serum osmolality. Increased
serum sodium, decreased urine specific gravity and increased potassium are inconsistent with
SIADH. Think of side as the body holding on to too much water making everything in the blood
including sodium look diluted.
Question five.
, The nurse is caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. The client reports
severe abdominal cramping, frequent bloody diarrhea, and weight loss. Which dietary
instruction is most appropriate for this client during the acute phase?
A. Encourage high-fiber foods to promote regular bowel movements.
B. Recommend a low residue, high protein diet.
C. Advise consuming foods rich in dairy products to increase calcium intake.
D. Suggest a high-fat diet to prevent further weight loss.
Answer B. Recommend a low residue high protein diet.
This question focuses on appropriate dietary management during an acute flare up of ulcerative
colitis. The key concept is to minimize bowel stimulation and provide adequate nutrition while
the inflammation is active. A low residue diet reduces the amount of undigested food and fiber
that passes through the gut, thereby decreasing irritation and bowel movements. A high protein
diet is crucial to counteract weight loss and promote healing. High-fiber foods, dairy, due to
potential lactose intolerance, and highfat foods can exacerbate symptoms during an acute
phase. Imagine trying to let an inflamed area heal. You wouldn't want to constantly irritate it with
hard to digest foods.
Question six.
A client with a history of intravenous drug use is admitted with signs of infective endocarditis.
The nurse anticipates which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with this
diagnosis.
A Janeway lesions, oscillers nodes, Roth spots and a new murmur.
B Bilateral pitting edema, jugular venus distension and crackles in the lungs.
C. Migratory polyarthritis korea and athemma marginatum.
D. Persistent dry cough, night sweats, and weight loss.
Answer A. Janeway lesions, oscillers's nodes, Roth spots, and a new murmur.
This question tests knowledge of classic signs and symptoms of infective endocarditis, often
linked to introvenous drug use due to bacterial introduction. The key concept is recognizing the
specific peripheral manifestations and cardiac changes indicative of vegetation on heart valves,
Janeway lesions, non-tender macules on palms/sols, oscller's nodes, tender nodules on
fingers/toes, Roth spots, retinal hemorrhages, and a new or changed heart murmur or hallmark
signs. The other options describe symptoms of heart failure, rheumatic fever and tuberculosis
respectively, not infective endocarditis. These specific findings are caused by tiny emblei or
immune complex deposition from the infected heart valves.
Question seven.
The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous push medication to a client with a central
venus catheter. After flushing the line and before administering the medication, the nurse notes
resistance when attempting to aspirate blood. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the medication slowly, observing for infiltration.
B. Reposition the client and ask them to cough. Then attempt aspiration again.
C. Irrigate the catheter vigorously with a 10ml syringe of normal saline.
Guaranteed Correct Answers &
Explanations | 50 CBT Reviewed
Questions | A+ Graded | Latest Update
2026
Question one.
A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with severe abdominal pain, nausea,
and vomiting. Initial assessment reveals a rigid board-like abdomen, and absent bowel sounds.
The nurse notes the client's blood pressure is 9050ths millime of mercury, heart rate is 120
bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 bpm. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administering a prescribed antiimetic for nausea.
B. Preparing the client for an emergency abdominal computed tomography CT scan.
C. Inserting a large bore introvenous catheter and initiating fluid resuscitation.
D. Obtaining a detailed history of the client's alcohol consumption and recent dietary intake.
Answer C. Inserting a large bore introvenous catheter and initiating fluid resuscitation.
This question tests prioritization in a critically ill client. Specifically identifying signs of a surgical
emergency like a ruptured viscus indicated by the rigid board-like abdomen and signs of shock,
hypotension, tacocardia. The concept of ABCs, airway, breathing, circulation guides the
immediate action. Restoring circulating volume is crucial before diagnostic tests or symptom
management. Rapid fluid resuscitation via a large bore 4 is essential to address hypoalmic
shock and stabilize the client, which is a life-saving intervention. For example, if a client is
bleeding severely, you would first secure their circulation before trying to figure out the exact
cause. Always prioritize actions that directly support vital organ profusion and prevent
irreversible shock.
Question two,
the nurse is caring for a client with hypatic encphylopathy who is receiving lactulos. The client's
family asks why their loved one is having such frequent bowel movements. The nurse explains
that laculos works by
a increasing the absorption of ammonia in the small intestine,
b converting ammonia into ura in the liver which is then excreted by the kidneys.
C trapping ammonia in the colon and expelling it through the feces.
D inhibiting the production of ammonia by intestinal bacteria.
Answer C. Trapping ammonia in the colon and expelling it through the feces.
This question assesses understanding of the specific mechanism of action for lactolo in
managing hippatic and sephylopathy. The key concept is how lactulos reduces ammonia levels
which are toxic to the brain. Lactulose is a laxative that works by creating an acidic environment
,in the colon which traps ammonia NH3 as ammonium ions NH4 plus that cannot be reabsorbed
into the bloodstream and are then excreted in the stool. It does not increase absorption, directly
convert ammonia into ura or inhibit bacterial production but rather facilitates its elimination.
Think of it like a magnet in the gut pulling ammonia out of the body through bowel movements.
Question three.
A client is admitted with a suspected fiochromocytoma. The nurse understands that this
condition is characterized by excessive secretion of catakolamines leading to severe
hypertension. Which of the following nursing interventions is most critical during the initial
stabilization phase?
A. administering a prescribed beta blocker to control heart rate.
B. Restricting dietary intake of tyramine rich foods.
C. Initiating a competitive alphaurgic blocker such as phenolamine.
D. Monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension after medication administration.
Answer C. initiating a competitive alphadadinuric blocker such as phenolamine.
This question evaluates the nurse's knowledge of the critical initial management for a client with
a fiochromocytoma which involves uncontrolled release of catakolamines leading to severe
hypertension. The key concept is that alphadinuric blockade must be established before beta
blockade to prevent unopposed alpha adronergic stimulation which could paradoxically worsen
hypertension and cause a hypertensive crisis. Phenolamine is a rapid acting alpha blocker used
to stabilize blood pressure. While monitoring for hypotension and dietary restrictions are
relevant, stabilizing blood pressure with an alpha blocker is the immediate priority. Remember
alpha before beta or a before b4 fiochromocytoma crisis management.
Question four.
A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone sed. The nurse
anticipates which of the following laboratory findings and corresponding intervention.
A increased serum sodium administer hypertonic saline.
B. Decreased urine specific gravity encourage oral fluid intake.
C. Decrease serum osmolality restrict fluid intake.
D. Increased serum potassium. Administer potassium sparing diuretics.
Answer C. Decreased serum osmoly. Restrict fluid intake.
This question tests the understanding of sciad pathophysiology and appropriate nursing
interventions. The key concept is that sciad causes excessive antidiuretic hormone ADH leading
to water retention dilutional hyponetriia and therefore decreased serum osmolality. Despite the
low serum sodium the body has too much water not too little sodium. So the primary
intervention is fluid restriction to correct the hyponetriia and raise serum osmolality. Increased
serum sodium, decreased urine specific gravity and increased potassium are inconsistent with
SIADH. Think of side as the body holding on to too much water making everything in the blood
including sodium look diluted.
Question five.
, The nurse is caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. The client reports
severe abdominal cramping, frequent bloody diarrhea, and weight loss. Which dietary
instruction is most appropriate for this client during the acute phase?
A. Encourage high-fiber foods to promote regular bowel movements.
B. Recommend a low residue, high protein diet.
C. Advise consuming foods rich in dairy products to increase calcium intake.
D. Suggest a high-fat diet to prevent further weight loss.
Answer B. Recommend a low residue high protein diet.
This question focuses on appropriate dietary management during an acute flare up of ulcerative
colitis. The key concept is to minimize bowel stimulation and provide adequate nutrition while
the inflammation is active. A low residue diet reduces the amount of undigested food and fiber
that passes through the gut, thereby decreasing irritation and bowel movements. A high protein
diet is crucial to counteract weight loss and promote healing. High-fiber foods, dairy, due to
potential lactose intolerance, and highfat foods can exacerbate symptoms during an acute
phase. Imagine trying to let an inflamed area heal. You wouldn't want to constantly irritate it with
hard to digest foods.
Question six.
A client with a history of intravenous drug use is admitted with signs of infective endocarditis.
The nurse anticipates which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with this
diagnosis.
A Janeway lesions, oscillers nodes, Roth spots and a new murmur.
B Bilateral pitting edema, jugular venus distension and crackles in the lungs.
C. Migratory polyarthritis korea and athemma marginatum.
D. Persistent dry cough, night sweats, and weight loss.
Answer A. Janeway lesions, oscillers's nodes, Roth spots, and a new murmur.
This question tests knowledge of classic signs and symptoms of infective endocarditis, often
linked to introvenous drug use due to bacterial introduction. The key concept is recognizing the
specific peripheral manifestations and cardiac changes indicative of vegetation on heart valves,
Janeway lesions, non-tender macules on palms/sols, oscller's nodes, tender nodules on
fingers/toes, Roth spots, retinal hemorrhages, and a new or changed heart murmur or hallmark
signs. The other options describe symptoms of heart failure, rheumatic fever and tuberculosis
respectively, not infective endocarditis. These specific findings are caused by tiny emblei or
immune complex deposition from the infected heart valves.
Question seven.
The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous push medication to a client with a central
venus catheter. After flushing the line and before administering the medication, the nurse notes
resistance when attempting to aspirate blood. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the medication slowly, observing for infiltration.
B. Reposition the client and ask them to cough. Then attempt aspiration again.
C. Irrigate the catheter vigorously with a 10ml syringe of normal saline.
