MAGNETIC RESONANCE SAFETY OFFICER (MRSO) EXAM PREPARATION (2026/2027) |
REAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | JUST
RELEASED
American Board of Magnetic Resonance Safety (ABMRS) Magnetic Resonance Safety Officer (MRSO)
Certification Examination | Core Domains: MRI Physics & Biological Effects, Static & Gradient
Magnetic Field Hazards, Radiofrequency (RF) Heating & Burns, Acoustic Noise & Hearing Protection,
Cryogen & Quench Hazards, MRI Screening & Zone 4 Access Control, Implant & Device Safety Testing,
and Safety Program Management & Regulatory Compliance (FDA, ACR, Joint Commission) | Medical
Imaging Safety Certification Focus | National Certification Exam Format
Exam Structure
The MRSO Certification Exam for the 2026/2027 certification cycle is a 120-question, multiple-choice
question (MCQ) examination.
Introduction
This MRSO Exam Preparation guide for the 2026/2027 cycle prepares candidates for the national
certification examination to become a qualified Magnetic Resonance Safety Officer. The content assesses
comprehensive knowledge of the physical principles of MRI, all associated biological hazards, patient and
personnel screening protocols, safety testing of objects and implants, and the development and oversight
of a facility-wide MRI safety program in accordance with national standards and regulations.
Answer Format
All correct answers and safety protocols must be presented in bold and green, followed by detailed
rationales that reference ABMRS content outlines, explain MRI physics as it relates to safety (e.g., specific
absorption rate, dB/dt), justify screening procedures and contraindications, apply safety testing
methodologies for implants, and outline the components of an MR safety program as defined by the ACR
Guidance Document and other regulatory bodies.
Questions (120 Total)
1. What is the primary hazard of the static magnetic field (B₀) in MRI?
A. Tissue heating
B. Projectile effect on ferromagnetic objects
C. Peripheral nerve stimulation
D. Acoustic noise
Rationale: The static magnetic field (typically 1.5–3.0 Tesla) exerts strong attractive forces on
ferromagnetic materials, turning them into dangerous projectiles. This is the most immediate and
,life-threatening hazard in Zone IV. Tissue heating is from RF; nerve stimulation from gradient fields;
noise from coil vibration.
2. According to the ACR Guidance Document, who is responsible for final approval of MRI access for
patients with non-MR conditional implants?
A. Radiologic technologist
B. Magnetic Resonance Safety Officer (MRSO)
C. Patient’s family member
D. Housekeeping staff
Rationale: The MRSO is the designated expert responsible for evaluating implant safety, interpreting
manufacturer labeling (MR Safe, MR Conditional, MR Unsafe), and making final determinations for
high-risk cases per ACR guidelines. Technologists screen but do not approve complex cases.
3. What does “MR Conditional” mean for an implant?
A. Safe in any MRI environment
B. Safe only under specific conditions (e.g., field strength, SAR limits)
C. Never safe in MRI
D. Safe only if the patient is sedated
Rationale: MR Conditional means the device has been tested and is safe only within defined
parameters (e.g., ≤1.5T, SAR ≤2.0 W/kg, normal operating mode). These conditions must be strictly
adhered to during scanning.
4. Which parameter is used to limit radiofrequency (RF) energy deposition and prevent tissue heating?
A. Gradient slew rate
B. Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)
C. Echo time (TE)
D. Repetition time (TR)
Rationale: SAR (measured in W/kg) quantifies RF energy absorbed by tissue. FDA and IEC set SAR
limits (e.g., whole-body average ≤4 W/kg for adults) to prevent thermal injury. Modern scanners
monitor and adjust SAR in real time.
,5. A patient with a pacemaker requires an MRI. What is the first step?
A. Proceed with scan using low SAR
B. Verify if the device is MR Conditional and consult cardiology
C. Remove the pacemaker
D. Use CT instead without evaluation
Rationale: Most modern pacemakers are MR Conditional under strict protocols (e.g., device
reprogramming, continuous monitoring). The MRSO must verify labeling, coordinate with
electrophysiology, and ensure all safety conditions are met before proceeding.
6. What is the primary cause of peripheral nerve stimulation (PNS) during MRI?
A. Static magnetic field
B. Rapidly switching gradient fields (high dB/dt)
C. RF pulses
D. Cryogen boil-off
Rationale: PNS (tingling or muscle twitching) results from induced electric currents due to fast
gradient switching (high dB/dt). Scanner software limits gradient performance to stay below PNS
thresholds defined by IEC 60601-2-33.
7. Hearing protection is required for all patients in MRI because acoustic noise can exceed:
A. 60 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 80 dB
D. 120 dB
Rationale: MRI acoustic noise from gradient coil vibration can reach 110–120 dB—equivalent to a jet
engine. OSHA and ACR require dual hearing protection (earplugs + headphones) for all patients and
personnel in Zone IV during scanning.
8. What is a “quench” in MRI?
A. Sudden loss of image quality
, B. Rapid boil-off of cryogens causing magnet shutdown
C. Power outage to the console
D. RF amplifier failure
Rationale: A quench is the emergency release of helium coolant, causing rapid vaporization and
potential oxygen displacement in the scan room. It is a last-resort safety measure. Rooms must have
oxygen monitors and pressure-relief vents per NFPA 99.
9. Which zone requires Level 2 MR personnel supervision for access?
A. Zone I (outside facility)
B. Zone II (waiting area)
C. Zone III (control room and magnet adjacent)
D. Zone IV (scanner room)
Rationale: Zone III is restricted and requires supervision by Level 2 personnel (e.g., MRSO, MRMD,
trained technologist). Zone IV requires direct supervision. Zones I and II are public areas.
10. What is the purpose of the “ferromagnetic detection system” (FMDS)?
A. To improve image resolution
B. To screen individuals for concealed ferromagnetic objects before Zone IV entry
C. To measure SAR in real time
D. To cool the magnet
Rationale: FMDS (e.g., walk-through metal detectors) provide an additional layer of safety by
detecting ferromagnetic items missed during manual screening, reducing projectile risk. It does not
replace thorough verbal and visual screening.
11. Looped ECG leads can cause burns due to:
A. Static field attraction
B. Induced currents forming an antenna circuit
C. Gradient vibration
D. Cryogen contact
REAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | JUST
RELEASED
American Board of Magnetic Resonance Safety (ABMRS) Magnetic Resonance Safety Officer (MRSO)
Certification Examination | Core Domains: MRI Physics & Biological Effects, Static & Gradient
Magnetic Field Hazards, Radiofrequency (RF) Heating & Burns, Acoustic Noise & Hearing Protection,
Cryogen & Quench Hazards, MRI Screening & Zone 4 Access Control, Implant & Device Safety Testing,
and Safety Program Management & Regulatory Compliance (FDA, ACR, Joint Commission) | Medical
Imaging Safety Certification Focus | National Certification Exam Format
Exam Structure
The MRSO Certification Exam for the 2026/2027 certification cycle is a 120-question, multiple-choice
question (MCQ) examination.
Introduction
This MRSO Exam Preparation guide for the 2026/2027 cycle prepares candidates for the national
certification examination to become a qualified Magnetic Resonance Safety Officer. The content assesses
comprehensive knowledge of the physical principles of MRI, all associated biological hazards, patient and
personnel screening protocols, safety testing of objects and implants, and the development and oversight
of a facility-wide MRI safety program in accordance with national standards and regulations.
Answer Format
All correct answers and safety protocols must be presented in bold and green, followed by detailed
rationales that reference ABMRS content outlines, explain MRI physics as it relates to safety (e.g., specific
absorption rate, dB/dt), justify screening procedures and contraindications, apply safety testing
methodologies for implants, and outline the components of an MR safety program as defined by the ACR
Guidance Document and other regulatory bodies.
Questions (120 Total)
1. What is the primary hazard of the static magnetic field (B₀) in MRI?
A. Tissue heating
B. Projectile effect on ferromagnetic objects
C. Peripheral nerve stimulation
D. Acoustic noise
Rationale: The static magnetic field (typically 1.5–3.0 Tesla) exerts strong attractive forces on
ferromagnetic materials, turning them into dangerous projectiles. This is the most immediate and
,life-threatening hazard in Zone IV. Tissue heating is from RF; nerve stimulation from gradient fields;
noise from coil vibration.
2. According to the ACR Guidance Document, who is responsible for final approval of MRI access for
patients with non-MR conditional implants?
A. Radiologic technologist
B. Magnetic Resonance Safety Officer (MRSO)
C. Patient’s family member
D. Housekeeping staff
Rationale: The MRSO is the designated expert responsible for evaluating implant safety, interpreting
manufacturer labeling (MR Safe, MR Conditional, MR Unsafe), and making final determinations for
high-risk cases per ACR guidelines. Technologists screen but do not approve complex cases.
3. What does “MR Conditional” mean for an implant?
A. Safe in any MRI environment
B. Safe only under specific conditions (e.g., field strength, SAR limits)
C. Never safe in MRI
D. Safe only if the patient is sedated
Rationale: MR Conditional means the device has been tested and is safe only within defined
parameters (e.g., ≤1.5T, SAR ≤2.0 W/kg, normal operating mode). These conditions must be strictly
adhered to during scanning.
4. Which parameter is used to limit radiofrequency (RF) energy deposition and prevent tissue heating?
A. Gradient slew rate
B. Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)
C. Echo time (TE)
D. Repetition time (TR)
Rationale: SAR (measured in W/kg) quantifies RF energy absorbed by tissue. FDA and IEC set SAR
limits (e.g., whole-body average ≤4 W/kg for adults) to prevent thermal injury. Modern scanners
monitor and adjust SAR in real time.
,5. A patient with a pacemaker requires an MRI. What is the first step?
A. Proceed with scan using low SAR
B. Verify if the device is MR Conditional and consult cardiology
C. Remove the pacemaker
D. Use CT instead without evaluation
Rationale: Most modern pacemakers are MR Conditional under strict protocols (e.g., device
reprogramming, continuous monitoring). The MRSO must verify labeling, coordinate with
electrophysiology, and ensure all safety conditions are met before proceeding.
6. What is the primary cause of peripheral nerve stimulation (PNS) during MRI?
A. Static magnetic field
B. Rapidly switching gradient fields (high dB/dt)
C. RF pulses
D. Cryogen boil-off
Rationale: PNS (tingling or muscle twitching) results from induced electric currents due to fast
gradient switching (high dB/dt). Scanner software limits gradient performance to stay below PNS
thresholds defined by IEC 60601-2-33.
7. Hearing protection is required for all patients in MRI because acoustic noise can exceed:
A. 60 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 80 dB
D. 120 dB
Rationale: MRI acoustic noise from gradient coil vibration can reach 110–120 dB—equivalent to a jet
engine. OSHA and ACR require dual hearing protection (earplugs + headphones) for all patients and
personnel in Zone IV during scanning.
8. What is a “quench” in MRI?
A. Sudden loss of image quality
, B. Rapid boil-off of cryogens causing magnet shutdown
C. Power outage to the console
D. RF amplifier failure
Rationale: A quench is the emergency release of helium coolant, causing rapid vaporization and
potential oxygen displacement in the scan room. It is a last-resort safety measure. Rooms must have
oxygen monitors and pressure-relief vents per NFPA 99.
9. Which zone requires Level 2 MR personnel supervision for access?
A. Zone I (outside facility)
B. Zone II (waiting area)
C. Zone III (control room and magnet adjacent)
D. Zone IV (scanner room)
Rationale: Zone III is restricted and requires supervision by Level 2 personnel (e.g., MRSO, MRMD,
trained technologist). Zone IV requires direct supervision. Zones I and II are public areas.
10. What is the purpose of the “ferromagnetic detection system” (FMDS)?
A. To improve image resolution
B. To screen individuals for concealed ferromagnetic objects before Zone IV entry
C. To measure SAR in real time
D. To cool the magnet
Rationale: FMDS (e.g., walk-through metal detectors) provide an additional layer of safety by
detecting ferromagnetic items missed during manual screening, reducing projectile risk. It does not
replace thorough verbal and visual screening.
11. Looped ECG leads can cause burns due to:
A. Static field attraction
B. Induced currents forming an antenna circuit
C. Gradient vibration
D. Cryogen contact
