NURS 5433 University Of Texas - Arlington -NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Questions
With Complete Solutions
NURS 5433
Question 1: Hypertension Management
A 56-year-old male presents with BP readings averaging 152/96 mmHg over three visits. He has
no diabetes or CKD. What is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Lifestyle modification only
B. Thiazide diuretic therapy
C. ACE inhibitor plus calcium channel blocker
D. Beta-blocker therapy
Correct Answer: ✅ B
Rationale:
This patient meets Stage 2 hypertension criteria
First-line agents include:
o Thiazide diuretics
o ACE inhibitors
o ARBs
o Calcium channel blockers
Beta-blockers are not first-line unless specific indications exist
Question 2: Chest Pain Evaluation
A 62-year-old woman presents with substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm, associated
with nausea and diaphoresis. What is the priority action?
A. Administer antacid
B. Order outpatient stress test
C. Activate emergency services
D. Prescribe nitroglycerin PRN
Correct Answer: ✅ C
Rationale:
These are classic acute coronary syndrome symptoms.
, Chest pressure
Radiation
Autonomic symptoms
This is a medical emergency, not an outpatient workup.
Question 3: Diabetes Management
A patient with Type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 8.6% despite metformin therapy. What is the next
best step?
A. Increase metformin dose
B. Add second oral agent or injectable therapy
C. Discontinue metformin
D. Initiate insulin immediately
Correct Answer: ✅ B
Rationale:
A1C >8% indicates inadequate control
Combination therapy is recommended
Insulin is not mandatory unless:
o A1C >10%
o Symptomatic hyperglycemia
Question 4: COPD Management
Which medication is considered first-line maintenance therapy for stable COPD?
A. Short-acting beta agonist
B. Inhaled corticosteroid alone
C. Long-acting bronchodilator
D. Oral corticosteroid
Correct Answer: ✅ C
Rationale:
LABAs or LAMAs are first-line maintenance
With Complete Solutions
NURS 5433
Question 1: Hypertension Management
A 56-year-old male presents with BP readings averaging 152/96 mmHg over three visits. He has
no diabetes or CKD. What is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Lifestyle modification only
B. Thiazide diuretic therapy
C. ACE inhibitor plus calcium channel blocker
D. Beta-blocker therapy
Correct Answer: ✅ B
Rationale:
This patient meets Stage 2 hypertension criteria
First-line agents include:
o Thiazide diuretics
o ACE inhibitors
o ARBs
o Calcium channel blockers
Beta-blockers are not first-line unless specific indications exist
Question 2: Chest Pain Evaluation
A 62-year-old woman presents with substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm, associated
with nausea and diaphoresis. What is the priority action?
A. Administer antacid
B. Order outpatient stress test
C. Activate emergency services
D. Prescribe nitroglycerin PRN
Correct Answer: ✅ C
Rationale:
These are classic acute coronary syndrome symptoms.
, Chest pressure
Radiation
Autonomic symptoms
This is a medical emergency, not an outpatient workup.
Question 3: Diabetes Management
A patient with Type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 8.6% despite metformin therapy. What is the next
best step?
A. Increase metformin dose
B. Add second oral agent or injectable therapy
C. Discontinue metformin
D. Initiate insulin immediately
Correct Answer: ✅ B
Rationale:
A1C >8% indicates inadequate control
Combination therapy is recommended
Insulin is not mandatory unless:
o A1C >10%
o Symptomatic hyperglycemia
Question 4: COPD Management
Which medication is considered first-line maintenance therapy for stable COPD?
A. Short-acting beta agonist
B. Inhaled corticosteroid alone
C. Long-acting bronchodilator
D. Oral corticosteroid
Correct Answer: ✅ C
Rationale:
LABAs or LAMAs are first-line maintenance
