SFPC EXAM 2025 WITH 300+ ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
SECURITY FUNDAMENTALS PROFESSIONAL
CERTIFICATION
Question 1
Which of the following best describes the primary goal of safety-focused patient care (SFPC)?
A. Minimize risks and prevent adverse events
B. Increase hospital revenue
C. Reduce patient satisfaction
D. Limit staff autonomy
Answer: A. Minimize risks and prevent adverse events
Rationale: SFPC aims to protect patients by preventing errors and adverse events in healthcare delivery.
1. During derivative classification, a classifier notices that a source document's classification level
appears inconsistent with current guidance. What is the correct action?
A. Downgrade the information unilaterally
B. Carry forward the original marking and note the concern separately
C. Challenge the classification through proper channels
D. Upgrade to match perceived sensitivity
**Answer: C**
**Explanation**: Derivative classifiers may challenge suspected over-classification via the OCA or
security manager (EO 13526, Section 1.8). They cannot unilaterally change levels.
2. A cleared contractor must destroy Top Secret media. Which method is NOT acceptable without
specific approval?
, A. Pulverization
B. Chemical decomposition
C. High-temperature incineration
D. Cross-cut shredding to 1mm x 5mm particles
**Answer: D**
**Explanation**: TS media requires approved methods like pulverization, melting, or chemical
decomposition. Shredding alone is insufficient for TS (DoDM 5200.01, Volume 2).
3. An employee reports foreign relatives pressing for information about their U.S. job. Which guideline is
primarily implicated?
A. Guideline B: Foreign Influence
B. Guideline C: Foreign Preference
C. Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
D. Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
**Answer: A**
**Explanation**: Foreign Influence (Guideline B) covers relatives or associates who could exploit ties
to coerce information disclosure.
4. A SCIF is accredited for open storage of Secret information. An inspector finds the IDS response time
is 20 minutes. Is this compliant?
A. Yes, for Secret
B. No, must be 15 minutes or less
C. Yes, if supplemented by guards
D. No, must be 5 minutes
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: Secret open storage requires IDS with 15-minute response (ICD 705 and DoDM
5200.01 Vol 3).
,5. A company with foreign ownership applies for a Facility Clearance. DCSA identifies FOCI. Which
mitigation is least restrictive for continued U.S. board control?
A. Proxy Agreement
B. Voting Trust
C. Special Security Agreement (SSA)
D. Board Resolution only
**Answer: C**
**Explanation**: SSA allows continued operation with oversight while preserving some U.S. control;
more restrictive options (proxy/voting trust) remove foreign influence entirely.
6. Under SEAD 3, which event requires self-reporting within 24 hours?
A. Routine foreign travel
B. Unofficial foreign contact attempting elicitation
C. Marriage to U.S. citizen
D. Change of address
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: Attempted elicitation or recruitment by foreign entities requires immediate
reporting.
7. "Contained in" vs. "Revealed by" in classification guides: which requires OCA determination for new
associations?
A. Contained in
B. Revealed by
C. Both equally
D. Neither
**Answer: B**
, **Explanation**: "Revealed by" covers compilation or association effects requiring OCA judgment
(SCG best practice).
8. TEMPEST requirements apply primarily to:
A. Acoustic protection
B. Emanations security
C. Intrusion detection
D. Perimeter barriers
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: TEMPEST counters compromising emanations from electronic equipment (ICD 705).
9. DD Form 254 is revised mid-contract to add SAP access. What must the contractor do?
A. Nothing until contract end
B. Submit a new capability statement and await nomination
C. Immediately grant access to cleared personnel
D. Reject the revision
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: SAP access requires formal nomination and approval process.
10. Guideline I (Psychological Conditions): A cleared employee is diagnosed with a condition but is fully
treated and stable. Mitigation likely if:
A. Condition is chronic and untreatable
B. Treatment ongoing and effective, no impairment
C. Diagnosis recent and severe
D. Medication causes side effects
**Answer: B**
AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
SECURITY FUNDAMENTALS PROFESSIONAL
CERTIFICATION
Question 1
Which of the following best describes the primary goal of safety-focused patient care (SFPC)?
A. Minimize risks and prevent adverse events
B. Increase hospital revenue
C. Reduce patient satisfaction
D. Limit staff autonomy
Answer: A. Minimize risks and prevent adverse events
Rationale: SFPC aims to protect patients by preventing errors and adverse events in healthcare delivery.
1. During derivative classification, a classifier notices that a source document's classification level
appears inconsistent with current guidance. What is the correct action?
A. Downgrade the information unilaterally
B. Carry forward the original marking and note the concern separately
C. Challenge the classification through proper channels
D. Upgrade to match perceived sensitivity
**Answer: C**
**Explanation**: Derivative classifiers may challenge suspected over-classification via the OCA or
security manager (EO 13526, Section 1.8). They cannot unilaterally change levels.
2. A cleared contractor must destroy Top Secret media. Which method is NOT acceptable without
specific approval?
, A. Pulverization
B. Chemical decomposition
C. High-temperature incineration
D. Cross-cut shredding to 1mm x 5mm particles
**Answer: D**
**Explanation**: TS media requires approved methods like pulverization, melting, or chemical
decomposition. Shredding alone is insufficient for TS (DoDM 5200.01, Volume 2).
3. An employee reports foreign relatives pressing for information about their U.S. job. Which guideline is
primarily implicated?
A. Guideline B: Foreign Influence
B. Guideline C: Foreign Preference
C. Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
D. Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
**Answer: A**
**Explanation**: Foreign Influence (Guideline B) covers relatives or associates who could exploit ties
to coerce information disclosure.
4. A SCIF is accredited for open storage of Secret information. An inspector finds the IDS response time
is 20 minutes. Is this compliant?
A. Yes, for Secret
B. No, must be 15 minutes or less
C. Yes, if supplemented by guards
D. No, must be 5 minutes
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: Secret open storage requires IDS with 15-minute response (ICD 705 and DoDM
5200.01 Vol 3).
,5. A company with foreign ownership applies for a Facility Clearance. DCSA identifies FOCI. Which
mitigation is least restrictive for continued U.S. board control?
A. Proxy Agreement
B. Voting Trust
C. Special Security Agreement (SSA)
D. Board Resolution only
**Answer: C**
**Explanation**: SSA allows continued operation with oversight while preserving some U.S. control;
more restrictive options (proxy/voting trust) remove foreign influence entirely.
6. Under SEAD 3, which event requires self-reporting within 24 hours?
A. Routine foreign travel
B. Unofficial foreign contact attempting elicitation
C. Marriage to U.S. citizen
D. Change of address
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: Attempted elicitation or recruitment by foreign entities requires immediate
reporting.
7. "Contained in" vs. "Revealed by" in classification guides: which requires OCA determination for new
associations?
A. Contained in
B. Revealed by
C. Both equally
D. Neither
**Answer: B**
, **Explanation**: "Revealed by" covers compilation or association effects requiring OCA judgment
(SCG best practice).
8. TEMPEST requirements apply primarily to:
A. Acoustic protection
B. Emanations security
C. Intrusion detection
D. Perimeter barriers
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: TEMPEST counters compromising emanations from electronic equipment (ICD 705).
9. DD Form 254 is revised mid-contract to add SAP access. What must the contractor do?
A. Nothing until contract end
B. Submit a new capability statement and await nomination
C. Immediately grant access to cleared personnel
D. Reject the revision
**Answer: B**
**Explanation**: SAP access requires formal nomination and approval process.
10. Guideline I (Psychological Conditions): A cleared employee is diagnosed with a condition but is fully
treated and stable. Mitigation likely if:
A. Condition is chronic and untreatable
B. Treatment ongoing and effective, no impairment
C. Diagnosis recent and severe
D. Medication causes side effects
**Answer: B**
