HESI RN EXIT EXAM PREDICTOR 2026/2027 Complete Exit
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SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS (Questions 1-20)
The nurse is assessing a 78-year-old client who is 6 hours post-op for a fractured hip. Which
finding should the nurse report first?
A. Blood pressure 138/82 mm Hg
B. Urinary output 25 mL/h for the past 2 hours
C. Respiratory rate 20 breaths/min
D. Client reports pain 6/10
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oligouria (<30 mL/h) may indicate hypovolemia or impending shock; requires
immediate intervention.
Test-Taking Tip: Use the "ABC plus safety" framework—urinary output reflects circulating
volume (circulation).
The nurse is delegating client care to an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Which task should the nurse not delegate?
A. Measuring oral intake and output
B. Recording vital signs on a stable client
C. Assessing a client’s lung sounds
D. Bathing a client who is on bedrest
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment requires licensed nurse judgment and cannot be delegated to UAP.
Strategy: Remember the "5 Rights of Delegation"—right task, circumstance, person, direction,
supervision.
A client is receiving IV potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour. Which action is most important
for the nurse to take?
A. Monitor the IV site for infiltration
B. Ensure the infusion is given via a central line only
C. Verify the pump is set to alarm at 5 mL remaining
D. Check that the bag is labeled with a high-alert sticker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Potassium is a vesicant and can cause tissue necrosis if infiltrated; continuous
monitoring is essential.
The nurse notes a new graduate nurse preparing to insert a urinary catheter without performing
hand hygiene. What should the nurse do first?
A. Report the incident to the nurse manager
B. Stop the procedure and remind the nurse to perform hand hygiene
C. Allow the procedure to continue and document the error afterward
,D. Complete an incident report
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immediate client safety takes precedence; stop the unsafe action first.
A client is prescribed a low-sodium (2 g) diet. Which lunch selection indicates the client needs
further teaching?
A. Grilled chicken sandwich with fresh avocado
B. Tomato juice and a ham-and-cheese sandwich
C. Garden salad with oil and vinegar dressing
D. Baked potato with unsalted butter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Processed meats (ham) and tomato juice are high in sodium.
The nurse is performing a skin assessment on an immobile client. Which area is most likely to
exhibit pressure-injury formation first?
A. Sacrum
B. Scapula
C. Occiput
D. Heel
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sacrum is a primary pressure point in supine clients and often first to show redness.
The nurse is preparing to administer 0.9 % normal saline 1,000 mL over 8 hours. The drop
factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in gtt/min? (Fill-in-the-blank, round to whole number)
Answer: 31 gtt/min
Calculation:
1,000 mL ÷ 8 h = 125 mL/h
125 mL/h ÷ 60 min = 2.08 mL/min
2.08 mL/min × 15 gtt/mL = 31.25 ≈ 31 gtt/min
The nurse is teaching a client how to use a walker. Which action indicates the client
understands the teaching?
A. Moves the walker 18 inches forward, then steps to it
B. Leans over the walker while advancing it
C. Lifts the walker and places it forward
D. Steps into the walker rather than stopping at the back bar
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stepping into the walker maintains center of gravity and prevents falls.
The nurse is reviewing lab values for a client receiving furosemide. Which value should be
reported immediately?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
C. Chloride 100 mEq/L
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (<3.5) can precipitate life-threatening dysrhythmias.
A client is experiencing tachypnea and reports tingling in the fingers. Arterial blood gas shows
pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 28 mm Hg, HCO₃ 24 mEq/L. The nurse suspects:
, A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low PaCO₂ and high pH indicate hyperventilation → respiratory alkalosis.
The nurse is performing a select-all-that-apply question on risk factors for pressure injuries.
Which factors increase risk? (Select all that apply)
A. Incontinence
B. Poor nutrition
C. Hypertension
D. Limited mobility
E. Advanced age
F. Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: A, B, D, E, F
Rationale: Hypertension is not a direct risk factor; the others impair perfusion, sensation, or skin
integrity.
The nurse is evaluating a client’s pain level using the PQRST method. The "S" stands for:
A. Severity
B. Site
C. Setting
D. Symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PQRST: Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Time.
The nurse is preparing to change a sterile dressing. Which action violates sterile technique?
A. Placing sterile gloves on before opening sterile supplies
B. Holding sterile objects above waist level
C. Turning away from the sterile field to answer a phone call
D. Using sterile forceps to handle dressings
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Turning away can contaminate the field by oversight or airflow.
The nurse is assessing a client’s oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. SpO₂ 97 % on room air
B. SpO₂ 88 % on 4 L nasal cannula
C. SpO₂ 95 % on 2 L nasal cannula
D. SpO₂ 100 % on room air
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SpO₂ <90 % indicates hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen.
The nurse is documenting client care. Which entry follows legal guidelines?
A. "Client appears to be in pain."
B. "Client states pain is 8/10, grimacing, guarding left lower abdomen."
C. "Client is lazy and refuses to ambulate."
D. "Client seems fine."
Exam Preparation | Actual Questions & Verified Predictor |
NCLEX-RN Readiness Assessment | Pass Guarantee
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS (Questions 1-20)
The nurse is assessing a 78-year-old client who is 6 hours post-op for a fractured hip. Which
finding should the nurse report first?
A. Blood pressure 138/82 mm Hg
B. Urinary output 25 mL/h for the past 2 hours
C. Respiratory rate 20 breaths/min
D. Client reports pain 6/10
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oligouria (<30 mL/h) may indicate hypovolemia or impending shock; requires
immediate intervention.
Test-Taking Tip: Use the "ABC plus safety" framework—urinary output reflects circulating
volume (circulation).
The nurse is delegating client care to an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Which task should the nurse not delegate?
A. Measuring oral intake and output
B. Recording vital signs on a stable client
C. Assessing a client’s lung sounds
D. Bathing a client who is on bedrest
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment requires licensed nurse judgment and cannot be delegated to UAP.
Strategy: Remember the "5 Rights of Delegation"—right task, circumstance, person, direction,
supervision.
A client is receiving IV potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour. Which action is most important
for the nurse to take?
A. Monitor the IV site for infiltration
B. Ensure the infusion is given via a central line only
C. Verify the pump is set to alarm at 5 mL remaining
D. Check that the bag is labeled with a high-alert sticker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Potassium is a vesicant and can cause tissue necrosis if infiltrated; continuous
monitoring is essential.
The nurse notes a new graduate nurse preparing to insert a urinary catheter without performing
hand hygiene. What should the nurse do first?
A. Report the incident to the nurse manager
B. Stop the procedure and remind the nurse to perform hand hygiene
C. Allow the procedure to continue and document the error afterward
,D. Complete an incident report
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immediate client safety takes precedence; stop the unsafe action first.
A client is prescribed a low-sodium (2 g) diet. Which lunch selection indicates the client needs
further teaching?
A. Grilled chicken sandwich with fresh avocado
B. Tomato juice and a ham-and-cheese sandwich
C. Garden salad with oil and vinegar dressing
D. Baked potato with unsalted butter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Processed meats (ham) and tomato juice are high in sodium.
The nurse is performing a skin assessment on an immobile client. Which area is most likely to
exhibit pressure-injury formation first?
A. Sacrum
B. Scapula
C. Occiput
D. Heel
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sacrum is a primary pressure point in supine clients and often first to show redness.
The nurse is preparing to administer 0.9 % normal saline 1,000 mL over 8 hours. The drop
factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in gtt/min? (Fill-in-the-blank, round to whole number)
Answer: 31 gtt/min
Calculation:
1,000 mL ÷ 8 h = 125 mL/h
125 mL/h ÷ 60 min = 2.08 mL/min
2.08 mL/min × 15 gtt/mL = 31.25 ≈ 31 gtt/min
The nurse is teaching a client how to use a walker. Which action indicates the client
understands the teaching?
A. Moves the walker 18 inches forward, then steps to it
B. Leans over the walker while advancing it
C. Lifts the walker and places it forward
D. Steps into the walker rather than stopping at the back bar
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stepping into the walker maintains center of gravity and prevents falls.
The nurse is reviewing lab values for a client receiving furosemide. Which value should be
reported immediately?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
C. Chloride 100 mEq/L
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (<3.5) can precipitate life-threatening dysrhythmias.
A client is experiencing tachypnea and reports tingling in the fingers. Arterial blood gas shows
pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 28 mm Hg, HCO₃ 24 mEq/L. The nurse suspects:
, A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low PaCO₂ and high pH indicate hyperventilation → respiratory alkalosis.
The nurse is performing a select-all-that-apply question on risk factors for pressure injuries.
Which factors increase risk? (Select all that apply)
A. Incontinence
B. Poor nutrition
C. Hypertension
D. Limited mobility
E. Advanced age
F. Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: A, B, D, E, F
Rationale: Hypertension is not a direct risk factor; the others impair perfusion, sensation, or skin
integrity.
The nurse is evaluating a client’s pain level using the PQRST method. The "S" stands for:
A. Severity
B. Site
C. Setting
D. Symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PQRST: Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Time.
The nurse is preparing to change a sterile dressing. Which action violates sterile technique?
A. Placing sterile gloves on before opening sterile supplies
B. Holding sterile objects above waist level
C. Turning away from the sterile field to answer a phone call
D. Using sterile forceps to handle dressings
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Turning away can contaminate the field by oversight or airflow.
The nurse is assessing a client’s oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. SpO₂ 97 % on room air
B. SpO₂ 88 % on 4 L nasal cannula
C. SpO₂ 95 % on 2 L nasal cannula
D. SpO₂ 100 % on room air
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SpO₂ <90 % indicates hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen.
The nurse is documenting client care. Which entry follows legal guidelines?
A. "Client appears to be in pain."
B. "Client states pain is 8/10, grimacing, guarding left lower abdomen."
C. "Client is lazy and refuses to ambulate."
D. "Client seems fine."
