ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY (PN) COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST AND
COMPLETE UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS –
ASSURED PASS WITH INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate to a client with post-
operative pain. Which of the following assessments is most important before
giving this medication?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Heart rate
D. Temperature
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory
depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administration is critical to
prevent respiratory compromise.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. White blood cell count
B. Blood glucose
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics increase potassium excretion, which can lead
to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential.
3. A client reports a new onset of dry cough after starting an ACE inhibitor.
Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increasing the dose
B. Discontinuing the medication and notifying the provider
C. Advising the client to take an antitussive
, D. Reassuring the client that this is expected
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors. The provider should be notified, and alternative therapy may be
considered.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin. Which of the following findings indicates
toxicity?
A. Bradycardia, nausea, and visual disturbances
B. Vomiting, visual halos, and irregular pulse
C. Hypertension and headache
D. Increased appetite and weight gain
Rationale: Signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal symptoms,
visual disturbances, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring for these signs is
critical.
5. A client is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for
osteoarthritis. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Take with an empty stomach
B. Limit fluid intake
C. Take with food or milk
D. Avoid calcium supplements
Rationale: NSAIDs can irritate the gastric mucosa. Taking them with food
or milk reduces gastrointestinal discomfort.
6. A nurse is reviewing a client’s medications and notes that they are taking
warfarin and amiodarone. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage exercise
B. Monitor INR levels closely
C. Assess for edema
D. Monitor liver enzymes weekly
, Rationale: Amiodarone can increase warfarin levels, heightening the risk of
bleeding. INR monitoring is essential for dose adjustment.
7. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Which statement by the client
indicates a correct understanding of the medication?
A. “I will use this inhaler to prevent asthma attacks.”
B. “I will use this inhaler when I have sudden shortness of breath.”
C. “I should take this medication daily to prevent infections.”
D. “I will stop taking it when I feel better.”
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2 agonist used for acute
bronchospasm relief, not for prevention.
8. A client is receiving IV furosemide. Which assessment finding requires
immediate action?
A. Blood pressure 118/72 mmHg
B. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Heart rate 84 bpm
D. Oxygen saturation 96%
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. A
potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate
intervention.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about metformin. Which statement indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. “I should take this medication with meals to reduce stomach upset.”
B. “I need to monitor my blood glucose regularly.”
C. “I can drink alcohol freely while taking this medication.”
D. “I should report any signs of lactic acidosis immediately.”
Rationale: Alcohol increases the risk of lactic acidosis with metformin.
Clients should be cautioned to limit alcohol intake.
, 10.A client is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor for gastroesophageal reflux
disease. Which outcome indicates the medication is effective?
A. Increased appetite
B. Decreased heartburn and regurgitation
C. Weight loss
D. Reduced bowel movements
Rationale: PPIs reduce gastric acid secretion. Relief of heartburn and acid
regurgitation indicates therapeutic effectiveness.
11.A client with type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and anxious.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check the client’s blood glucose
C. Give a high-protein snack
D. Encourage rest
Rationale: These are signs of hypoglycemia. Checking blood glucose is the
priority to confirm and treat appropriately.
12.A nurse is educating a client prescribed amoxicillin for a bacterial infection.
Which statement requires correction?
A. “I will take all doses even if I feel better.”
B. “It’s safe to take with a known penicillin allergy.”
C. “I will finish the full course.”
D. “I may experience mild diarrhea or nausea.”
Rationale: Penicillin allergy is a contraindication. Taking amoxicillin with
an allergy can cause anaphylaxis.
13.A client taking levothyroxine reports palpitations and insomnia. Which
action is appropriate?
A. Encourage exercise
ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST AND
COMPLETE UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS –
ASSURED PASS WITH INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate to a client with post-
operative pain. Which of the following assessments is most important before
giving this medication?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Heart rate
D. Temperature
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory
depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administration is critical to
prevent respiratory compromise.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. White blood cell count
B. Blood glucose
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics increase potassium excretion, which can lead
to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential.
3. A client reports a new onset of dry cough after starting an ACE inhibitor.
Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increasing the dose
B. Discontinuing the medication and notifying the provider
C. Advising the client to take an antitussive
, D. Reassuring the client that this is expected
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors. The provider should be notified, and alternative therapy may be
considered.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin. Which of the following findings indicates
toxicity?
A. Bradycardia, nausea, and visual disturbances
B. Vomiting, visual halos, and irregular pulse
C. Hypertension and headache
D. Increased appetite and weight gain
Rationale: Signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal symptoms,
visual disturbances, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring for these signs is
critical.
5. A client is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for
osteoarthritis. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Take with an empty stomach
B. Limit fluid intake
C. Take with food or milk
D. Avoid calcium supplements
Rationale: NSAIDs can irritate the gastric mucosa. Taking them with food
or milk reduces gastrointestinal discomfort.
6. A nurse is reviewing a client’s medications and notes that they are taking
warfarin and amiodarone. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage exercise
B. Monitor INR levels closely
C. Assess for edema
D. Monitor liver enzymes weekly
, Rationale: Amiodarone can increase warfarin levels, heightening the risk of
bleeding. INR monitoring is essential for dose adjustment.
7. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Which statement by the client
indicates a correct understanding of the medication?
A. “I will use this inhaler to prevent asthma attacks.”
B. “I will use this inhaler when I have sudden shortness of breath.”
C. “I should take this medication daily to prevent infections.”
D. “I will stop taking it when I feel better.”
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2 agonist used for acute
bronchospasm relief, not for prevention.
8. A client is receiving IV furosemide. Which assessment finding requires
immediate action?
A. Blood pressure 118/72 mmHg
B. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Heart rate 84 bpm
D. Oxygen saturation 96%
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. A
potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate
intervention.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about metformin. Which statement indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. “I should take this medication with meals to reduce stomach upset.”
B. “I need to monitor my blood glucose regularly.”
C. “I can drink alcohol freely while taking this medication.”
D. “I should report any signs of lactic acidosis immediately.”
Rationale: Alcohol increases the risk of lactic acidosis with metformin.
Clients should be cautioned to limit alcohol intake.
, 10.A client is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor for gastroesophageal reflux
disease. Which outcome indicates the medication is effective?
A. Increased appetite
B. Decreased heartburn and regurgitation
C. Weight loss
D. Reduced bowel movements
Rationale: PPIs reduce gastric acid secretion. Relief of heartburn and acid
regurgitation indicates therapeutic effectiveness.
11.A client with type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and anxious.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check the client’s blood glucose
C. Give a high-protein snack
D. Encourage rest
Rationale: These are signs of hypoglycemia. Checking blood glucose is the
priority to confirm and treat appropriately.
12.A nurse is educating a client prescribed amoxicillin for a bacterial infection.
Which statement requires correction?
A. “I will take all doses even if I feel better.”
B. “It’s safe to take with a known penicillin allergy.”
C. “I will finish the full course.”
D. “I may experience mild diarrhea or nausea.”
Rationale: Penicillin allergy is a contraindication. Taking amoxicillin with
an allergy can cause anaphylaxis.
13.A client taking levothyroxine reports palpitations and insomnia. Which
action is appropriate?
A. Encourage exercise
