OCN - PRACTICE TESTS QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS;
ALREADY GRADED A
A 20-year-old woman with a family history of BRCA1 and BRCA2
breast cancer asks when she should have a mammogram. The
nurse recommends:
A. talking with her doctor about the benefits and limitations of
starting screening early.
B. having a yearly mammogram beginning at the age of 35.
C. having a breast ultrasound after the birth of her first child.
D. screening to begin at the age of her family member's
diagnosis. - correct answer- A. talking with her doctor about
the benefits and limitations of starting screening early.
Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
Women at increased risk (e.g., family history, genetic tendency,
past history of breast cancer) should talk with their doctors
about the benefits and limitations of starting mammography
screening earlier, having additional tests, or having more
frequent exams.
,A 21-year-old patient recently withdrew from college classes
secondary to cancer recurrence. His parents report that the
patient is moody and is no longer seeing friends and classmates.
The nurse initiates strategies aimed at achieving which of the
following patient outcomes?
A. Participation in a clinical trial
B. Maintenance of open communication
C. Re-enrollment in college courses
D. Recognition of self-destructive behaviors - correct answer-
B. Maintenance of open communication
Providing open communication between the patient and parents
facilitates support and validation of feelings.
A 62-year-old patient with CD33-positive acute myeloid
leukemia in first relapse presents with a left ejection fraction of
40%. The nurse anticipates an order for:
A. gemtuzumab ozogamicin.
B. all-trans retinoic acid.
,C. cytarabine.
D. rituximab. - correct answer- A. gemtuzumab ozogamicin
Gemtuzumab ozogamicin is used for the treatment of relapsed
CD33-positive acute myeloid leukemia in patients greater than
or equal to 60 years of age, who would not be considered
candidates for cytotoxic chemotherapy.
A 69-year-old patient who received chemotherapy seven days
ago calls the nurse to report a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C)
and lightheadedness. The nurse determines the patient is
dyspneic and diaphoretic. The nurse's initial response is to
instruct the patient to:
A. take acetaminophen.
B. recheck his temperature in two hours.
C. report to the emergency department.
D. call for an ambulance. - correct answer- D. call for an
ambulance.
The time at which chemotherapy exerts its maximum effect on
the bone marrow and the white blood count reaches its lowest
point is the nadir. This usually occurs within 7 to 10 days after
, administration. Patients are most susceptible to infections at this
time due to neutropenia. In a neutropenic patient, infection may
rapidly progress to sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response to
microorganisms in the blood. Early signs of sepsis include fever,
chills, and tachypnea. Patients over the age of 65 are at greater
risk. Untreated sepsis can result in septic shock and death.
Immediate reporting of symptoms and medical management is
necessary.
A nurse mistakenly administers a long-acting morphine tablet
instead of the prescribed long-acting oxycodone. What is the
nurse's next step?
A. Continue to monitor the patient closely for the next eight
hours.
B. Hold all further medications for the patient.
C. Notify the patient and physician of the error.
D. Call the risk management department to guide
documentation. - correct answer- C. Notify the patient and
physician of the error.
When errors occur that could cause a possible injury to the
patient, explanation of the error and possible long and short
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS;
ALREADY GRADED A
A 20-year-old woman with a family history of BRCA1 and BRCA2
breast cancer asks when she should have a mammogram. The
nurse recommends:
A. talking with her doctor about the benefits and limitations of
starting screening early.
B. having a yearly mammogram beginning at the age of 35.
C. having a breast ultrasound after the birth of her first child.
D. screening to begin at the age of her family member's
diagnosis. - correct answer- A. talking with her doctor about
the benefits and limitations of starting screening early.
Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
Women at increased risk (e.g., family history, genetic tendency,
past history of breast cancer) should talk with their doctors
about the benefits and limitations of starting mammography
screening earlier, having additional tests, or having more
frequent exams.
,A 21-year-old patient recently withdrew from college classes
secondary to cancer recurrence. His parents report that the
patient is moody and is no longer seeing friends and classmates.
The nurse initiates strategies aimed at achieving which of the
following patient outcomes?
A. Participation in a clinical trial
B. Maintenance of open communication
C. Re-enrollment in college courses
D. Recognition of self-destructive behaviors - correct answer-
B. Maintenance of open communication
Providing open communication between the patient and parents
facilitates support and validation of feelings.
A 62-year-old patient with CD33-positive acute myeloid
leukemia in first relapse presents with a left ejection fraction of
40%. The nurse anticipates an order for:
A. gemtuzumab ozogamicin.
B. all-trans retinoic acid.
,C. cytarabine.
D. rituximab. - correct answer- A. gemtuzumab ozogamicin
Gemtuzumab ozogamicin is used for the treatment of relapsed
CD33-positive acute myeloid leukemia in patients greater than
or equal to 60 years of age, who would not be considered
candidates for cytotoxic chemotherapy.
A 69-year-old patient who received chemotherapy seven days
ago calls the nurse to report a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C)
and lightheadedness. The nurse determines the patient is
dyspneic and diaphoretic. The nurse's initial response is to
instruct the patient to:
A. take acetaminophen.
B. recheck his temperature in two hours.
C. report to the emergency department.
D. call for an ambulance. - correct answer- D. call for an
ambulance.
The time at which chemotherapy exerts its maximum effect on
the bone marrow and the white blood count reaches its lowest
point is the nadir. This usually occurs within 7 to 10 days after
, administration. Patients are most susceptible to infections at this
time due to neutropenia. In a neutropenic patient, infection may
rapidly progress to sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response to
microorganisms in the blood. Early signs of sepsis include fever,
chills, and tachypnea. Patients over the age of 65 are at greater
risk. Untreated sepsis can result in septic shock and death.
Immediate reporting of symptoms and medical management is
necessary.
A nurse mistakenly administers a long-acting morphine tablet
instead of the prescribed long-acting oxycodone. What is the
nurse's next step?
A. Continue to monitor the patient closely for the next eight
hours.
B. Hold all further medications for the patient.
C. Notify the patient and physician of the error.
D. Call the risk management department to guide
documentation. - correct answer- C. Notify the patient and
physician of the error.
When errors occur that could cause a possible injury to the
patient, explanation of the error and possible long and short
