“ORTHOTIC WRITTEN EXAM REVIEW 2026
”LATEST EXAM 2026 – 2027 SOLVED
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100%
GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED
100% GUARANTEE PASS
Orthotic Written Exam Review
where does the sternum terminate inferiorly?
a. manubrium
b. xiphoid process
c. clavicle
d. inferior angle of the scapula
b. xiphoid process
what is the mechanism of injury for a burst fracture?
a. compression with flexion
b. flexion and axial loading
c. translation, flexion, rotation with shear
d. flexion with distraction
a. compression with flexion
what is the mechanism of injury for a compression fracture?
a. compression with flexion
b. flexion and axial loading
c. translation, flexion, rotation with shear
d. flexion with distraction
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b. flexion and axial loading
what is the mechanism of injury for a fracture dislocation?
a. compression with flexion
b. flexion and axial loading
c. translation, flexion, rotation with shear
d. flexion with distraction
c. translation, flexion, rotation with shear
what is the mechanism of injury for a seat belt injury?
a. compression with flexion
b. flexion and axial loading
c. translation, flexion, rotation with shear
d. flexion with distraction
d. flexion with distraction
what are some negative effects of spinal bracing?
tightness or contracture
psychological dependence
weakening or atrophy of spinal muscles
for frame type orthoses, where are the paraspinal bars located?
a. mid axillary trochanteric line
b. anteriorly, parallel to mid-sagittal line
c. posteriorly, on either side of the spinous processes
d. between the inferior angle of scapula and spine of the scapula
c. posteriorly, on either side of the spinous processes
for an LSO frame type orthosis, the superior edge of a thoracic band is located
___mm inferior to the _____.
a. 12mm, spine of scapula
b. 24mm, inferior angle of scapula
c. 24mm, spine of scapula
d. 12mm, inferior angle of scapula
b. 24mm, inferior angle of scapula
identify the component of the frame type orthosis that provides sagittal plane
control and can induce a posterior or anterior pelvic tilt.
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a. lateral bars
b. corset/apron front
c. thoracic band
d. pelvic band
d. pelvic band
which of the following describes an LSO that has lateral bars?
a. knight style
b. taylor style
c. knight taylor style
d. hyperextension style
a. knight style
the addition of lateral bars offers additional control in what plane?
a. coronal plane
b. sagittal plane
c. transverse plane
a. coronal plane
what orthotic treatment would you recommend for a stable anterior
compression fracture of T8?
a. knight style LSO
b. jewett TLSO
c. chairback LSO
d. bivalved total contact polymer TLSO
b. jewett TLSO
how do spinal orthoses realign the spine and/or control motion?
a. kinesthetic reminder
b. 3 point pressure systems
c. circumferential compression
d. none of these
b. 3 point pressure systems
T/F. the CASH hyperextension control orthosis provides some rotational
control.
false
what spinal orthotic treatment would you recommend for treatment of mild
(4/10) low back pain that worsens when standing for long periods?
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a. SI belt
b. LSO corset
c. frame style LSO
d. TLSO body jacket
b. LSO corset
which fracture is most commonly associated with osteoporosis?
compression fracture
which of the following best describes a Hangman's fracture?
a. fracture of the dens
b. fracture of the pars
c. bilateral pedicle fracture involving C2 vertebra
d. none of these
c. bilateral pedicle fracture involving C2 vertebra
compression fractures with a greater than ____% loss of vertebral body height
are more likely to have instability due to associated posterior ligamentous
involvement.
a. 15%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
c. 50%
spondylolisthesis is defined as anterior slippage of the ______ vertebra
relative to the ______ vertebra.
a. superior, inferior
b. inferior, superior
c. anterior, posterior
d. posterior, anterior
a. superior, inferior
this spinal condition can be described as below normal bone density resulting
in vulnerable bone structure.
a. osteosarcoma
b. spinal arthritis
c. spondylolisthesis
d. osteoporosis