WGU D118 QUIZ SCRIPT REVIEW SET VIEW
AHEAD ASSESSMENT 2026 100% CORRECT.
◍ A patient presenting with nasal congestion, fever, purulent nasal
discharge, headache, and facial pain begins treatment with
amoxicillin-clavulanate. At a follow-up visit 10 days after initiation of
treatment, the patient continues to have purulent discharge,
congestion, and facial pain without fever. What is the next course of
action for this patient?
A. A referral to an otolaryngologist
B. An antibiotic based on likely resistant organism
C. A trial of azithromycin
D. A CT scan of the paranasal sinuses. Answer: B. An antibiotic based
on likely resistant organism: An antibiotic based on likely resistant
organism Treatment failure is seen in patients who do not have
symptom improvement and the provider has re-confirmed the
diagnosis of ABRS and assessed for complications. In these patients,
the choice of antibiotic treatment is based on likely resistant
organisms. The lack of fever shows improvement, so this antibiotic
may be used. CT scan is usually not performed in adults unless other
complications are present or suspected. Referral to an
otolaryngologist is necessary if no improvement after the second
course of antibiotics. Azithromycin is not used in adults unless
pregnant, due to resistance patterns
◍ A 35-year old patient develops acute viral bronchitis. Which is the
focus for the management of symptoms in this patient?
,A. Supportive care
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. antitussive therapy
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole therapy. Answer: A. Supportive
care: Supportive care The mainstay of treatment in acute bronchitis is
directed toward symptom reduction and supportive care. Data suggest
that 85% of patients diagnosed with acute bronchitis will improve
without specific treatment. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is
prescribed for pertussis when macrolides are not an option. Antibiotic
therapy is not effective in treating viral acute bronchitis.
◍ Which is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the
United States?
A. Gallstones
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Trauma. Answer: A. Gallstones: Gallstones are the most common
cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States.
◍ Which types of chronic noninfectious diarrhea will cause fatty
stools? (Select all that apply.)
A. Lactose intolerance
B. Celiac disease
, C. Pancreatic insufficiency
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Cystic fibrosis. Answer: B-C-E: Celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, and
pancreatic insufficiency all produce malabsorption of fats and will
result in fatty stools. Diabetes results in glucose malabsorption, while
lactose intolerance causes lactose malabsorption.
◍ A 50 year old patient has osteoarthritis in the the lumbar spine and
hip. His hip x ray shows bone on bone. What can be done to resolve
his complaints of pain in his hip?
A. Acetaminophen only
B. NSAID only
C. Acetaminophen and physical therapy
D. Acetaminophen and a referral to orthopedics. Answer: D.
Acetaminophen and a referral to orthopedics: Acetaminophen and a
referral to orthopedics. If the x ray shows bone on bone, the patient
has severe osteoarthritis. he should be given something to manage his
pain, acetaminophen initially. a referral to an orthopedic physician is
recommended due to the severity of the condition asthma medications
alone will unlikely resolve his pain complaints, additionally since he
is only 50 years old and there is no mention of comorbidities question
he would be a good surgical candidate based on this information.
◍ A 57 year old patient complains of severe pain at the base of his left
toe. He is limping and says he cannot recall injuring the toe. The
APRN conducts a physical exam and orders diagnostic testing to
AHEAD ASSESSMENT 2026 100% CORRECT.
◍ A patient presenting with nasal congestion, fever, purulent nasal
discharge, headache, and facial pain begins treatment with
amoxicillin-clavulanate. At a follow-up visit 10 days after initiation of
treatment, the patient continues to have purulent discharge,
congestion, and facial pain without fever. What is the next course of
action for this patient?
A. A referral to an otolaryngologist
B. An antibiotic based on likely resistant organism
C. A trial of azithromycin
D. A CT scan of the paranasal sinuses. Answer: B. An antibiotic based
on likely resistant organism: An antibiotic based on likely resistant
organism Treatment failure is seen in patients who do not have
symptom improvement and the provider has re-confirmed the
diagnosis of ABRS and assessed for complications. In these patients,
the choice of antibiotic treatment is based on likely resistant
organisms. The lack of fever shows improvement, so this antibiotic
may be used. CT scan is usually not performed in adults unless other
complications are present or suspected. Referral to an
otolaryngologist is necessary if no improvement after the second
course of antibiotics. Azithromycin is not used in adults unless
pregnant, due to resistance patterns
◍ A 35-year old patient develops acute viral bronchitis. Which is the
focus for the management of symptoms in this patient?
,A. Supportive care
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. antitussive therapy
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole therapy. Answer: A. Supportive
care: Supportive care The mainstay of treatment in acute bronchitis is
directed toward symptom reduction and supportive care. Data suggest
that 85% of patients diagnosed with acute bronchitis will improve
without specific treatment. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is
prescribed for pertussis when macrolides are not an option. Antibiotic
therapy is not effective in treating viral acute bronchitis.
◍ Which is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the
United States?
A. Gallstones
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Trauma. Answer: A. Gallstones: Gallstones are the most common
cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States.
◍ Which types of chronic noninfectious diarrhea will cause fatty
stools? (Select all that apply.)
A. Lactose intolerance
B. Celiac disease
, C. Pancreatic insufficiency
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Cystic fibrosis. Answer: B-C-E: Celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, and
pancreatic insufficiency all produce malabsorption of fats and will
result in fatty stools. Diabetes results in glucose malabsorption, while
lactose intolerance causes lactose malabsorption.
◍ A 50 year old patient has osteoarthritis in the the lumbar spine and
hip. His hip x ray shows bone on bone. What can be done to resolve
his complaints of pain in his hip?
A. Acetaminophen only
B. NSAID only
C. Acetaminophen and physical therapy
D. Acetaminophen and a referral to orthopedics. Answer: D.
Acetaminophen and a referral to orthopedics: Acetaminophen and a
referral to orthopedics. If the x ray shows bone on bone, the patient
has severe osteoarthritis. he should be given something to manage his
pain, acetaminophen initially. a referral to an orthopedic physician is
recommended due to the severity of the condition asthma medications
alone will unlikely resolve his pain complaints, additionally since he
is only 50 years old and there is no mention of comorbidities question
he would be a good surgical candidate based on this information.
◍ A 57 year old patient complains of severe pain at the base of his left
toe. He is limping and says he cannot recall injuring the toe. The
APRN conducts a physical exam and orders diagnostic testing to
