NHA CCMA 3.0 Final Practice Test (2026/2027) | Actual Exam-Style Questions with Verified Answers, Correct Solutions, and Detailed Rationales | Achieve 100% Accuracy

NHA CCMA 3.0 Final Practice Test (2026/2027) | Actual Exam-Style Questions with Verified Answers, Correct Solutions, and Detailed Rationales | Achieve 100% Accuracy 1. Weber test - ANSWER Test done by placing the stem of a vibrating tuning fork on the midline of the head and having the patient indicate in which ear the tone can be heard. 2. Rinne test - ANSWER hearing test using a tuning fork; checks for differences in bone conduction and air conduction 3. Snellen chart - ANSWER chart containing symbols that is used in the testing of visual acuity 4. 50/20 vision - ANSWER Below average: what patient sees letter at 20 ft is what normal population sees at 50 ft 5. Ishihara test - ANSWER tests for color vision 6. scratch test - ANSWER type of allergy testing in which body is exposed to allergens through a light scratch in skin 7. if a wheel occurs within the first 15 minutes, the allergist can identify the substance as a possible allergen 8. capillary - ANSWER smallest blood vessel; brings nutrients and oxygen to the tissues and absorbs carbon dioxide and waste products 9. endocardium - ANSWER inner lining of the heart 10. Pericardium - ANSWER membranous sac enclosing the heart 11. endo- - ANSWER within, inner 12. peri- - ANSWER surrounding, around 13. HR - ANSWER heart rate 14. VS - ANSWER vital signs (TPR & BP) 15. electrocardiogram - ANSWER record of the electrical activity of the heart 16. electrical impulse is generated by - ANSWER SA node 17. SA node (sinoatrial node) - ANSWER pacemaker of the heart 18. from SA node, impulse travels to - ANSWER AV node 19. AV node (atrioventricular node) - ANSWER gatekeeper 20. from AV node impulse travels to - ANSWER bundle of His & through bundle branches located in the ventricular septum 21. after bundle of His and bundle branches where's last place electrical impulse reaches? - ANSWER Purkinje fibers 22. Purkinje fibers cause ventricles to - ANSWER contract and pump blood into pulmonary artery and/or aorta 23. entire process of electrical impulses via heart - ANSWER Cardiac Cycle 24. Normal Blood Pressure (BP) range - ANSWER 120/80 mmHg 25. Normal heart rate (HR) - ANSWER 60-100 bpm 26. Normal respiratory rate (RR) - ANSWER 12-20 breaths per minute (BPM) 27. RR - ANSWER respiratory rate 28. P - ANSWER pulse 29. cerebrovascular accident (CVA) - ANSWER a.k.a. "Stroke". Lack of blood supply to the brain causing brain damage 30. MI - ANSWER myocardial infarction (heart attack) 31. F.A.S.T. - ANSWER Face, Arm, Speech, Time (signs of stroke) 32. Coagulation - ANSWER clotting of blood 33. Anemia - ANSWER a deficiency of red blood cells 34. denial - ANSWER during this stage, the grieving patient cannot or will not believe that the loss is happening or has happened 35. anger - ANSWER during this stage, the grieving patient might aim feelings of hostility at others 36. bargaining - ANSWER during this stage, the grieving person attempts to avoid the loss by making some kind of deal, such as wanting to live long enough to attend a particular family event 37. Depression - ANSWER during this stage, the reality of the situation takes hold, the grieving person feels sad, lonely, and helpless 38. Acceptance - ANSWER during this stage, the grieving person comes to terms with the loss and starts making plans for moving on with life 39. Barganing - ANSWER "if i can just get better, ill stop smoking forever" 40. Denial - ANSWER "the test is wrong; i dont have cancer" 41. Depression - ANSWER "i feel tired all the time, i dont have the energy to do anything" 42. Bargaining - ANSWER "if i just keep trying different therapies, eventually one of them will work" 43. Acceptance - ANSWER "even though ive lost my sight, life isnt over" 44. anger - ANSWER "how could god let this happen? im a good person" 45. anger - ANSWER "why didnt the doctor catch this sooner?" 46. Depression - ANSWER "i have no future now that im paralyzed" 47. Acceptance - ANSWER "mom lived a full life, im going to make her last few days comfortable." 48. Denial - ANSWER "i cant be dying! im only 22" 49. Advance directives - ANSWER a document that communicates a patients specific wishes for end-of-life care should the patient become unable to do so. 50. Durable power of attorney for health care - ANSWER a document in which patients designate someone to make health care decisions for them if they are unable to do so themselves 51. Denial - ANSWER Refusing not to believe that the loss is happening or has happened. Might deny the existence of the illness. Thought processes reflect the idea of 52. "No, not me" 53. Anger - ANSWER Person might aim feelings of hostility at others, including health care staff (because they cannot fix or cure the disease) May use "Why me?" 54. Bargaining - ANSWER Making a deal, in return for a cure, they will fulfill promises. May use "Yes, me, but..." 55. Depression - ANSWER The person feels sad, lonely, and helpless. He might have feelings of regret and self-blame for not taking better care of himself. May use "Yes, its me." 56. Acceptance - ANSWER Person comes to terms with the loss and starts making plans for moving on with life despite the loss. He is willing to try to "make the best of it" . May use "Yes, me, and I'm ready." 57. Identification - ANSWER "I could pass that certification test just like she did, and I haven't even studied the material" 58. Introjection - ANSWER "My dad says I should stand up for myself, so I am going to be more assertive" 59. Projection - ANSWER "she leaves more charts incomplete than I do, so why am I getting this warning?" 60. Rationalization - ANSWER "My partner drinks every night to make himself less anxious about work" 61. Regression - ANSWER "I can do all that paperwork, and you can't make me" 62. Repression - ANSWER "They tell me I was hurt in that robbery, but I can't remember anything about it" 63. Sublimation - ANSWER "When I was a kid, I used to like to pull wings and legs off insects I'd catch. Now I am a biology teacher" 64. Suppression - ANSWER "The doctor said I need more tests, but I'm going to take my vacation first" 65. Fat soluble vitamins - ANSWER A, D, E, K 66. water soluble vitamins - ANSWER B and C 67. Intradermal - ANSWER 25-27 gauge and 3/8-5/8 long with a 1mL syringe; used for TB testing 68. Subcutaneous - ANSWER 25-27 gauge and 1/2-5/8 long with a 1 or 3mL syringe; used for insulin injections 69. Intramuscular - ANSWER 18 gauge for blood products or 20-23 gauge with 1-1 1/2 with a 1 or 3mL syringe; used for vaccine administration 70. Z-track Injection - ANSWER Adults-20-21 gauge and 1-1 1/2 Children-22 gauge and 1 inch Infants-24 gauge and 1 inch 71. 3mL syrine - ANSWER calibrated in tenths 72. 5mL syringe - ANSWER calibrated in 0.2 mL marks; frequently used in reconstituting m=dry drugs 73. Tuberculin syringe - ANSWER 1mL marked in tenths (0.1) and hundredths (0.01); used for TB testing, pediatrics and heparin dosages 74. Insulin syringe - ANSWER 1mL capacity; measured in units and NOT mLs; calibrated as 2 unit marks and 100 units=1mL; ONLY used for insulin administration 75. ID Injection Angle - ANSWER 10-15 degree angle 76. SubQ Injection Angle - ANSWER 45-90 degree angle 77. IM Injection Angle - ANSWER 90 degree angle 78. fomite - ANSWER inanimate object carrying pathogen 79. vector - ANSWER living thing carrying pathogen 80. asepsis - ANSWER condition of being free from infection/infectious materials 81. medical asepsis - ANSWER used daily in every clinical setting, involves removing micro-organisms after they leave the body surgical asepsis - ANSWER removal of all micro-organisms and must be used during invasive procedures/when pts skin or mucous membranes are punctured sanitization - ANSWER prepares for disinfection or sterilization disinfection - ANSWER destroys pathogens on a surface, destroys or limits microbial activity sterilization - ANSWER destruction of all pathogens and spores identification (SDS) - ANSWER product identifier, manufacturer info, recommended use, restrictions on use hazard identification (SDS) - ANSWER all hazards related to the chemical including labeling requirements composition/ingredients (SDS) - ANSWER chemical ingredients in product first-aid measures (SDS) - ANSWER sx and effects from exposure, incl. treatment necessary fire-fighting measures (SDS) - ANSWER appropriate extinguishing methods and chemical hazards from fire accidental release measures (SDS) - ANSWER emergency procedures, PPE, containment, cleanup Copayment - ANSWER an amount of money that is paid at the time of medical service Coinsurance - ANSWER a policy provision frequently found in medical insurance whereby the policyholder and the insurance company share the cost of covered losses in a specified ratio, such as 80:20 Deductible - ANSWER a specific amount of money a patient must pay out of pocket before the insurance carrier begins paying Explanation of benefits - ANSWER a statement from the insurance carrier detailing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment; also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, coinsurance, and allowed amounts Participating provider (PAR) - ANSWER providers who agree to write off the difference between the amount charged and the approved fee established by the insurer Medicare - ANSWER generally covers patients age 65 or older by Part A (hospitalization) or Part B ( routine medical office visits) benefits Tricare - ANSWER authorizes dependents of military personnel to receive treatment from civilian providers at the expense of the federal government CHAMPVA - ANSWER covers surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities Medicaid - ANSWER provides health insurance to the medically indigent population through a cost-sharing program between federal and state governments for those who meet specific eligibility criteria Managed Care - ANSWER is an umbrella term for plans that provide health care in return for preset scheduled payments and coordinated care through a defined network of providers and hospitals Worker's Compensation - ANSWER protects wage earners against the loss of wages and the cost of medical care resulting from an occupational accident or disease as long as the employee is not proven negligent Hematocrit (Hct) - ANSWER Men: 42 - 52% Women: 36 - 45% BUN - ANSWER 7 - 25 mg/dL Potassium - ANSWER 3.5 - 5.1 mEq/L Fasting blood glucose - ANSWER 70 - 130 mg/dL Sodium - ANSWER 135 - 145 mEq/L Red blood cell count - ANSWER Men: 4.7 - 6.1/mm3 Women: 4.2 - 5.4/mm3 Platelets - ANSWER 130 - 400/mm3 Blood glucose - ANSWER 70 - 110 mg/dL Hemoglobin (Hgb) - ANSWER Men: 15 - 17 g/dL Women: 12 - 16 g/dL oral temperature - ANSWER 98.6F / 37C tympanic temperature - ANSWER 98.6F / 37C temporal temperature - ANSWER 98.6F / 37C axillary temperature - ANSWER 97.6F / 36C rectal temperature - ANSWER 99.6F / 38C newborn HR - ANSWER 120-160 bpm infant HR - ANSWER 80-140 bpm toddler HR - ANSWER 80-130 bpm preschool HR - ANSWER 80-120 bpm school aged HR - ANSWER 70-100 bpm adult HR - ANSWER 60-100 bpm newborn RR - ANSWER 30-50 breaths/min adult RR - ANSWER 12-20 breaths/min normal BP - ANSWER 120/80 mmHg elevated BP - ANSWER 120/80-129/80 mmHg stage I HTN - ANSWER 130/80-139/89 mmHg stage II HTN - ANSWER 140/90 mmHg HTN crisis - ANSWER 180/120 mmHg SpO2 - ANSWER 95% What are the three advantages of computer scheduling? - ANSWER Computer systems have the capacity to display available times, as well as length and type of appointment required a day or time preferences. Computer systems also can track future appointments. When are patients scheduled in wave booking? - ANSWER At the same time each hour. How are patients scheduled in cluster or categorization booking? - ANSWER By type of appointment. When Scheduling appointments, what factors need to be taken into account? - ANSWER The needs of the patient, the habits and preferences of the provider, and the capacity of the facility. True or False: Medical practices never charge for no-shows. - ANSWER FALSE Gas Sterilization - ANSWER used for wheelchairs and hospitals beds. Too costly for Doctors Offices. Dry heat sterilization - ANSWER used for equipment that easily erode. Requires higher temperatures than steam sterilization but for longer exposure times. Chemical sterilization - ANSWER uses the same chemical used for chemical disinfection, but the exposure time is longer Steam sterilization (autoclave) - ANSWER uses steam under pressure to obtain high temperature of 250-254 degrees Fahrenheit with exposure times of 20-40 minutes depending on the item being sterilized Barrier Protection - ANSWER Protective clothing provides a barrier against infection. PPE (personal protective equipment) includes: -gown -gloves -masks -goggles -face shields -respirator Standard Precautions - ANSWER method used for all patients when the possibility of coming into contact with: - blood, all body fluids, secretions, and excretions - nonintact skin - mucous membranes - recognized or unrecognized sources of infection Transmission-Based Precautions - ANSWER used when the patient is known or suspected of being infected with a contagious disease. Three types of Transmission-Based Precautions - ANSWER Contact, Airborne, Droplet Contact Precautions - ANSWER reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms by direct or indirect contact: -direct contact: skin to skin -indirect contact: contact with a contaminated object in the patients environment Airborne Precautions - ANSWER reduce the risk of airborne transmission of infectious agents: -microorganisms transmitted by air currents -can be inhaled by or deposited on a susceptible host -patients placed in negative pressure rooms Droplet Precautions - ANSWER reduce the risk of droplet transmission of intectious agents: -contact with conjunctivae or mucous membranes of nose or mouth during coughing, sneezing, talking 15 grains to mg - ANSWER 1000 mg 1 minim to drops - ANSWER 1 drop 1 dram to minims - ANSWER 60 minims 15 drops to mLs - ANSWER 1 mL 1 tsp to drams - ANSWER 1 dram 1 tbsp to drams - ANSWER 4 drams 1 tsp to mLs - ANSWER 5 mL 1 tbsp to mLs - ANSWER 15 mL 1 oz to drams - ANSWER 8 drams 1 oz to mLs - ANSWER 30 mL 1 cup to oz - ANSWER 8 oz 1 cup to mLs - ANSWER 240 mL 1 pint to mLs - ANSWER 480 mL 1 quart to mLs - ANSWER 960 mL 1 gallon to mLs - ANSWER 3,830 mL 2.2 lb to kgs - ANSWER 1 kg Fahrenheit to Celsius - ANSWER (⁰F - 32) ÷ 1.8 = ⁰C Celsius to Fahrenheit - ANSWER (C × 1.8) + 32 = F Lavendar Top Tube Additive - ANSWER Contains the anticoagulant ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). EDTA inhibits coagulation by binding to the calcium present in the specimen. Tubes must be filled at least 2/3 full and inverted 8x. Lavendar Top Tube Tests - ANSWER CBC, H&H, ESR, Sickle Cell Screening Light-Blue Top Tube Additive - ANSWER Contains the anticoagulant Sodium Citrate, which prevents coagulation by binding to the calcium in the specimen. Sodium Citrate preserves the coagulation factors. Must be completely filled and inverted 3-4x Light-Blue Top Tests - ANSWER PT, APTT (or PTT), Fibrinogen Degradation Products (FDP), Thrombin Time (TT), Factor assays, Bleeding Time (BT) Green Top Tube Additive - ANSWER Contains anticoagulant Heparin combined with sodium, lithium, or ammoniumion. Heparin works by inhibiting thrombin in the coagulation cascade. It is not used for hematology because heparin interferes with the Wright's stained blood smear. Invert 8x Gray Top Tube Additive - ANSWER Contains additives and anticoagulants. All contain glucose preservative. Invert 8x Gray Top Tube Test - ANSWER Fasting blood sugar (FBS), glucose tolerance test (GTT), blood alcohol levels, Lactic acid measurements Red/Gray (speckled) Top Tube Additive - ANSWER Also called tiger top and serum separator tubes (SST). Contain clot activators: glass particles, silica, and celite and thixotropic gel a serum separator. Invert 5x Red/Gray (speckled) Top Tube Test - ANSWER Most chemistry tests Red Top Tube Additive - ANSWER aka plain vacuum tube. Contains NO additive or anticoagulant. No need to invert. Red Top Tube Test - ANSWER Serum chemistry test, serology tests, blood bank Yellow Top Tube Additive - ANSWER Contains the anticoagulant sodium polyanetholesulfonate (SPS). Used to collect specimens to be cultured. Must used strict sterile technique Invert 8x Pink Top Tube Additive - ANSWER Potassium EDTA. Pink Top Tube Test - ANSWER Blood bank, immunohematology Edema - ANSWER puffy swelling of tissue from the accumulation of fluid Hemostasis - ANSWER to stop or control bleeding Butterfly needle - ANSWER used for weak or fragile veins prone to collapse Order of Draw - ANSWER Yellow Light Blue Red Gold or Tiger top Green Lavender Gray Semi-Fowler's Position - ANSWER 45 degree angle, used for prone fainting patients Evacuated Tube Method - ANSWER vacuum tube method; uses a straight double-ended needle & color-coded vacuum tubes Syringe Method - ANSWER blood is drawn into a syringe and transferred into an evacuated tube. Needle gauge (typical) - ANSWER 21- or 22- gauge Tourniquet time - ANSWER 60 seconds Timeframe before reapplying the tourniquet if necessary - ANSWER 2 minutes Angle for blood draw - ANSWER 15 to 30 degrees Capillary puncture - ANSWER finger stick Blood culture skin prep - ANSWER iodine solution To avoid hemoconcentration during venipuncture...... - ANSWER remove tourniquet before 1 minute has elapsed Hemoconcentration - ANSWER the increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by the tourniquet being left on too long. Which of the following digits is the preferred site for capillary puncture on an adult pt. - ANSWER 4th (pointer finger) for adults & children When collecting a serum specimen w/o anticoagulant, how long should it stand/sit? - ANSWER 30 to 60 minutes 1st Tube in Order of Draw - ANSWER Yellow; SPS 2nd Tube in Order of Draw - ANSWER light blue; sodium citrate 3rd Tube in Order of Draw - ANSWER red; 4th Tube in Order of Draw - ANSWER gold or tiger top; SST (serum separator tube) 5th Tube in Order of Draw - ANSWER green; sodium/lithium heparin 6th Tube in Order of Draw - ANSWER lavender; EDTA; for CBC 7th Tube in Order of Draw - ANSWER Gray; potassium oxalate & sodium fluoride V1 placement - ANSWER 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum V2 placement - ANSWER 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum v3 placement - ANSWER Midway between V2 and V4 V4 placement - ANSWER Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line. V5 placement - ANSWER fifth intercoastal space, midaxillary line V6 placement - ANSWER 5th intercostal space, midaxillary line What is SA node ? - ANSWER pacemaker of the heart Which leads are the bipolar leads? - ANSWER Lead I, Lead II, Lead III P wave - ANSWER represents atrial depolarization T wave represents - ANSWER ventricular repolarization QRS represents - ANSWER ventricular depolarization What are pinworms? - ANSWER Helminths White lead - ANSWER right arm black lead - ANSWER left arm red lead - ANSWER left leg green lead - ANSWER right leg v1 color - ANSWER red v2 color - ANSWER yellow v3 color - ANSWER green v4 color - ANSWER blue V5 color - ANSWER orange v6 color - ANSWER purple EKG - ANSWER electrocardiogram EKG leads - ANSWER I, II, III, aVR, aVL, aVF, V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6 handling and storage (SDS) - ANSWER safe handling and appropriate storage requirements Hashimoto's disease - ANSWER an autoimmune disease in which the body's own antibodies attack and destroy the cells of the thyroid gland Graves disease - ANSWER hyperthyroidism caused by an autoimmune response F - ANSWER Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) - testes and ovaries L - ANSWER Luteinizing hormone (LH) - testes and ovaries A - ANSWER (ACTH) adrenocorticotropic - cortex T - ANSWER Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) - thyroid P - ANSWER Prolactin (PRL) -mammary glands I - ANSWER Ignore G - ANSWER Growth hormone (GH) - bones FLATPIG hormone - ANSWER artery - ANSWER A blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart (oxygenated) arterioles - ANSWER smaller branches of the arteries (oxygenated blood) Veins - ANSWER Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart (deoxygenated) venules - ANSWER small veins (deoxygenated) exposure controls/personal protection (SDS) - ANSWER recommended exposure limits and PPE necessary physical and chemical properties (SDS) - ANSWER chemical characteristics stability and reactivity (SDS) - ANSWER chemical stability and potential reactions toxicological information (SDS) - ANSWER measures of toxicity, acute and chronic effects, routes of exposure, ecological/disposal/transport/regulatory info regarding chemical other information (SDS) - ANSWER last revision A medical assistant recieves a splash of potentially infectious maiterial to the eyes while collecting a urine specimen. Which action should the medical assistant take to prevent the spread of infection? - ANSWER Flush the eyes at an eyewash station for at least 15 minutes What concentration of bleach solution should a medical assistant use as a disinfectant in a clinical setting? - ANSWER 1:10 What statement about alcohol-based hand sanitizer is correct? - ANSWER Hand sanitizer should be applied to dry hands What is recommended regarding fingernail care and hand hygiene? - ANSWER Remove artificial nails when working with high-risk populations According to CDC recommendations, what is the minimum length of time a medical assistant should spend scrubbing hands with soap and water when performing hand hygiene? - ANSWER 15 Seconds A medical assistant is washing infectious debris off several sharp surgical instruments. What action should the medical assistant take? - ANSWER Wear utility gloves while sanitizing the instruments What method should a medical assistant use when storing a disinfected endoscope? - ANSWER Hang Vertically A medical assistant is preparing to sterilize a vaginal speculum. What sterilization technique should the MA use? - ANSWER Autoclave A medical assistant is loading prepackaged hemostats in an autoclave. What action should the MA take to ensure sterilization? - ANSWER Organize the packages loosely without touching the walls of the autoclave A patient is coughing and sneezing repeatedly enters the reception area at the clinic. What action should the MA take? - ANSWER Assist the patient into an examination room What steps should a MA take to follow aseptic guidelines when administering injections? - ANSWER Wipe the injection site with an alcohol pad What following procedures requires a MA to use aseptic technique? - ANSWER Suturing What disposal method should a MA use in accordance with OSHA guidelines for handling biohazardous waste? - ANSWER Label chemicals with their names and data before disposal A medical assistant is cleaning room following a surgical procedure. What action should the MA take to ensure proper biohazardous waste handling of used gauze pads? - ANSWER Place the gauze pads in a red polyethylene bag A medical assistant is reviewing OSHA regulations regarding sharps container placement. What location should the MA place a sharps container? - ANSWER Exam Room _______________ is to minimize and remove a variety of disease-causing micro-organisms from the health care environment. - ANSWER Infection Control Why is automated call routing a good strategy for preventing no-shows? - ANSWER Automated call routing can give the patient the option to confirm or cancel the appointment. In addition, the system can be programmed to repeat the call until the patient responds. A patient was scheduled for an appointment, but the doctor was called away due to an emergency. How should the medical administrative assistant handle the situation? - ANSWER Try to reach the patient and let him or her know what happened. Offer alternatives for rescheduling. Why is it important to document no-shows? - ANSWER By documenting no-shows, you provide the provider with info about a patient that may warrant further action. If legal action is ever taken, the documentation can be used as evidence of patient's actions. Why is it important to get preauthorization if the patient's insurance requires you to do so? - ANSWER Preauthorization is a formal approval from the insurance company that it will cover the test or procedure. If the insurance company requires this and it is not done, the patient runs the risk of having to pay the full amount. Agents - ANSWER infectious microorganisms: viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites Portal of Exit - ANSWER method by which an infectious agent leaves its reservoir. Mode of Transmission - ANSWER specific ways in which microorganisms travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host: -contact: direct and indirect -droplet -airborne -common vehicle -vectorborne Portal of Entry - ANSWER allows the infectious agent access to the susceptible host. Common sites: -broken skin, -mucous membranes, -body systems exposed to the external environment: respiratory, gastrointestinal, reproductive Susceptible Host - ANSWER a person who is not resistant or immune to the infectious agent. Medical Asepsis - ANSWER the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body. Involves: -equipment cleaning and disinfection -maintaining standard precautions and transmission-based precautions Disinfection - ANSWER used in medical asepsis by using various chemicals that destroy pathogenic microorganisms Surgical Asepsis - ANSWER ALL microbial life, pathogens and non-pathogens are destroyed before an invasive procedure is performed. Surgical Asepsis and Sterile Technique can be used interchangeably. Handwashing - ANSWER the MOST important means of preventing the spread of infection. What is the order of the chain of infection? - ANSWER Infectious agent, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Mode of transmission, Portal of entry, Susceptible host The overall goal to reduce the number of micro-organisms and prohibit their growth is _______________ - ANSWER Medical asepsis What is medical surgical asepsis? - ANSWER The removal of all micro-organisms & that must be used during inavasive procedures or when there is a penetration of the patient's skin or mucous membranes. Those in medical field should apply soap and rub hands together for at least... - ANSWER At least 20 seconds One example of aseptic techniques for clinical situations is... - ANSWER Clean the office daily Employers must provide PPE to all employees when... - ANSWER There is a potential exposure to blood or body fluids OSHA requires that all employers provide ______________ to their employees - ANSWER Safety Data Sheets It is the responsiblity of the______________ to have exposure control plan in place and available for all employees. - ANSWER The employer ICD-10 - ANSWER international classification of diseases 3-7 characters used 1st: alphabetical 2nd & 3rd: numerical 4th - 7th: either alpha/numerical CPT - ANSWER current procedural terminology; 5 digit code; 6 subsections evaluation and management service rendered by providers; nothing in the hospital; descriptive terms and identifying coders for reporting professional and technical services HCPCS - ANSWER Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System reports supplies, materials, other procedures not defined in CPT manual Schedule 1 - ANSWER Highest potential for abuse, no therapeutic use, no approved medical use in the US. these are illegal and providers may not prescribe them (Heroine, marijuana LSD, mescaline,) Schedule II - ANSWER - Drugs have high potential for abuse - Drugs have currently accepted medical uses, although there may be serious restrictions - Abuse of drug may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence - may not be used unless directly dispensed by a practitioner - refills not allowed -- must write multiple prescriptions at once - must be stored in a safe separate from other medications Schedule III drug - ANSWER Moderate to low abuse potential providers must give patients a handwritten prescription These drugs can be refilled 5 times in 6 months ex. codeine mixtures, hydrocodone mixtures, ketamine, anabolic steroids and testosterone Schedule IV Controlled Substances - ANSWER Substances in this schedule have a low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III. Providers must sign prescriptions for these substances and the patient may refill them five times in 6 months Examples of Schedule IV substances include: alprazolam (Xanax), carisoprodol (Soma), clonazepam (Klonopin), clorazepate (Tranxene), diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), midazolam (Versed), temazepam (Restoril), and triazolam (Halcion). Schedule V drugs - ANSWER a type of drug with medicinal uses that is not very addictive and only available with a prescription Includes substances that contain limited quantities of some narcotics, usually for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes Providers must sign the prescriptions for these substances and patients may refill them 5 times in 6 months Staff members MAY authorize refills over the phone EX: diphenoxylate with atropine, pregabalin, lacosamide and opium/laolin/pectin/belladonna Health Maintenance Organizations(HMOs) - ANSWER this plan contracts with a medical center or group of providers to provide preventative and acute care for the insured person, HMOs generally require referrals to specialists as well as pre certifications and preauthorization for hospital admissions, outpatient procedures, and treatments Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) - ANSWER in this care delivery model, a primary care provider (PCP) coordinates treatment to make sure patient receives the required care when and where they need it, and in a way they can understand Pay For Performance - ANSWER this reimbursement model compensates providers only if they meet certain measures for quality and efficiency, generating quality benchmark measures connects provider reimbursement directly to the quality of the care they provide Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) - ANSWER these plans have more flexibility than HMO plans, an insured person doesn't need a PCP, but can go directly to a specialist without referrals, although patients can see providers in or our of their network an in network provider usually cost less Advanced beneficiary notice (ABN) - ANSWER form provided to the patient when the provider believes Medicare will probably not pay for services received Allowed amount - ANSWER the maximum amount a third party payer will pay for a particular procedure