ATLS 10th Edition Post Test 2026 UPDATE (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)- GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED
ATLS 10th Edition
Primary Survey & Resuscitation
Q1: In the ATLS primary survey, what does “A” stand for?
A: Airway maintenance with cervical spine control
Rationale: Always secure a patent airway while protecting the cervical spine in trauma patients.
Q2: What is the next step after airway in the ATLS primary survey?
A: Breathing
Rationale: After airway, assess breathing to ensure adequate ventilation and oxygenation.
Q3: What maneuver is used to open the airway if a cervical spine injury is suspected?
A: Jaw thrust
Rationale: Jaw thrust minimizes cervical spine movement compared to head tilt–chin lift.
Q4: What is the “C” in the primary survey?
A: Circulation with hemorrhage control
Rationale: Assess pulse, control bleeding, and support circulation.
Q5: Which sign indicates tension pneumothorax?
A: Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
Rationale: Air trapped in pleural space pushes mediastinum, compromising venous return.
Breathing & Ventilation
Q6: Needle decompression for tension pneumothorax is performed in which intercostal space?
A: Second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
Rationale: This site provides rapid access to relieve trapped air.
Q7: What breath sound finding suggests a massive hemothorax?
A: Dullness to percussion on the affected side
Rationale: Blood in the pleural space dulls sound.
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Q8: A motorcycle crash victim with flail chest likely has:
A: Paradoxical chest wall movement
Rationale: Segment of chest wall moves inward on inspiration and outward on expiration.
Circulation & Shock
Q9: The earliest clinical sign of shock is often:
A: Tachycardia
Rationale: Heart rate increases to maintain cardiac output initially.
Q10: Class III hemorrhage involves what percent of blood loss?
A: 30–40%
Rationale: ATLS categorizes based on physiologic response and blood volume lost.
Q11: First fluid choice for initial resuscitation in traumatic hypovolemia is:
A: Isotonic crystalloid (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer’s)
Rationale: Provides volume expansion rapidly.
Disability (Neurologic Status)
Q12: What scale is used to assess neurologic status?
A: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
Rationale: Measures eye, verbal, and motor responses.
Q13: A GCS of 8 or less indicates:
A: Severe head injury and need for airway protection
Rationale: Typically warrants endotracheal intubation.
Exposure & Environment
Q14: Why should the trauma patient be fully exposed?
A: To identify all injuries
Rationale: Hidden injuries can be missed if not exposed.
Q15: What should you do to prevent hypothermia during exposure?
A: Use warm blankets and warmed fluids
Rationale: Hypothermia worsens coagulopathy and shock.
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Adjuncts & Monitoring
Q16: What is the FAST exam used for?
A: Detect free fluid (blood) in the abdomen and pericardium
Rationale: Rapid, non-invasive screening tool in trauma.
Q17: What is the purpose of a chest X-ray in ATLS primary survey?
A: Identify life-threatening thoracic injuries
Rationale: Detect pneumothorax, hemothorax, mediastinal widening, etc.
Secondary Survey
Q18: The secondary survey begins after:
A: The primary survey and resuscitation are complete/stable
Rationale: Once life-threatening issues are addressed, full head-to-toe exam is done.
Q19: What does the acronym SAMPLE stand for?
A: Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events
Rationale: Helps gather pertinent patient history in trauma.
Head Injury
Q20: A fixed and dilated pupil in head trauma suggests:
A: Uncal herniation
Rationale: Indicates increased intracranial pressure and brainstem compression.
Q21: What imaging is indicated for suspected intracranial hemorrhage?
A: Head CT scan
Rationale: Rapidly identifies bleeding and structural injury.
Chest Trauma
Q22: Beck’s triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD) is consistent with:
A: Cardiac tamponade
Rationale: Fluid accumulation in pericardial sac compresses heart.
Q23: What chest injury might require emergent thoracotomy?
A: Massive hemothorax
Rationale: Large blood loss requires control and evacuation.
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Abdominal Trauma
Q24: Peritonitis in blunt abdominal trauma suggests:
A: Hollow organ injury
Rationale: Leakage of contents into peritoneal cavity causes irritation.
Q25: The most sensitive FAST view for pericardial fluid is:
A: Subxiphoid view
Rationale: Best window for visualizing pericardial fluid.
Pelvic & Extremity Trauma
Q26: What is a major concern with pelvic fractures?
A: Massive hemorrhage
Rationale: Pelvis is highly vascular; fractures can bleed significantly.
Q27: Compartment syndrome is characterized by:
A: Pain out of proportion and tense compartment
Rationale: Increased pressure compromises circulation and nerves.
Spinal Injury
Q28: All trauma patients should be assumed to have:
A: Cervical spine injury until cleared
Rationale: Prevents secondary neurologic damage.
Q29: What is the best initial method to immobilize the cervical spine?
A: Hard cervical collar
Rationale: Provides temporary stabilization.
Pediatric Trauma
Q30: What is a key difference in pediatric airway anatomy?
A: Larger occiput
Rationale: Flexes neck; may require padding under shoulders to align airway.
Q31: Pediatric shock is often first seen as:
A: Tachycardia
Rationale: Children maintain blood pressure until late shock.
practice exam 2026