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ANCC Family Nurse Practitioner
Exam – Complete High-Yield Review
Based on 2026/2027 Blueprint
Subject: ANCC FNP Exam Preparation Questions
Source: ANCC FNP Full Exam (2026 Blueprint)
Format: Multiple-choice questions with single best answer, expert
rationales, and evidence-based content
1. A 9-month-old female infant presents to the clinic for a routine
well-child visit. Six months ago, she was prescribed omeprazole
(Prilosec) due to gastroesophageal reflux and poor weight gain. At the
present visit, her parents report that she is drinking approximately 24
ounces of formula daily and eating some solid foods. They report no
current issues with reflux. While reviewing the patient's growth chart,
the nurse practitioner notes steady and appropriate weight gain over
the past 6 months. Which of the following is the next best step in
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management?
A. Continue omeprazole (Prilosec) as prescribed
B. Decrease the dose of omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 weeks
C. Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and prescribe metoclopramide
(Reglan)
D. Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 months
Correct Answer: B. Decrease the dose of omeprazole (Prilosec) and
reevaluate in 3 weeks
Rationale:
1. In infants with GERD, once symptoms resolve and weight gain
is adequate, gradual weaning or dose reduction of acid
suppression therapy is recommended.
2. This minimizes risks associated with prolonged PPI use, such
as infection risk and nutrient malabsorption.
3. Continuing full-dose therapy unnecessarily is not advised.
4. Metoclopramide is no longer routinely recommended due to
limited efficacy and safety concerns.
5. Short-term follow-up allows monitoring for symptom
recurrence before complete discontinuation.
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2. A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for a routine checkup.
He has a history of smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past
40 years. He reports no discomfort today. Which of the following is the
most appropriate recommendation regarding abdominal aortic
aneurysm (AAA) screening for this patient?
A. Advise him to quit smoking but defer screening since he is asymptomatic
B. No screening necessary, as he is beyond the recommended age
C. Order an abdominal ultrasound for screening today
D. Perform a physical examination of the abdomen to assess for a pulsatile
mass
Correct Answer: C. Order an abdominal ultrasound for screening
today
Rationale:
1. USPSTF recommends one-time AAA screening with abdominal
ultrasound in men aged 65–75 who have ever smoked.
2. The patient’s heavy smoking history and age meet these
criteria.
3. Physical exam lacks sensitivity and specificity for detecting
AAA.
4. Delaying or deferring screening misses an opportunity for early
detection and intervention.
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3. Which of the following is the most important first step when
evaluating a 15-year-old girl with a 4-month history of secondary
amenorrhea?
A. Checking weight
B. Measuring FSH
C. Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin levels
D. Measuring TSH
Correct Answer: C. Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin levels
Rationale:
1. Pregnancy must be ruled out first in any adolescent or woman
of reproductive age with secondary amenorrhea.
2. It is the most common cause.
3. A qualitative hCG test is fast, noninvasive, and cost-effective.
4. Further hormonal workup (FSH, TSH) should only be
considered if pregnancy is excluded.
4. While reading a journal article, a nurse practitioner comes
across a section discussing the efficacy of a new drug. The article
mentions a P value of .03 in relation to the drug's effect. Which of the
following best defines what a P value is?
ANCC Family Nurse Practitioner
Exam – Complete High-Yield Review
Based on 2026/2027 Blueprint
Subject: ANCC FNP Exam Preparation Questions
Source: ANCC FNP Full Exam (2026 Blueprint)
Format: Multiple-choice questions with single best answer, expert
rationales, and evidence-based content
1. A 9-month-old female infant presents to the clinic for a routine
well-child visit. Six months ago, she was prescribed omeprazole
(Prilosec) due to gastroesophageal reflux and poor weight gain. At the
present visit, her parents report that she is drinking approximately 24
ounces of formula daily and eating some solid foods. They report no
current issues with reflux. While reviewing the patient's growth chart,
the nurse practitioner notes steady and appropriate weight gain over
the past 6 months. Which of the following is the next best step in
, 2|Page
management?
A. Continue omeprazole (Prilosec) as prescribed
B. Decrease the dose of omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 weeks
C. Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and prescribe metoclopramide
(Reglan)
D. Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 months
Correct Answer: B. Decrease the dose of omeprazole (Prilosec) and
reevaluate in 3 weeks
Rationale:
1. In infants with GERD, once symptoms resolve and weight gain
is adequate, gradual weaning or dose reduction of acid
suppression therapy is recommended.
2. This minimizes risks associated with prolonged PPI use, such
as infection risk and nutrient malabsorption.
3. Continuing full-dose therapy unnecessarily is not advised.
4. Metoclopramide is no longer routinely recommended due to
limited efficacy and safety concerns.
5. Short-term follow-up allows monitoring for symptom
recurrence before complete discontinuation.
, 3|Page
2. A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for a routine checkup.
He has a history of smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past
40 years. He reports no discomfort today. Which of the following is the
most appropriate recommendation regarding abdominal aortic
aneurysm (AAA) screening for this patient?
A. Advise him to quit smoking but defer screening since he is asymptomatic
B. No screening necessary, as he is beyond the recommended age
C. Order an abdominal ultrasound for screening today
D. Perform a physical examination of the abdomen to assess for a pulsatile
mass
Correct Answer: C. Order an abdominal ultrasound for screening
today
Rationale:
1. USPSTF recommends one-time AAA screening with abdominal
ultrasound in men aged 65–75 who have ever smoked.
2. The patient’s heavy smoking history and age meet these
criteria.
3. Physical exam lacks sensitivity and specificity for detecting
AAA.
4. Delaying or deferring screening misses an opportunity for early
detection and intervention.
, 4|Page
3. Which of the following is the most important first step when
evaluating a 15-year-old girl with a 4-month history of secondary
amenorrhea?
A. Checking weight
B. Measuring FSH
C. Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin levels
D. Measuring TSH
Correct Answer: C. Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin levels
Rationale:
1. Pregnancy must be ruled out first in any adolescent or woman
of reproductive age with secondary amenorrhea.
2. It is the most common cause.
3. A qualitative hCG test is fast, noninvasive, and cost-effective.
4. Further hormonal workup (FSH, TSH) should only be
considered if pregnancy is excluded.
4. While reading a journal article, a nurse practitioner comes
across a section discussing the efficacy of a new drug. The article
mentions a P value of .03 in relation to the drug's effect. Which of the
following best defines what a P value is?
