PTA practice exam 1 STUDY GUIDE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
A physical therapist assistant contemplates the necessary amount of force to
overcome friction when performing mechanical lumbar traction using a non-
split traction table. What percentage of a patient's body weight would be MOST
representative of this value? - CORRECT ANSWERS 25%
A physical therapist assistant works with a 75-year-old female that presents with
residual periodic loss of balance secondary to a recent stroke. The patient has
minor residual strength deficits in her affected upper and lower extremities and
will need an assistive device for ambulation. Based on the patient's present
status what would be the MOST appropriate assistive device? - CORRECT
ANSWERS Rolling walker
A 52-year-old female is referred to physical therapy with right shoulder
pathology. The patient reports a gradual onset of pain beginning six months ago
with a progressive loss of range of motion and strength, most notably in lateral
rotation and abduction. The patient reports an inability to perform a number of
activities of daily living including any tasks requiring the arm to be lifted
overhead. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with this scenario? -
CORRECT ANSWERS Adhesive capsulitis
During a family meeting in an acute rehabilitation hospital a 26-year-old male
with complete C7 tetraplegia asks a variety of questions about self care and
mobility expectations. With an uncomplicated recovery, the patient can expect
lower extremity dressing to be performed with what level of assist in bed? -
CORRECT ANSWERS Modified independence
A patient attending her third physical therapy session transitions from a hospital
bed to standing in preparation for ambulation activities. Which blood pressure
response would BEST support the physical therapist assistant's decision to
return the patient to a recumbent position? - CORRECT ANSWERS A
decrease in systolic blood pressure greater than 20 mm Hg after moving from a
,supine position to a sitting or standing position or a decrease in diastolic blood
pressure greater than 10 mm Hg is typically indicative of orthostatic
hypotension
A physical therapist assistant is treating an 82-year-old female that lives
independently in a single story house. The therapist uses the Tinetti
Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment as a screening tool to determine if
the patient is at an increased risk for falling. What is the PRIMARY method this
tool uses to assess fall risk? - CORRECT ANSWERS Gait and balance
single task screening tool used to assess standing balance and risk of falling. A
person is required to stand upright with a static base of support. A yardstick is
positioned to measure the forward distance that a patient can reach without
moving the feet. Three trials are performed and averaged together. A patient that
falls below the age appropriate range for functional reach has an increased risk
for falling. - CORRECT ANSWERS The Functional Reach test
is a tool designed to assess a patient's risk for falling. There are fourteen tasks,
each scored on an ordinal scale from 0-4. These tasks include static activities,
transitional movements, and dynamic activities in sitting and standing positions.
The maximum score is a 56 with a score less than 45 indicating an increased
risk for falling. This tool can be used as a one-time examination or as an
ongoing tool to monitor a patient who may be at risk for falls. - CORRECT
ANSWERS The Berg Balance scale
is a functional performance screening tool used to assess a person's level of
mobility and balance. The person initially sits in a supported chair with a firm
surface, transfers to a standing position, and walks approximately 10 feet. The
patient must then turn around without external support, walk back towards the
chair, and return to a sitting position. The patient is scored based on amount of
postural sway, excessive movements, reaching for support, side stepping or
other signs of loss of balance. Patients who are independent can complete the
multi-task process in 10 seconds or less. Patients that require 30 seconds or
more are at a high risk for a fall. - CORRECT ANSWERS The Timed
Get Up and Go test
,A physical therapist assistant educates a patient about their medical condition
during a physical therapy session. During the discussion, the physical therapist
assistant mentions that most patients experience resolution of symptoms when
they stop growing. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with this
scenario? - CORRECT ANSWERS Osgood-Schlatter disease
is a condition characterized by malalignment of the femoral head within the
acetabulum. The condition develops during the last trimester in utero and is
often treated with the use of a harness, bracing, splinting or traction. The
malalignment does not resolve with skeletal maturity, although it can be
effectively treated through conservative or surgical methods. - CORRECT
ANSWERS Congenital hip dysplasia
is a self-limiting condition that results from repetitive traction on the tibial
tuberosity apophysis. Symptoms include point tenderness over the patella
tendon at the insertion on the tibial tubercle, antalgic gait, and pain. -
CORRECT ANSWERS Osgood-Schlatter disease
is a general term describing pain or discomfort in the anterior knee. Adolescents
are at increased risk for developing patellofemoral syndrome, although reaching
skeletal maturity does not necessarily lead to the resolution of symptoms. -
CORRECT ANSWERS Patellofemoral syndrome
is characterized by degeneration of the femoral head due to a disturbance in the
blood supply (i.e., avascular necrosis). This type of structural condition does not
resolve with skeletal maturity. - CORRECT ANSWERS Legg-Calve-
Perthes disease
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on abdominal strengthening.
The physical therapist assistant attempts to have the patient complete a modified
sit-up with their head and shoulders positioned on a wedge while in supine.
What is the MOST likely rationale associated with the use of the wedge? -
CORRECT ANSWERS Weak rectus abdominis
, A physical therapist assistant discusses fitness parameters with a 30-year-old
patient who is five months pregnant. Assuming the patient has not experienced
any complications from her pregnancy, which of the following would be the
MOST appropriate exercise program for the patient? - CORRECT ANSWERS
Mild to moderate walking program performed three times per week
A physical therapist assistant prepares to complete a selected manual muscle
test on a patient with rotator cuff tendonitis by placing the upper extremity in
the recommended test position. The physical therapist assistant determines that
the patient is unable to maintain the test position and slowly allows the arm to
sag. Which of the following muscle grades is MOST consistent with this
scenario? - CORRECT ANSWERS Fair minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against
gravity with minimal-moderate resistance. - CORRECT ANSWERS
good minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against
gravity without manual resistance. - CORRECT ANSWERS fair
this grade is characterized by the patient being unable to complete the full
available range of motion against gravity, however, can complete more than half
of the range. If placed in the test position, the patient will have insufficient
strength to maintain the position. - CORRECT ANSWERS fair minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion with
gravity-eliminated. - CORRECT ANSWERS poor
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient who is rehabilitating from a
T2 spinal cord injury. During the session the patient begins to demonstrate signs
and symptoms consistent with autonomic dysreflexia. What would be the
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
A physical therapist assistant contemplates the necessary amount of force to
overcome friction when performing mechanical lumbar traction using a non-
split traction table. What percentage of a patient's body weight would be MOST
representative of this value? - CORRECT ANSWERS 25%
A physical therapist assistant works with a 75-year-old female that presents with
residual periodic loss of balance secondary to a recent stroke. The patient has
minor residual strength deficits in her affected upper and lower extremities and
will need an assistive device for ambulation. Based on the patient's present
status what would be the MOST appropriate assistive device? - CORRECT
ANSWERS Rolling walker
A 52-year-old female is referred to physical therapy with right shoulder
pathology. The patient reports a gradual onset of pain beginning six months ago
with a progressive loss of range of motion and strength, most notably in lateral
rotation and abduction. The patient reports an inability to perform a number of
activities of daily living including any tasks requiring the arm to be lifted
overhead. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with this scenario? -
CORRECT ANSWERS Adhesive capsulitis
During a family meeting in an acute rehabilitation hospital a 26-year-old male
with complete C7 tetraplegia asks a variety of questions about self care and
mobility expectations. With an uncomplicated recovery, the patient can expect
lower extremity dressing to be performed with what level of assist in bed? -
CORRECT ANSWERS Modified independence
A patient attending her third physical therapy session transitions from a hospital
bed to standing in preparation for ambulation activities. Which blood pressure
response would BEST support the physical therapist assistant's decision to
return the patient to a recumbent position? - CORRECT ANSWERS A
decrease in systolic blood pressure greater than 20 mm Hg after moving from a
,supine position to a sitting or standing position or a decrease in diastolic blood
pressure greater than 10 mm Hg is typically indicative of orthostatic
hypotension
A physical therapist assistant is treating an 82-year-old female that lives
independently in a single story house. The therapist uses the Tinetti
Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment as a screening tool to determine if
the patient is at an increased risk for falling. What is the PRIMARY method this
tool uses to assess fall risk? - CORRECT ANSWERS Gait and balance
single task screening tool used to assess standing balance and risk of falling. A
person is required to stand upright with a static base of support. A yardstick is
positioned to measure the forward distance that a patient can reach without
moving the feet. Three trials are performed and averaged together. A patient that
falls below the age appropriate range for functional reach has an increased risk
for falling. - CORRECT ANSWERS The Functional Reach test
is a tool designed to assess a patient's risk for falling. There are fourteen tasks,
each scored on an ordinal scale from 0-4. These tasks include static activities,
transitional movements, and dynamic activities in sitting and standing positions.
The maximum score is a 56 with a score less than 45 indicating an increased
risk for falling. This tool can be used as a one-time examination or as an
ongoing tool to monitor a patient who may be at risk for falls. - CORRECT
ANSWERS The Berg Balance scale
is a functional performance screening tool used to assess a person's level of
mobility and balance. The person initially sits in a supported chair with a firm
surface, transfers to a standing position, and walks approximately 10 feet. The
patient must then turn around without external support, walk back towards the
chair, and return to a sitting position. The patient is scored based on amount of
postural sway, excessive movements, reaching for support, side stepping or
other signs of loss of balance. Patients who are independent can complete the
multi-task process in 10 seconds or less. Patients that require 30 seconds or
more are at a high risk for a fall. - CORRECT ANSWERS The Timed
Get Up and Go test
,A physical therapist assistant educates a patient about their medical condition
during a physical therapy session. During the discussion, the physical therapist
assistant mentions that most patients experience resolution of symptoms when
they stop growing. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with this
scenario? - CORRECT ANSWERS Osgood-Schlatter disease
is a condition characterized by malalignment of the femoral head within the
acetabulum. The condition develops during the last trimester in utero and is
often treated with the use of a harness, bracing, splinting or traction. The
malalignment does not resolve with skeletal maturity, although it can be
effectively treated through conservative or surgical methods. - CORRECT
ANSWERS Congenital hip dysplasia
is a self-limiting condition that results from repetitive traction on the tibial
tuberosity apophysis. Symptoms include point tenderness over the patella
tendon at the insertion on the tibial tubercle, antalgic gait, and pain. -
CORRECT ANSWERS Osgood-Schlatter disease
is a general term describing pain or discomfort in the anterior knee. Adolescents
are at increased risk for developing patellofemoral syndrome, although reaching
skeletal maturity does not necessarily lead to the resolution of symptoms. -
CORRECT ANSWERS Patellofemoral syndrome
is characterized by degeneration of the femoral head due to a disturbance in the
blood supply (i.e., avascular necrosis). This type of structural condition does not
resolve with skeletal maturity. - CORRECT ANSWERS Legg-Calve-
Perthes disease
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on abdominal strengthening.
The physical therapist assistant attempts to have the patient complete a modified
sit-up with their head and shoulders positioned on a wedge while in supine.
What is the MOST likely rationale associated with the use of the wedge? -
CORRECT ANSWERS Weak rectus abdominis
, A physical therapist assistant discusses fitness parameters with a 30-year-old
patient who is five months pregnant. Assuming the patient has not experienced
any complications from her pregnancy, which of the following would be the
MOST appropriate exercise program for the patient? - CORRECT ANSWERS
Mild to moderate walking program performed three times per week
A physical therapist assistant prepares to complete a selected manual muscle
test on a patient with rotator cuff tendonitis by placing the upper extremity in
the recommended test position. The physical therapist assistant determines that
the patient is unable to maintain the test position and slowly allows the arm to
sag. Which of the following muscle grades is MOST consistent with this
scenario? - CORRECT ANSWERS Fair minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against
gravity with minimal-moderate resistance. - CORRECT ANSWERS
good minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against
gravity without manual resistance. - CORRECT ANSWERS fair
this grade is characterized by the patient being unable to complete the full
available range of motion against gravity, however, can complete more than half
of the range. If placed in the test position, the patient will have insufficient
strength to maintain the position. - CORRECT ANSWERS fair minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion with
gravity-eliminated. - CORRECT ANSWERS poor
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient who is rehabilitating from a
T2 spinal cord injury. During the session the patient begins to demonstrate signs
and symptoms consistent with autonomic dysreflexia. What would be the
