KET 2nd edition exam Preparation questions and answers.pdf| Full Q&A | 2026/2027
1. A student nurse level one is caring a patient with ischemia condition. He/she asked I
charge nurse the meaning of ischemia. What would be the BEST response from in
charge nurse?
A. Overflow of blood to tissues
B. Restriction of blood supply to tissues
C. Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
D. The medical term for shortness of breath
2. Which of the following MOSTLY confirming the values meet the diagnostic onset for
diabetes?
A. Fasting blood glucose ≥ 140 mg/dl
B. Random glucose > 160 mg/dl
C. 2 hours post prandial glucose ≥ to 126 mg/dl
D. Fasting blood glucose ≥ 126 mg/dl
3. “Ever since my divorce, my 5-year-old has begun to wet the bed”. This is an example
of what defense mechanism?
A. Rationalization
B. Regression
C. Denial
D. Reaction formation
4. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Insulin suppresses the activity of glycogen synthase
B. Insulin mediates glucose uptake in the brain
C. "Prediabetes" is a condition characterized by an increased risk for the
future development of type 2 diabetes
D. The rise in insulin concentration after meal ingestion is reduced in type 1 but
not in type 2 diabetes
5. Human digestive system is composed of the following organs. Which of the
following organs is considered as primary absorptive organ?
A. Large intestine
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. Rectum
6. Insulin deficiency is associated with:
A. Reduced lipolysis
B. Increased ketogenesis
C. Reduced gluconeogenesis
D. Reduced proteolysis
7. The risk factors for type 2 diabetes mellitus include:
A. Family history
B. Being overweight
C. High intake of dietary fat
D. All of the options listed are correct
8. Which of the following is NOT one of the Erikson’s stages of psychosocial
development?
KET/2023/2nd edition
1
, KET 2nd edition exam Preparation questions and answers.pdf| Full Q&A | 2026/2027
A. Industry vs. Inferiority
B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
C. Trust vs. Mistrust
D. Life vs. Death
9. The pathogenesis of hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes includes all the following
mechanisms EXCEPT for:
A. Increased glucose production by the liver
B. Impaired insulin secretion
C. Decreased glucose uptake from the skeletal muscle
D. All of the options given are correct
10. Which the following statements BEST describes well the nephron?
A. It is a basic structural and functional unit of the kidney
B. It is a part that collects preformed urine together and excrete through
ureters
C. It is a tube like tunnel that regulates aldosterone
D. It is supra adrenal gland secreting steroid hormones
11. Which statement BEST describes the differences between the characteristics of type
1 and type 2 diabetes?
A. Persons with type 2 diabetes usually require lower doses of insulin than
person with type 1 diabetes because they have a milder form of diabetes
B. Persons with type 1 diabetes rapidly develop chronic complications
C. Autoimmune factors are involved in the pathogenesis of type 1 but not
type 2 diabetes
D. Persons with type 1 diabetes can increase endogenous insulin production by
taking oral hypoglycemic agents
12. Identify the statements below that are CORRECT:
1. Hallucinations means: Imaginary sensations, such as seeing, hearing, or
smelling things that do not exist in the real world.
2. The "misbehavior" of animals (instinctive idea) shows that some behaviors are
difficult to condition because they interfere with natural appetitive behaviors.
3. A variable ratio schedule is an example of intermittent reinforcement.
4. Term Psychology means” the science of human behavior and mental
processes”.
5. Primary reinforcemers do not satisfy a biological need.
Choose the correct sequence
A. 1,2,5,4
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,3,4, 5
D. 1,2,3,4,5
13. Which of the following is NOT a beneficial effect of exercise in people with diabetes?
A. Reduction of triglycerides
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Increase of insulin sensitivity
D. Controlling hypertension
KET/2023/2nd edition
2
, KET 2nd edition exam Preparation questions and answers.pdf| Full Q&A | 2026/2027
14. A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: ph
7.45, Pco2 of 30mmhg, and HCO3- of 22 mEq/L. The nurse analysis these results as
indicating which condition?
A. Metabolic acidosis, compensated
B. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
C. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
D. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
15. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction.
The nurse monitors the client, knowing the client is at risk for which acid-base
disorder?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
16. In malaria, where do asexual sporozoites undergo schizogony to form merozoites?
A. In the stomach of the female anopheles mosquito
B. In liver cells
C. In red blood cells
D. In macrophages
17. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and documents that the
client is experiencing Kussmaul's respirations. Based on this documentation, which
of the following did the nurse observe?
A. Respirations that cease for several seconds.
B. Respirations that are regular but abnormally slow.
C. Respirations that are labored and increased in depth and rate.
D. Respirations that are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate.
18. A client who is found unresponsive has arterial blood gases drawn and the results
indicate the following: pH is 7.12, Pco2 is 90 mmHg, and HCO3- is 22 mEq/L. The
nurse interprets the results as indicating which condition?
A. Metabolic acidosis, compensated
B. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
C. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
D. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated.
19. A nurse plans care for a client with COPD, understanding the client is MOST LIKELY
to experience:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
20. The patient is a 75-year-old man with a history of emphysema. He comes to the
emergency department reporting a productive cough that causes chest pain
and fatigue. "I am having more problems breathing than usual." Which assessment
indicates that this patient has INADEQUATE oxygenation?
A. Decreased urine output
KET/2023/2nd edition
3
, KET 2nd edition exam Preparation questions and answers.pdf| Full Q&A | 2026/2027
B. Bradycardia
C. Decreased chest expansion
D. Hypotension
21. Which of the following is the rationale for using preoperative checklist on the day of
surgery?
a. To ensure that the patient is correctly identified.
b. To ensure that all preoperative orders and procedures have been carried out
and records are complete.
c. To confirm that the patients’ families have been informed as to where they can
accompany and wait for patients.
d. Preoperative medications are the last procedure before the patient is transported to
the operating room
22. At the end of the surgical procedure, the preoperative nurse evaluates the patient’s
response to the nursing care delivered during the perioperative period. Which of the
following BEST reflects a positive outcome related to the patient’s physical status?
a. The patient’s right to privacy is maintained
b. The patient’s care is consistent with the perioperative plan of care.
c. The patient receives consistent and comparable care regardless of the setting
d. The patient’s respiratory function is consistent with or improved from
baseline levels established preoperatively
23. The patient tells the nurse in the preoperative setting that she has noticed a reaction
when wearing rubber gloves. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
intervention?
a. Notify the surgeon so the case can be cancelled.
b. Ask additional questions to assess for a possible latex allergy.
c. Notify the Operating Room staff immediately so that latex-free supplies can be used.
d. No interventions is needed because the patient’s rubber sensitivity has no bearing
on surgery
24. Which of the following is an advantage of tracheostomy over an endotracheal (ET)
tube for long-term management of an upper airway obstruction?
a. A tracheostomy is safer to perform in an emergency
b. An ET tube has a higher risk of tracheal pressure necrosis.
c. A tracheostomy tube allows for more comfort and mobility.
d. An ET tube is more likely to lead to lower respiratory trach infection.
25. A patient’s tracheostomy tube becomes dislodged with vigorous coughing. Which of
the following should the nurse’s FIRST action?
a. Attempt to replace the tube.
b. Notify the health care provider.
c. Place the patient in high Fowler position.
d. Ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag until the health care provider
arrives.
26. A patient returns to the surgical unit with a nasogastric (NGT) tube to low
intermittent suction, IV fluids, and a drain at the surgical site following an
exploratory laparotomy and repair of a bowel perforation. Four hours after
admission, the patient experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is a
PRIORITY nursing intervention for the patient?
KET/2023/2nd edition
4
1. A student nurse level one is caring a patient with ischemia condition. He/she asked I
charge nurse the meaning of ischemia. What would be the BEST response from in
charge nurse?
A. Overflow of blood to tissues
B. Restriction of blood supply to tissues
C. Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
D. The medical term for shortness of breath
2. Which of the following MOSTLY confirming the values meet the diagnostic onset for
diabetes?
A. Fasting blood glucose ≥ 140 mg/dl
B. Random glucose > 160 mg/dl
C. 2 hours post prandial glucose ≥ to 126 mg/dl
D. Fasting blood glucose ≥ 126 mg/dl
3. “Ever since my divorce, my 5-year-old has begun to wet the bed”. This is an example
of what defense mechanism?
A. Rationalization
B. Regression
C. Denial
D. Reaction formation
4. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Insulin suppresses the activity of glycogen synthase
B. Insulin mediates glucose uptake in the brain
C. "Prediabetes" is a condition characterized by an increased risk for the
future development of type 2 diabetes
D. The rise in insulin concentration after meal ingestion is reduced in type 1 but
not in type 2 diabetes
5. Human digestive system is composed of the following organs. Which of the
following organs is considered as primary absorptive organ?
A. Large intestine
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. Rectum
6. Insulin deficiency is associated with:
A. Reduced lipolysis
B. Increased ketogenesis
C. Reduced gluconeogenesis
D. Reduced proteolysis
7. The risk factors for type 2 diabetes mellitus include:
A. Family history
B. Being overweight
C. High intake of dietary fat
D. All of the options listed are correct
8. Which of the following is NOT one of the Erikson’s stages of psychosocial
development?
KET/2023/2nd edition
1
, KET 2nd edition exam Preparation questions and answers.pdf| Full Q&A | 2026/2027
A. Industry vs. Inferiority
B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
C. Trust vs. Mistrust
D. Life vs. Death
9. The pathogenesis of hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes includes all the following
mechanisms EXCEPT for:
A. Increased glucose production by the liver
B. Impaired insulin secretion
C. Decreased glucose uptake from the skeletal muscle
D. All of the options given are correct
10. Which the following statements BEST describes well the nephron?
A. It is a basic structural and functional unit of the kidney
B. It is a part that collects preformed urine together and excrete through
ureters
C. It is a tube like tunnel that regulates aldosterone
D. It is supra adrenal gland secreting steroid hormones
11. Which statement BEST describes the differences between the characteristics of type
1 and type 2 diabetes?
A. Persons with type 2 diabetes usually require lower doses of insulin than
person with type 1 diabetes because they have a milder form of diabetes
B. Persons with type 1 diabetes rapidly develop chronic complications
C. Autoimmune factors are involved in the pathogenesis of type 1 but not
type 2 diabetes
D. Persons with type 1 diabetes can increase endogenous insulin production by
taking oral hypoglycemic agents
12. Identify the statements below that are CORRECT:
1. Hallucinations means: Imaginary sensations, such as seeing, hearing, or
smelling things that do not exist in the real world.
2. The "misbehavior" of animals (instinctive idea) shows that some behaviors are
difficult to condition because they interfere with natural appetitive behaviors.
3. A variable ratio schedule is an example of intermittent reinforcement.
4. Term Psychology means” the science of human behavior and mental
processes”.
5. Primary reinforcemers do not satisfy a biological need.
Choose the correct sequence
A. 1,2,5,4
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,3,4, 5
D. 1,2,3,4,5
13. Which of the following is NOT a beneficial effect of exercise in people with diabetes?
A. Reduction of triglycerides
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Increase of insulin sensitivity
D. Controlling hypertension
KET/2023/2nd edition
2
, KET 2nd edition exam Preparation questions and answers.pdf| Full Q&A | 2026/2027
14. A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: ph
7.45, Pco2 of 30mmhg, and HCO3- of 22 mEq/L. The nurse analysis these results as
indicating which condition?
A. Metabolic acidosis, compensated
B. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
C. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
D. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
15. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction.
The nurse monitors the client, knowing the client is at risk for which acid-base
disorder?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
16. In malaria, where do asexual sporozoites undergo schizogony to form merozoites?
A. In the stomach of the female anopheles mosquito
B. In liver cells
C. In red blood cells
D. In macrophages
17. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and documents that the
client is experiencing Kussmaul's respirations. Based on this documentation, which
of the following did the nurse observe?
A. Respirations that cease for several seconds.
B. Respirations that are regular but abnormally slow.
C. Respirations that are labored and increased in depth and rate.
D. Respirations that are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate.
18. A client who is found unresponsive has arterial blood gases drawn and the results
indicate the following: pH is 7.12, Pco2 is 90 mmHg, and HCO3- is 22 mEq/L. The
nurse interprets the results as indicating which condition?
A. Metabolic acidosis, compensated
B. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
C. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
D. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated.
19. A nurse plans care for a client with COPD, understanding the client is MOST LIKELY
to experience:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
20. The patient is a 75-year-old man with a history of emphysema. He comes to the
emergency department reporting a productive cough that causes chest pain
and fatigue. "I am having more problems breathing than usual." Which assessment
indicates that this patient has INADEQUATE oxygenation?
A. Decreased urine output
KET/2023/2nd edition
3
, KET 2nd edition exam Preparation questions and answers.pdf| Full Q&A | 2026/2027
B. Bradycardia
C. Decreased chest expansion
D. Hypotension
21. Which of the following is the rationale for using preoperative checklist on the day of
surgery?
a. To ensure that the patient is correctly identified.
b. To ensure that all preoperative orders and procedures have been carried out
and records are complete.
c. To confirm that the patients’ families have been informed as to where they can
accompany and wait for patients.
d. Preoperative medications are the last procedure before the patient is transported to
the operating room
22. At the end of the surgical procedure, the preoperative nurse evaluates the patient’s
response to the nursing care delivered during the perioperative period. Which of the
following BEST reflects a positive outcome related to the patient’s physical status?
a. The patient’s right to privacy is maintained
b. The patient’s care is consistent with the perioperative plan of care.
c. The patient receives consistent and comparable care regardless of the setting
d. The patient’s respiratory function is consistent with or improved from
baseline levels established preoperatively
23. The patient tells the nurse in the preoperative setting that she has noticed a reaction
when wearing rubber gloves. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
intervention?
a. Notify the surgeon so the case can be cancelled.
b. Ask additional questions to assess for a possible latex allergy.
c. Notify the Operating Room staff immediately so that latex-free supplies can be used.
d. No interventions is needed because the patient’s rubber sensitivity has no bearing
on surgery
24. Which of the following is an advantage of tracheostomy over an endotracheal (ET)
tube for long-term management of an upper airway obstruction?
a. A tracheostomy is safer to perform in an emergency
b. An ET tube has a higher risk of tracheal pressure necrosis.
c. A tracheostomy tube allows for more comfort and mobility.
d. An ET tube is more likely to lead to lower respiratory trach infection.
25. A patient’s tracheostomy tube becomes dislodged with vigorous coughing. Which of
the following should the nurse’s FIRST action?
a. Attempt to replace the tube.
b. Notify the health care provider.
c. Place the patient in high Fowler position.
d. Ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag until the health care provider
arrives.
26. A patient returns to the surgical unit with a nasogastric (NGT) tube to low
intermittent suction, IV fluids, and a drain at the surgical site following an
exploratory laparotomy and repair of a bowel perforation. Four hours after
admission, the patient experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is a
PRIORITY nursing intervention for the patient?
KET/2023/2nd edition
4
