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maternal newborn nursing

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Exam of 40 pages for the course HSA - Health Service Administration at HSA - Health Service Administration (help in studies)

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HSA - Health Service Administration
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January 8, 2026
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Written in
2025/2026
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ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING - EXIT
EXAM 2024 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Diaphragm - ANSWER Spermicide must be applied with each act of sexual intercourse
and should remain in place 6 hrs after. Empty bladder prior to coitus

Transdermal contraceptive patch - ANSWER Patch applied to dry skin overlying subQ
tissue, excluding breast

Depo-Provera - ANSWER IM injection given every 11-13 weeks (start should be during
first 5 days of clients menstrual cycle)

Essure - ANSWER Insertion of agent resulting in development of scar tissue in
Fallopian tubes. Not reversible

Female sterilization - ANSWER Burning or blocking the Fallopian tubes. Not reversible

Vasectomy - ANSWER Ligation and severance of vas deferens. Need alternate form of
birth control for 20 ejaculations

RhoGAM - ANSWER Administered at 28 weeks gestation to a mother who is Rh-
negative and gives birth to an Rh-positive infant. Recommended following an
amniocentesis

Oxytocin (Pitocin) - ANSWER Monitor for water intoxication (lightheaded, n/v,
headache, malaise) which can lead to cerebral edema, seizures, coma, and death.
Contraindicated based on late decelerations

3 hour glucose tolerance test - ANSWER Screens for gestational diabetes and is done
at 28 weeks of gestation

Rubella titer - ANSWER Obtained at initial prenatal visit (about 6 weeks gestation)

Betamethasone (Celestone) - ANSWER Glucocorticoid administered IM in 2 injections
24 hr apart, given to stimulate fetal lung maturity if early delivery is anticipated and to
prevent respiratory distress. Can cause pulmonary edema (crackles, chest pain, SOB)

Leopold Maneuver - ANSWER Abdominal palpation of fetus, lie, attitude, helps nurse
assess the position of the fetus to determine the optimal placement of the fetal
monitoring transducer. Empty bladder beforehand, supine positioning

, Steps of Leopold Maneuver - ANSWER Palpate client's fundus, determine location of
fetal back, palpate fetal part presenting at the inlet, and palpate the cephalic
prominence to identify the attitude of the head

Ferning test - ANSWER If positive, indicates rupture of membranes

Expected newborn temp - ANSWER 36.5-37.2

Expected newborn HR - ANSWER 120-160

Expected newborn RR - ANSWER 30-60

Expected newborn BP - ANSWER 60-80 S, 40-50 D

Expected newborn length - ANSWER 45-55 cm

Expected newborn weight - ANSWER 2,500-4,000 g

What is effleurage? - ANSWER Client strokes abdomen using circular motion during
contractions

Maternal Serum Alpha-Fetoprotein - ANSWER Screening tool for neural tube defects
that is effective between 15 and 22 weeks. levels above indicate the need for an
ultrasound

Position for transvaginal ultrasound - ANSWER Lithotomy position

Biophysical profile assesses? - ANSWER Fetal
HR, breathing, body movements, fetal tone, and qualitative amniotic fluid volume

What does biophysical profile indicate? - ANSWER The risk of asphyxia

Nonstress test - ANSWER Client presses a button whenever they feel fetal movement
which allows nurse to assess FHR in relationship to the fetal movement

Reactive stress test - ANSWER FHR has moderate variability, accelerated to 15
beats/min for at least 15 seconds and occurs two or more times during a 20 minute
period

Nonreactive stress test - ANSWER FHR does not accelerate adequately with fetal
movement. Does not meet criteria after 40 minutes. Contraction stress test or
biophysical profile is indicated

Contraction stress test - ANSWER FHR in response to contractions which decreases
placental blood flow

, Amniocentesis - ANSWER Performed after 14 weeks gestation, empty bladder
beforehand, client in supine position

High levels of AFP - ANSWER Alpha-Fetoprotein is measured between 16 and 18
weeks and is used to detect neural tube defects (anencephaly), spina bifida, and
omphalocele

Low levels AFP - ANSWER Chromosomal disorders (Down syndrome)

Fetal lung tests - ANSWER Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio- 2:1 indicating lung maturity or
3:1 for diabetes mellitus

Percutaneous blood sampling - ANSWER Obtains fetal blood from umbilical cord which
evaluates isoimmune fetal hemolytic anemia and assesses need for fetal blood
transfusion

Chorionic Villus sampling - ANSWER Alternative to amniocentesis (10-12 weeks
gestation)

Quad marker screening - ANSWER Blood test that ascertains info about likelihood of
fetal birth defects. Includes AFP, hCG, Estriol, Inhibin-A

Placenta previa - ANSWER Placenta abnormally implants in the lower segment of the
uterus near or over the cervix. Results in abnormal bleeding during the 3rd trimester as
cervix begins to dilate

Placenta previa- marginal or low lying - ANSWER Placenta is attached to lower uterine
segment but does not reach cervix

Signs of placenta previa - ANSWER Painless vaginal bleeding

Abruptio placenta - ANSWER Premature separation of placenta from uterus. Can occur
after 20 weeks gestation

Signs of abruptio placenta - ANSWER Sudden onset of dark red vaginal bleeding,
sharp abdominal pain, and tender rigid uterus (board like)

Spontaneous abortion - ANSWER Pregnancy is terminated before 20 weeks or fetal
weight is less than 500 g. Vaginal bleeding, uterine cramping, and partial or complete
expulsion of products of conception

Ectopic pregnancy - ANSWER Abnormal implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the
uterine cavity usually in fallopian tubes. Abrupt unilateral lower-quadrant abdominal pain
with or without vaginal bleeding, scant dark red vaginal spotting occurring 6-8 weeks
after last normal menses

, Gestational trophoblastic disease - ANSWER Swollen, fluid-filled grape like clusters in
the placenta. Associated with choriocarcinoma which is a rapidly metastasizing
malignancy

Signs of gestational trophoblastic diease - ANSWER Uterine size increasing
abnormally fast, abnormally high levels of hCG, nausea and increased emesis, no fetus
present on ultrasound, and scant or profuse dark brown or red vaginal bleeding

HIV/AIDs - ANSWER Avoid amniocentesis and episiotomy because of the risk of blood
exposure

Retrovir - ANSWER Antiviral given at 14 weeks gestation throughout pregnancy for
HIV/AIDs. Given to infant for 6 weeks following birth

TORCH - ANSWER Toxoplasmosis, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes Simplex
Virus

Toxoplasmosis - ANSWER Consumption of raw or undercooked meat or handling cat
feces, fever and tender lymph nodes

Rubella - ANSWER Contracted through children who have rashes or neonates who are
born to mothers who had rubella during pregnancy, rash, mild lymphedema, fever, and
fetal consequences

Cytomegalovirus - ANSWER Member of the herpes family, transmitted by droplet
infection, found in semen, cervical or vaginal secretions, breast milk, placental tissue,
urine, feces, or blood

Herpes Simplex Virus - ANSWER Oral or genital lesions, transmission to the fetus is
greatest during vaginal birth if the woman has active lesions. Fetal consequences
include miscarriage, preterm labor, and intrauterine growth restriction

Group B Streptococcus B-hemolytic - ANSWER Positive GBS may have effects
including premature rupture of membranes, preterm labor, chorioamnionitis, infections
of urinary tract, and maternal sepsis. Vaginal and rectal cultures are performed at 36-37
weeks of gestation

Medications for GBS - ANSWER Penicillin G or Ampicillin (Principen)

Chlamydia - ANSWER Vaginal spotting, vulvar intching, postcoital bleeding and
dysuria, white watery discharge

Chlamydia medications - ANSWER Azithromycin (Zithromax), amoxicillin (Amoxil),
erythromycin (Ery-Tab)
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