D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - correct
answer Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - correct
answer Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct answer Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that
provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and
14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid
and is usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy.
PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome
with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - correct
answer Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This
term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat
syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct answer The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X
to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she
has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
,D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to
the disease rate in an unexposed population? - correct answer Relative risk is a ratio of
probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - correct answer Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of
each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answer The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound
healing? - correct answer The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to
fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - correct answer
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answer Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answer Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering
the antigen? - correct answer Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - correct answer The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
,D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - correct answer An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answer Infection with a fungus
is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? -
correct answer Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas
HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be
needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a
high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answer Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
cancer? - correct answer The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied
and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely
to develop? - correct answer Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung
lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct answer UV light causes
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing
thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These
thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - correct answer
Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - correct
answer Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - correct
answer Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct answer Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that
provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and
14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid
and is usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy.
PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome
with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - correct
answer Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This
term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat
syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct answer The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X
to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she
has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
,D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to
the disease rate in an unexposed population? - correct answer Relative risk is a ratio of
probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - correct answer Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of
each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answer The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound
healing? - correct answer The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to
fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - correct answer
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answer Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answer Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering
the antigen? - correct answer Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - correct answer The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
,D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - correct answer An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answer Infection with a fungus
is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? -
correct answer Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas
HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be
needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a
high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answer Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
cancer? - correct answer The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied
and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely
to develop? - correct answer Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung
lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct answer UV light causes
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing
thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These
thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - correct answer
Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has
