10TH EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)SHEILA L. VIDEBECK
TEST BANK
UNIT 1 — CURRENT THEORIES & PRACTICE
1
Reference
Ch. 1 — Foundations of Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing —
Mental Health and Mental Illness
Stem
A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic reporting difficulty
sleeping, diminished interest in usual activities, and saying he
"feels worthless" for 3 weeks. He is tearful, maintains poor eye
contact, and reports missing work. As the psychiatric-mental
,health nurse, which action best reflects an initial, therapeutic
nursing priority?
A. Encourage him to join a group therapy program and provide
a pamphlet.
B. Assess the intensity and frequency of his hopeless feelings
and safety risk.
C. Prescribe a sleep aid and instruct him to monitor mood
changes.
D. Advise him to restart regular exercise and social activities
immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale — Correct (B)
Assessing the severity and frequency of hopeless feelings and
any safety risk is the immediate nursing priority because it
determines urgency of intervention and safety planning. This
assessment aligns with the nurse’s role in risk identification and
establishing a therapeutic, nonjudgmental basis for care. It
precedes psychoeducation, medication decisions, or referrals.
Rationale — Incorrect
A. Group therapy is appropriate later but premature without
risk assessment and stabilization.
C. Nurses do not prescribe medications; initiating a sleep aid
without collaboration is outside scope.
D. Encouraging activity is useful, but advising immediate
resumption without assessing capacity or safety may be
ineffective.
,Teaching point:
Always assess risk and safety before implementing referrals or
interventions.
Citation:
Videbeck, S. L. (2025). Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing (10th
ed.). Ch. 1.
2
Reference
Ch. 1 — Foundations of Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing —
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
Stem
A patient is referred after repeated workplace conflicts. During
assessment the nurse notes inconsistent sleep, irritability, and
difficulty concentrating; the referring clinician suggests "anxiety
disorder" but provides few specifics. Which nursing action best
supports accurate diagnostic formulation using DSM principles?
A. Rely exclusively on the referral diagnosis and begin
educational handouts.
B. Perform a thorough biopsychosocial history and document
duration, severity, and functional impact.
C. Label the patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
after a brief interview.
D. Ask the patient to review DSM criteria online and self-
diagnose before the next visit.
, Correct answer: B
Rationale — Correct (B)
A thorough biopsychosocial assessment documenting symptom
duration, severity, and functional impairment supports accurate
DSM-based diagnostic formulation and appropriate care
planning. DSM diagnoses require structured assessment of
criteria and consideration of medical/psychosocial contributors.
Rationale — Incorrect
A. Relying solely on the referral is inadequate and risks
misdiagnosis.
C. Making a definitive diagnosis after a brief interview risks
errors; diagnostic criteria must be systematically assessed.
D. Asking the patient to self-diagnose is inappropriate and may
cause confusion.
Teaching point:
Use systematic biopsychosocial assessment to map symptoms
onto DSM criteria.
Citation:
Videbeck, S. L. (2025). Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing (10th
ed.). Ch. 1.
3
Reference
Ch. 1 — Foundations of Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing —
Historical Perspectives of the Treatment of Mental Illness