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Advanced Barkley FNP Board Review: High-Yield Practice Questions With BoardStyle Rationales

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Advanced Barkley FNP Board Review: High-Yield Practice Questions With BoardStyle Rationales

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Uploaded on
January 6, 2026
Number of pages
28
Written in
2025/2026
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Advanced Barkley FNP Board Review:
High-Yield Practice Questions With Board-
Style Rationales



Q1. A 52-year-old male with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 8.9% despite
metformin therapy. According to current guidelines, the most
appropriate next step is to add:

A. Sulfonylurea
B. GLP-1 receptor agonist
C. Basal insulin only
D. Thiazolidinedione

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: GLP-1 receptor agonists improve glycemic control, promote
weight loss, and reduce cardiovascular risk. They are preferred over
sulfonylureas and insulin when A1C is uncontrolled on metformin alone.

Q2. A patient presents with sudden onset unilateral facial droop
involving the forehead. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Stroke
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Bell’s palsy
D. Temporal arteritis

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bell’s palsy causes complete unilateral facial paralysis
including the forehead, unlike stroke which typically spares the forehead.

,Q3. The first-line treatment for acute bacterial sinusitis in adults is:

A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Doxycycline
D. Ciprofloxacin

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the first-line therapy due to
resistance patterns. Macrolides are no longer recommended.

Q4. A patient with asthma reports nighttime symptoms twice weekly.
This asthma is classified as:

A. Intermittent
B. Mild persistent
C. Moderate persistent
D. Severe persistent

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Nighttime symptoms more than twice per month but less than
weekly indicate mild persistent asthma, requiring daily low-dose inhaled
corticosteroids.

Q5. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Nifedipine

Correct Answer: C

, Rationale: ACE inhibitors are teratogenic and associated with fetal renal
failure and death.



Q6. A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. The
most diagnostic initial test is:

A. Fasting glucose
B. A1C
C. Random plasma glucose
D. Oral glucose tolerance test

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A random glucose ≥200 mg/dL with symptoms is diagnostic of
diabetes.



Q7. Which vaccine is recommended annually for all adults?

A. Pneumococcal
B. Influenza
C. Hepatitis B
D. Shingles

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for all adults
unless contraindicated.



Q8. A 67-year-old smoker presents with hemoptysis and weight loss.
The most concerning diagnosis is:

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